WorksheetsIB Biology - Unit 2 Revision
Total questions: 179
Worksheet time: 3580secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which branch of Biology explains living processes in terms of the chemical substances involved?
a)
Cell Biology
b)
Molecular Biology
c)
Environmental Biology
d)
Chemical Biology
2.
How many bonds can a carbon atom form?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
4
d)
6
3.
Which biological molecules are composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio?
a)
Proteins
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Nucleic Acids
d)
Lipids
4.
Which biological molecules are insoluble in water and includes steroids and waxes?
a)
Proteins
b)
Nucleic Acids
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Lipids
5.
Which triglycerides are liquid at room temperature?
a)
Steroids
b)
Fats
c)
Oils
d)
Waxes
6.
Which biological molecules contain the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
7.
What are the monomers that make up proteins?
a)
Glucose
b)
Pentose Sugar
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol
8.
What are the subunits that make up nucleic acids called?
a)
Ribose
b)
Phosphate backbone
c)
Deoxyribose
d)
Nucleotides
9.
What is the name for all the enzyme catalysed reactions in a cell or organism?
a)
Respiration
b)
Anabolism
c)
Metabolism
d)
Catabolism
10.
What is the name for the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler molecules?
a)
Anabolism
b)
Respiration
c)
Metabolism
d)
Catabolism
11.
What is the name for the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules
a)
Catabolism
b)
Anabolism
c)
Respiration
d)
Metabolism
12.
How could you distinguish an amino acid from a carbohydrate or lipid?
a)
Presence of a carboxyl group
b)
A ring of carbon and 1 oxygen
c)
Presence of oxygen
d)
Presence of nitrogen
13.
Which statement is true about water molecules?
a)
They are polar
b)
They are hydrophobic
c)
They are nonpolar
d)
They are ionic
14.
What type of bond forms between two water molecules?
a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Polar bonds
c)
Ionic bonds
d)
Covalent bonds
15.
What is the name for the property where two water molecules bind together?
a)
Cohesion
b)
Dipolarity
c)
Adhesion
d)
Solvent
16.
What is the name for the property where hydrogen bonds form between water and other polar molecules?
a)
Adhesion
b)
Cohesion
c)
Dipolarity
d)
Solvent
17.
Which statement is true of water?
a)
Low specific heat capacity & high latent heat of vaporisation
b)
High specific heat capacity & high latent heat of vaporisation
c)
High specific heat capacity & low latent heat of vaporisation
d)
Low specific heat capacity & low latent heat of vaporisation
18.
What property of water means polar substances will dissolve freely in it?
a)
Solvent
b)
Cohesive
c)
Adhesive
d)
Thermal
19.
What property of water allows organisms to maintain particular temperatures?
a)
High latent heat of vaporization
b)
High density
c)
High specific heat capacity
d)
High latent heat of fusion
20.
Why is the boiling point of methane much lower than water?
a)
It is nonpolar and does not form hydrogen bonds
b)
It is polar but forms just one hydrogen bond
c)
It has 4 hydrogen atoms rather than 2
d)
It has weaker polar bonds
21.
What is the term for substances that are attracted to water?
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic
c)
Amphipathic
d)
Adhesive
22.
How does sweating help to cool the body?
a)
Water from sweat feels cool on the skin
b)
Sweating does not help cool the body
c)
Sweat prevents heat entering the body
d)
Heat energy from the skin is lost as it is used to evaporate sweat
23.
How is sodium chloride, glucose and amino acids transported in the blood?
a)
Dissolved in blood plasma
b)
Carried in white blood cells
c)
Carried in red blood cells
d)
Carried inside lipoproteins
24.
How is oxygen transported in the blood?
a)
Carried in red blood cells
b)
Carried in white blood cells
c)
Dissolved in blood plasma
d)
Carried inside lipoproteins
25.
How are fats and cholesterol transported in the blood?
a)
Carried in white blood cells
b)
Carried inside lipoproteins
c)
Dissolved in blood plasma
d)
Carried in red blood cells
26.
What property of water ensures that ice floats, allowing organisms to survive below the surface?
a)
Ice has a lower specific heat capacity than liquid water
b)
Ice is less adhesive than liquid water
c)
Ice is less dense than liquid water
d)
Ice is less cohesive than liquid water
27.
