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Worksheets

Semester 2 Review 2022

Total questions: 204

Worksheet time: 3hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
2.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
3.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
4.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
5.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
6.
What does an open circle represent?
a)
Not Affected Male
b)
Not Affected Female
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
7.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
8.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
9.
How many people in this whole pedigree have the trait/disease?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
10.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
11.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
12.

In this pedigree, which gender can be carriers of colorblindness and not have it?

a)

Just males

b)

Just females

c)

Both genders

13.
Give the genotype for person II-1, for this autosomal trait.
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
we cannot be 100% sure of the genotype
14.
If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indication that the trait is....
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
c)
incompletely dominant
d)
co-dominant
15.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
16.

Objective #13

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait. What is the genotype of the father (square) in generation 1?

a)

Aa

b)

AA

c)

aa

d)

A?

17.

In this pedigree, the shading represents people in the family with dark hair while the unshaded represents blondes. Is dark hair controlled by a dominant or recessive allele?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

18.

Individuals that are shaded in have premature hair whitening. Is this trait dominant or recessive? How do you know?

a)

Dominant because it skips generations

b)

Dominant because it is present in every generation

c)

Recessive because it skips generations

d)

Recessive because it is present in every generation.

19.
How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?
a)
Cousins
b)
Dad and Daughter
c)
Uncle and Niece
d)
Grandpa and Granddaughter
20.

Huntington's Disease is a dominant trait.

What is the correct genotype for individual I-2?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

d)

H?

21.
Homozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
22.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
23.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
24.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
25.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
26.
In the punnett square shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Tt
27.
In the punnett square shown, what is the genotypes of the two parents?
a)
RW and RR
b)
RW and WW
c)
RR and WW
d)
RW and RR
28.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
black hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
29.
Dominant or recessive?
tt
a)
Dominant 
b)
Recessive
30.
What is a dominant allele?
a)
A trait that is always shown (capital letter)
b)
A trait that can be hidden (lower case letter)
c)
Alleles that are the same
d)
Alleles that are different
31.
This image shows a...
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Dominant allele
32.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
33.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
34.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
35.
Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?
a)
Bb
b)
BB
c)
bb
d)
B
36.
You have benefited from selective breeding by having more agricultural produce than would have been possible otherwise.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
An application of using DNA technology to help environmental scientists would be ___.
a)
use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime scene
b)
create a tobacco plant that glows in the dark
c)
clone the gene for human growth hormone to treat pituitary dwarfism
d)
make transgenic bacteria that can be used to clean up oil spills more quickly than do the natural bacteria
38.
Which of the following would be an example of gene therapy technology?
a)
development of a nasal spray that contains copies of the normal gene that is defective in person with cystic fibrosis
b)
cutting DNA into fragments with restriction enzymes
c)
modifying E. coli to produce indigo dye for coloring denim blue jeans
d)
separation DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis
39.
Recombinant DNA are currently used to produce____.
a)
clothing dye, cheese, and laundry products
b)
human antibiotics and vaccines
c)
crops that taste better and stay fresh longer
d)
all of these
40.
The Human Genome Project has made diagnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a genetic disorder is diagnosed, ____ can be used as a possible treatment.
a)
cell cultures
b)
gene therapy
c)
DNA fingerprinting
d)
PCR
41.
A gene gun and a virus may both be classified as ____ because they are mechanisms by which foreign DNA may be transferred into a host cell.
a)
bacteria
b)
plasmids
c)
vectors
d)
splicers
42.
____ are produced when DNA from another species is inserted into the genome of an organism, which then begins to produce the protein encoded on the recombinant DNA.
a)
vectors
b)
plasmids
c)
transgenic organisms
d)
gene guns
43.
A ____ is a small ring of DNA found in a bacterial cell.
a)
virus
b)
plasmid
c)
gene bullet
d)
PCR
44.
The entire collection of genes within human cells is referred to as the ______.
a)
human genome
b)
karyotype
c)
pedigree
d)
gene map
45.
____ is an application of the human genome project that involves the insertion of normal genes into cells with defective genes in order to correct genetic disorders.
a)
gene gun
b)
gene mapping
c)
gene linkage
d)
gene therapy
46.
Genetic engineering has produced goats whose milk contains proteins that can be used as medicines. This effect was produced by
a)
mixing genes into the milk
b)
injecting genes into the goats udders
c)
inserting foreign genes into fertilized goat eggs
d)
genetically modifying the nutritional needs of the goats offspring 
47.
Researchers have been working on cloning animals such as sheep. Which result is most likely to be a negative result such as cloning?
a)
development of extra organs
b)
premature death
c)
a low rate of genetic diseases
d)
delayed aging
48.
Cows are selectively bred to produce milk. Which of the following will cause the next generation to receive the trait to produce large quantities of milk?
a)
nutrients in their food
b)
mineral in their water
c)
electrical impulses to their brains
d)
information in their chromosomes
49.
A scientist cloned a goat. Which of these is a true statement about the cloned goat?
a)
It has new genes and traits
b)
It lacks the genes for reproduction
c)
It has the genes that are identical to the original goat
d)
It looks the same but has different genes.
50.
Compare the concentrations of the sugar in the cell and the solution.  Which is HYPOTONIC?
a)
Cell
b)
Solution
51.
What do the following terms have in common?
-diffusion
-osmosis
-facilitated diffusion
a)
They require energy to move materials
b)
They move from a low concentration to a high concentration
c)
They move move materials DOWN the concentration gradient
d)
They require ATP
52.
What do the following terms have in common?
-diffusion
-osmosis
-facilitated diffusion
a)
They require energy to move materials
b)
They move from a low concentration to a high concentration
c)
They move move materials DOWN the concentration gradient
d)
They require ATP
53.
Which direction will the dots (solute) move without the use of energy?
a)
into the cell
b)
out of the cell
54.
Facilitated diffusion is the movement of materials into and out of the cell
a)
with the use of energy
b)
with the use of proteins but no energy
c)
by moving water
d)
by using ATP
55.
The  movement of water from a high concentration to a low concentration is called
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
56.
The diagram represents a specialized cell located in the root of a plant. The arrows in the diagram indicate the movement of molecules of oxygen and water into the cell.
Which choice correctly identifies the process responsible for the movement of each type of molecule represented in the diagram?
a)
Water = diffusion
Oxygen = active transport
b)
Water = diffusion
Oxygen = diffusion
c)
Water = active transport
Oxygen = active transport
d)
Water = active transport
Oxygen = diffusion
57.
Which form of transport is being shown in the diagram.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
58.
The water level increases on the right because
a)
there are less particles on the right
b)
there are more particles on the right
c)
the right side is hypotonic
d)
the right side is isotonic
59.

Which CELL contains MORE particles than are found in the surrounding solution?

a)

Left

b)

Center

c)

Right

60.
When plant cells lose water to their environment the membrane collapses.  This is called
a)
reverse osmosis
b)
active transport
c)
plasmolysis
d)
selectively permeability
61.
In this situation, where the solute is illustrated by red dots, predict if will WATER move into or out of the cell, and how that will affect the cell.
a)
Water will move into the cell and the cell will expand.
b)
Water will move into the cell and the cell will shrink.
c)
Water will move out of the cell and the cell will expand.
d)
Water will move out of the cell and the cell will shrink.
62.

Examine the diagram and determine, based on the concentrations of salt, if salt will move into or out of the cell.

a)

INTO

b)

OUT OF

63.
Which illustration of transport across the membrane requires energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
64.
Semi-permeable mean to allow
a)
all materials across the membrane
b)
only some materials across the membrane
c)