What property of water allows aquatic plants to photosynthesise?
a)
Water has a high specific heat capacity
b)
Water is transparent
c)
Water is a solvent
d)
Water is adhesive
28.
What are single sugar monomers called?
a)
Polysaccharides
b)
Disaccharides
c)
Monosaccharides
d)
Oligosaccharides
29.
Which of the following is a monosaccharide?
a)
Sucrose
b)
Starch
c)
Maltose
d)
Ribose
30.
What type of reaction links monosaccharide monomers together?
a)
Hydrolysis reaction
b)
Displacement reaction
c)
Neutralisation reaction
d)
Condensation reaction
31.
What other molecule is produced during the reaction to form a dissacharide?
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Water
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Oxygen
32.
What type of sugar is formed from two sugar monomers joining together?
a)
Oligosaccharide
b)
Dissacharide
c)
Polysaccharide
d)
Monosaccharide
33.
Which of the following is disaccharide?
a)
Glycogen
b)
Glucose
c)
Maltose
d)
Fructose
34.
What type of sugar is formed from many sugar monomers linking together?
a)
Dissacharide
b)
Polysaccharide
c)
Monosaccharide
d)
Multisaccharide
35.
Which of the following is a polysaccharide?
a)
Fructose
b)
Lactose
c)
Cellulose
d)
Sucrose
36.
What type of bond is formed when sugar monomers link together?
a)
Hydrogen bonds
b)
Ester bonds
c)
Condensation bonds
d)
Glycosidic bonds
37.
Which of the following is formed from 𝝱-glucose subunits with 1-4 glycosidic bonds?
a)
Starch
b)
Amylopectin
c)
Glycogen
d)
Cellulose
38.
Which of the following has the most branched structure?
a)
Glycogen
b)
Cellulose
c)
Amylopectin
d)
Amylose
39.
Which of the following has a spiral structure with no branches?
a)
Amylopectin
b)
Cellulose
c)
Amylose
d)
Glycogen
40.
Which two molecules are present in starch?
a)
Amylose & Amylopectin
b)
Glycerol & Fatty Acids
c)
Cellulose & Glycogen
d)
Glucose & Ribose
41.
Which polysaccharide is an energy store in animals?
a)
Glycogen
b)
Starch
c)
Cellulose
d)
Amylose
42.
Which polysaccharide forms structural fibres when hydrogen bonds form between adjacent chains?
a)
Glycogen
b)
Cellulose
c)
Starch
d)
Amylose
43.
What is formed by a condensation reaction from three fatty acids and one gylcerol?
a)
Polysaccharide
b)
Triglyceride
c)
Phospholipid
d)
Steroid
44.
What type of reaction forms triglycerides?
a)
Hydrolysis reaction
b)
Displacement reaction
c)
Condensation reaction
d)
Neutralisation reaction
45.
How many water molecules are removed when a triglyceride is formed?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
0
46.
Which option below is true of the uses of lipids?
a)
Energy storage, insulation, protect vital organs
b)
Energy storage, skin firmness, insulation
c)
Insulation, buoyancy, production of red blood cells
d)
Protect vital organs, waterproof, produce keratin
47.
What tissue in the body stores lipids?
a)
Muscle
b)
Adipose
c)
Nervous
d)
Epithelial
48.
Which biological molecule produces the most energy per gram?
a)
Lipid
b)
Water
c)
Protein
d)
Carbohydrate
49.
Which statement is true about short and long term energy storage?
a)
Carbohydrates are best for short and long term
b)
Carbohydrates are best for short term. Lipids are best for long term
c)
Lipids are best for short and long term
d)
Lipids are best for short term. Carbohydrates are best for long term
50.
What is the correct equation to calculate body mass index?
a)
Mass (kg)/Height² (m)
b)
Mass (kg)/Height (m)
c)
Mass²(kg)/Height²(m)
d)
Mass²(kg)/Height(m)
51.
What is the name for a fatty acid with only single bonds between its carbon atoms?
a)
Hydrolysed
b)
Condensed
c)
Esterified
d)
Saturated
52.
What is the difference between a saturated fat and an unsaturated fat?
a)
Unsaturated fats contain at least one double bond between carbon atoms
b)
Unsaturated fats are more likely to be solid at room temperature
c)
Unsaturated fats are longer
d)
Unsaturated fats are less healthy
53.
What is the difference between a monounsaturated fat and a polyunsaturated fat?
a)
Polyunsaturated fats are always cis & monosaturated are always trans
b)
Polyunsaturated fats have more than one double bond between carbon atoms
c)
Polyunsaturated fats have more carboxyl groups
d)
Polyunsaturated fats are always longer
54.
What are the two isomers for unsaturated fatty acids?
a)
cis and trans
b)
tris and cans
c)
cris and tans
d)
cas and trins
55.
Which types of fats are the least healthy?
a)
Cis fats and unsaturated fats
b)
Cis fats and saturated fats
c)
Trans fats and unsaturated fats
d)
Trans fats and saturated fats
56.
What monomer forms proteins?
a)
Water
b)
Amino Acids
c)
Fatty Acids
d)
Sugars
57.
What type of reaction links two amino acids together?
a)
Hydrolysis reaction
b)
Displacement reaction
c)
Condensation reaction
d)
Neutralisation reaction
58.
What type of bond forms between two amino acids?
a)
Ester bond
b)
Hydrogen bond
c)
Peptide bond
d)
Glycosidic bond
59.
What is formed when many amino acids join together?
a)
Polyunsaturated fatty acid
b)
Polyester
c)
Polypeptide
d)
Polysaccharide
60.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
10
b)
50
c)
20
d)
100
61.
Where are polypeptides synthesised?
a)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Apparatus
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Centrioles
62.
What elements do all amino acids have?
a)
Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen and Nitrogen
b)
Carbon, Oxygen and Hydrogen
c)
Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen & Sulphur
d)
Carbon and hydrogen
63.
What is the name for the variable group on an amino acid?
a)
N group
b)
R group
c)
Z group
d)
C group
64.
What parts of amino acids react to form polypeptides?
a)
Amino group from one amino acid with the R group of another
b)
Carboxyl groups from adjacent amino acids
c)
Amino group from one amino acid with the carboxyl group of another
d)
Amino groups from adjacent amino acid
65.
What is the amino acid sequence determined by?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Proteome
c)
Centromere
d)
Genes
66.
Which statement is true about proteins?
a)
Can consist of a single polypeptide or many linked together
b)
Only consist of multiple polypeptide chains linked together
c)
Only consist of a single polypeptide chain
d)
Never consist of more than two chains linked together
67.
What does the amino acid sequence of a protein determine?
a)
Whether it is used inside or outside the cell
b)
Which ribosome it attaches to
c)
The base sequence of the gene
d)
Its 3D shape and function
68.
Which protein catalyses the reaction that fixes carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
a)
Rubisco
b)
Collagen
c)
Insulin
d)
Rhodopsin
69.
Which protein signals to cells to absorb glucose?
a)
Insulin
b)
Collagen
c)
Rubisco
d)
Rhodopsin
70.
Which protein forms a structural mesh of fibres in skin and blood vessels?
a)
Collagen
b)
Rhodopsin
c)
Rubisco
d)
Insulin
71.
Which protein is found in the membrane of rod cells of the retina?
a)
Rubisco
b)
Insulin
c)
Rhodopsin
d)
Collagen
72.
Which proteins bind to antigens on bacteria and other pathogens?
a)
Insulin
b)
Rhodopsin
c)
Rubisco
d)
Immunoglobulins
73.
Which protein is stronger than steel?
a)
Rubisco
b)
Spider silk
c)
Rhodopsin
d)
Immunoglobulins
74.
What is the term to describe all the proteins produced by a cell, tissue or organism?
a)
Aminome
b)
Proteome
c)
Peptidome
d)
Genome
75.
Which conditions cause a protein to denature?
a)
High temperature and extremes of pH
b)
Extreme temperatures and high pH
c)
Low temperature and extremes of pH
d)
High and low temperatures and extremes of pH
76.
Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
a)
Blood clotting
b)
Muscle contraction
c)
Insulation
d)
Packing DNA
77.
Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
a)
Energy storage
b)
Immunity
c)
Cytoskeleton structure
d)
Membrane transport
78.
What is the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain known as?
a)
Primary Structure
b)
Quarternary Structure
c)
Secondary Structure
d)
Tertiary Structure
79.
What is the folding of a polypeptide chain into alpha helices and bete-pleated sheets known as?
a)
Quarternary Structure
b)
Primary Structure
c)
Tertiary Structure
d)
Secondary Structure
80.
What is the 3D shape formed when a polypeptide chain folds known as?
a)
Tertiary Structure
b)
Quarternary Structure
c)
Primary Structure
d)
Secondary Structure
81.
What structure is formed when more than one polypeptide chain fold together?
a)
Primary Structure
b)
Tertiary Structure
c)
Quarternary Structure
d)
Secondary Structure
82.
Which part of an enzyme does the substrate bind to?
a)
Action Site
b)
Active Site
c)
Allosteric Site
d)
Activation Site
83.
What is the name of the substances that enzymes act on?
a)
Substrates
b)
Chemicals
c)
Reactants
d)
Products
84.
What term describes the idea that one enzyme catalyses one reaction?
a)
Enzyme-substrate coupling
b)
Enzyme-substrate linking
c)
Enzyme-substrate binding
d)
Enzyme-substrate specificity
85.
What does the shape of an enzyme determine?
a)
Its function
b)
Where it is produced
c)
How long it works for
d)
How much is found in the body
86.
What is required for enzyme catalysis to occur?
a)
Enzyme numbers to exceed substrate numbers
b)
Multiple enzymes to join together
c)
Collision of a substrate with the active site
d)
A signal from the central nervous system
87.
What happens to an enzyme at high temperatures?
a)
The active site is denatured
b)
It does not move fast enough to collide successfully
c)
It moves too fast to collide successfully with the substrate
d)
The substrate is denatured
88.
What happens to an enzyme at low temperatures?
a)
The active site is denatured
b)
The substrate is denatured
c)
There is low kinetic energy and fewer successful collisions
d)
The enzyme does not move
89.
Which conditions can denature an enzyme?
a)
High pH and extremes of temperature
b)
Low temperature and extremes of pH
c)
Low pH and extremes of temperature
d)
High temperature and extremes of pH
90.
What is the process by which the active site of an enzyme is altered so the substrate no longer binds?
a)
Denaturation
b)
Catalysis
c)
Proteination
d)
Condensation
91.
What happens to enzyme activity at a high substrate concentration?
a)
Nothing
b)
Increases
c)
Levels off
d)
Decreases
92.
What does a graph of temperature and enzyme activity look like?
a)
The rise and fall have the same steepness
b)
The fall after the optimum is steeper than the rise before it
c)
The graph rises and then levels off
d)
The rise before the optimum is steeper than the fall after it
93.
What term describes enzymes that are attached to another material to restrict its movement?
a)
Restricted
b)
Immobilised
c)
Contained
d)
Retained
94.
Which of these is not an advantage of immobilised enzymes?
a)
Equipment setup is cheaper
b)
Enzyme is less affected by changes in temperature & pH
c)
Enzyme is easily recycled
d)
Enzyme is easily separated from the products
95.
How is lactose-free milk produced?
a)
Lactase enzyme is used and is obtained from bacteria
b)
Lactose enzyme is used and is obtained from bacteria
c)
Lactase enzyme is used and is obtained from yeast
d)
Lactose enzyme is used and is obtained from yeast
96.
What are the products of the break down of lactose?
a)
Glucose & galactose
b)
Glucose only
c)
Glucose & lactase
d)
Lactase and galactose
97.
Which is not a benefit of lactose free milk?
a)
Bacteria ferment glucose and galactose faster than lactose
b)
Some people are lactose-intolerant
c)
Glucose and galactose give a smoother texture
d)
Lactose is sweeter than glucose and galactose
98.
What are DNA and RNA?
a)
Polymers of nucleotides
b)
Polymers of bases
c)
Monomers of bases
d)
Monomers of nucleotides
99.
Which statement is correct about DNA?
a)
It contains 1 strand
b)
It contains deoxyribose sugar
c)
It contains uracil
d)
It does not have a phosphate group
100.
Which base is present in RNA but not DNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Uracil
d)
Thymine
101.
What type of bonds form between complementary bases on opposite strands?
a)
Covalent
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Ionic
d)
Phosphodiester
102.
Which bases are complementary in DNA?
a)
A with T and C with G
b)
A with C and G with T
c)
A with G and C with T
d)
A with U and C with G
103.
Which bases are complementary in RNA?
a)
A with T and U with G
b)
A with T and C with U
c)
U with T and C with G
d)
A with U and C with G
104.
What does a nucleotide consist of?
a)
A sugar, a phosphate group and a base
b)
A sugar, an ester group and a base
c)
A phosphate group, an ester and a base
d)
A sugar and a base
105.
What sugar is present in a nucleotide?
a)
Pentose
b)
Hexose
c)
Lactose
d)
Glucose
106.
What bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of another?
a)
Glycosidic bond
b)
Phosphodiester bond
c)
Ionic bond
d)
Ester bond
107.
Which statement describes the two strands in DNA?
a)
Conjoined helix
b)
Antiparallel double helix
c)
Semi-conservative parallel helix
d)
Conservative parallel helix
108.
Who is credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA?
a)
Wilkins & Franklin
b)
Crick & Watson
c)
Meselson & Stahl
d)
Hershey & Chase
109.
How did Watson and Crick test ideas of DNA structure?
a)
Using chemical tests
b)
Building models of the structure
c)
Looking under a microscope
d)
Using computer simulations
110.
What sugar is present in RNA?
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Sucrose
c)
Ribose
d)
Glucose
111.
In simple drawings of DNA and RNA how is the sugar represented?
a)
A hexagon
b)
A pentagon
c)
A rectangle
d)
A circle
112.
In simple drawings of DNA and RNA how are bases represented?
a)
As triangles
b)
As pentagons
c)
As rectangles
d)
As circles
113.
What is the term for replicated DNA that has 1 original strand and 1 new strand?
a)
Semi-conservative
b)
Degenerate
c)
Complementary
d)
Anticodon
114.
Which Scientists provided evidence to support the theory of semi-conservative replication of DNA?
a)
Crick & Watson
b)
Meselson & Stahl
c)
Hershey & Chase
d)
Davson & Danielli
115.
What does the replication of DNA depend on?
a)
tRNA
b)
Ribosomes
c)
mRNA
d)
Complementary base pairing
116.
Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between the two strands?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
DNA Ligase
c)
Helicase
d)
Taq Polymerase
117.
What is the role of the enzyme Helicase?
a)
Joins fragments of DNA together
b)
Unwinds the DNA double helix
c)
Adds complementary nucleotides
d)
Transfers DNA between species
118.
Which enzyme links nucleotides together to form a new strand using the pre-existing strand as a template?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
RNA Polmerase
c)
Helicase
d)
Ligase
119.
What is the role of DNA Polymerase?
a)
Adds complementary nucleotides to replicate DNA
b)
Joins fragments of DNA together
c)
Unwinds the DNA double helix
d)
Adds complementary nucleotides to form mRNA
120.
What process is used to produce multiple copies of DNA rapidly?
a)
Gel Electrophoresis
b)
Transcription
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Taq Polymerase
121.
What enzyme is used to rapidly produce multiple copies of DNA?
a)
Ligase
b)
RNA Polymerase
c)
Taq Polymerase
d)
Helicase
122.
Why is Taq Polymerase so useful?
a)
It is stable at high temperatures
b)
It is cheap
c)
It works faster than human DNA Polymerase
d)
It is easily obtained
123.
What process is the synthesis of mRNA from DNA?
a)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
d)
Replication
124.
What is mRNA?
a)
Mitochondrial RNA
b)
Magnificent RNA
c)
Micro RNA
d)
Messenger RNA
125.
What process is the synthesis of polypeptides on ribosomes?
a)
Translation
b)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
c)
Replication
d)
Transcription
126.
How many bases are read at a time by a ribosome?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
1
d)
2
127.
What is the name for a sequence of 3 bases on mRNA?
a)
Codon
b)
Anti-codon
c)
Polypeptide
d)
Amino Acid
128.
There can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid. What is the term for this property?
a)
Replicated code
b)
Degenerate code
c)
Conservative Code
d)
Multiplied Code
129.
Which strand is used to create mRNA?
a)
Antisense or Template strand
b)
Sense or coding strand
c)
Sense or template strand
d)
Antisense or coding strand
130.
Which DNA strand will have the same sequence (with T's rather than U's) as the mRNA?
a)
Sense or template strand
b)
Antisense or Template strand
c)
Antisense or coding strand
d)
Sense or coding strand
131.
What is the mRNA strand if the template DNA strand is: CCTAAG?
a)
CCUAAG
b)
GGAUUC
c)
GGATTC
d)
CCTAAG
132.
What is the antisense strand of DNA if the mRNA sequence is: ACCGUU?
a)
UGGCAA
b)
ACCGTT
c)
ACCGUU
d)
TGGCAA
133.
What does a codon correspond to?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Ribosome
c)
Polypeptide
d)
tRNA
134.
Where are polypeptides synthesised?
a)
On ribosomes in the cytoplasm
b)
On Golgi Apparatus in the cytoplasm
c)
On ribosomes in the nucleus
d)
On Golgi Apparatus in the nucleus
135.
What type of molecule carries anticodons and amino acids?
a)
tRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
Taq Polymerase
d)
Ribosome
136.
What is tRNA?
a)
Total RNA
b)
Transcriptional RNA
c)
Translational RNA
d)
Transfer RNA
137.
What does translation depend on?
a)
Complementary base pairing between mRNA anticodon and tRNA codon
b)
Complementary base pairing between mRNA codon and tRNA anticodon
c)
Complementary base pairing between mRNA anticodon and tRNA anticodon
d)
Complementary base pairing between mRNA codon and tRNA codon
138.
What term is the controlled release of energy from organic compounds to produce ATP?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Chemosynthesis
c)
Respiration
d)
Metabolism
139.
Which of the following are products of aerobic respiration?
a)
Carbon Dioxide, Water, & ATP
b)
Oxygen, Water, & ATP
c)
Carbon Dioxide & Water only
d)
Glucose, Oxygen, & ATP
140.
Which of the following are reactants in aerobic respiration?
a)
Water & Carbon Dioxide
b)
Oxygen & Carbon Dioxide
c)
Water & Glucose
d)
Oxygen & Glucose
141.
What is a source of energy in cells?
a)
RNA
b)
AMP
c)
ADP
d)
ATP
142.
What does ATP stand for?
a)
Adenine triphosphate
b)
Adenine Thymine Protein
c)
Adenosine Transport Protein
d)
Adenosine triphosphate
143.
Which of the following cell processes does not require energy?
a)
Active Transport
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Muscle contraction
d)
Protein synthesis
144.
Energy is released from ATP when it is hydrolysed to what?
a)
ADP + 1 phosphate + 1 ribose
b)
AMP + 1 phosphate
c)
ADP + 1 phosphate
d)
ADP + 2 phosphates
145.
What type of reaction converts ATP to ADP?
a)
Neutralisation
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Anabolic
d)
Condensation
146.
Which type of respiration requires oxygen?
a)
Both aerobic and anaerobic
b)
Anaerobic
c)
Neither aerobic or anaerobic
d)
Aerobic
147.
Which type of respiration does not require oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Both aerobic and anaerobic
c)
Neither aerobic or anaerobic
d)
Anaerobic
148.
Which type of respiration gives the smaller yield of ATP?
a)
Anaerobic
b)
Both aerobic and anaerobic yield the same amount
c)
Trick question as neither yield ATP
d)
Aerobic
149.
Which condition may promote aerobic respiration?
a)
Lake with aquatic plants
b)
Waterlogged soils
c)
Oxygen supplies are running low
d)
Short, rapid, strenuous exercise
150.
Where in the cell does aerobic respiration occur?
a)
Mitochondria & cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria only
c)
Chloroplast & mitochondria
d)
Cytoplasm only
151.
Where in the cell does anaerobic respiration occur?
a)
Mitochondria & cytoplasm
b)
Cytoplasm only
c)
Chloroplast & mitochondria
d)
Mitochondria only
152.
What is the product of anaerobic respiration in animals?
a)
Carbon Dioxide & Water
b)
Lactate
c)
Ethanol & Carbon Dioxide
d)
Ethanol
153.
What is the product of anaerobic respiration in yeast and plants?
a)
Lactate
b)
Ethanol & Carbon Dioxide
c)
Carbon Dioxide & Water
d)
Ethanol
154.
Which of the following is not a use for yeast in industry?
a)
Production of insulin
b)
Production of alcoholic drinks
c)
Production of biofuel
d)
Bread-making
155.
Which of the following would result in least lactate production?
a)
Weightlifting
b)
10km run
c)
Burpees
d)
100m sprint
156.
What piece of equipment can be used to measure the rate of respiration?
a)
Tachometer
b)
Manometer
c)
Respirometer
d)
Graduated syringe
157.
What must be absorbed for the respiration rate to be calculated using a respirometer?
a)
Glucose
b)
Carbon dioxide
c)
ATP
d)
Oxygen
158.
What can be used to absorb carbon dioxide in a respirometer?
a)
Iodine
b)
Ethanol
c)
Hydrochloric acid
d)
Potassium hydroxide
159.
Why are invertebrates rarely used in respirometer investigations?
a)
They are too large
b)
They respire too slowly
c)
They climb out
d)
It could cause suffering
160.
What process is the production of carbon compounds in cells using light energy?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Glycolysis
c)
Respiration
d)
Chemiosmosis
161.
What are the reactants in photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose & Water
b)
Glucose & Oxygen
c)
Carbon dioxide & Water
d)
Water & Oxygen
162.
What energy transfer is involved in photosynthesis?
a)
Chemical to light
b)
Electrical to light
c)
Light to chemical
d)
Light to electrical
163.
Which colour of the visible spectrum has the shortest wavelength?
a)
Blue
b)
Violet
c)
Green
d)
Red
164.
Which colour of the visible spectrum has the longest wavelength?
a)
Blue
b)
Green
c)
Violet
d)
Red
165.
What is the range of wavelengths in visible light?
a)
100-400nm
b)
300-600nm
c)
500-800nm
d)
400-700nm
166.
Which of the following is a photosynthetic pigment?
a)
Cytosol
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast
167.
What colour light does chlorophyll absorb most of?
a)
Red and green
b)
Blue and green
c)
Green only
d)
Red and blue
168.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
Carbon Dioxide & Water
b)
Carbon Dioxide & Glucose
c)
Oxygen & Water
d)
Oxygen & Glucose
169.
How is oxygen produced in photosynthesis?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Condensation
c)
Photolysis
d)
Hydrolysis
170.
How can photosynthetic pigments be separated?
a)
X-ray diffraction
b)
Fermentation
c)
Electrolysis
d)
Chromatography
171.
How is an Rf value calculated?
a)
Distance run by solvent x distance run by pigment ➗ 100
b)
Distance run by solvent ➗ distance run by pigment
c)
Distance run by solvent x distance run by pigment
d)
Distance run by pigment ➗ distance run by solvent
172.
What name is given to a graph to show the rate of photosynthesis at each wavelength of light?
a)
Action spectra
b)
Photosynthetic spectra
c)
Absorption spectra
d)
Emittance spectra
173.
What is on the y axis of an action spectra?
a)
Wavelength of light
b)
% absorption
c)
Rate of photosynthesis
d)
Pigment concentration
174.
What name is given to a graph showing the percentage of light absorbed at each wavelength of light?
a)
Emittance spectra
b)
Absorption spectra
c)
Light spectra
d)
Action spectra
175.
Which of the following did not occur as a consequence of photosynthesis?
a)
Evolution of many multicellular organisms
b)
Increased oxygen concentrations
c)
Increased temperatures
d)
Iron ore bands in rocks
176.
What is the name for a factor that can prevent the optimal level of photosynthesis?
a)
Isolating factor
b)
Plateauing factor
c)
Limiting factor
d)
Inhibiting factor
177.
Which of the following is not a limiting factor on photosynthesis?
a)
Light intensity
b)
Oxygen concentration
c)
Carbon dioxide concentration
d)
Temperature
178.
In an experiment to investigate the effect of light intensity on photosynthesis which of the following is not a control variable?
a)
Volume of water
b)
Species of plant
c)
Carbon dioxide concentration
d)
Oxygen concentration
179.
Some photosynthesis experiments require water that is free of carbon dioxide. What is the best way to produce this?
a)
Adding alkali to the water
b)
Immbolising carbon dioxide on alginate beads
c)
Boiling & cooling water
d)
Adding hydrogencarbonate solution
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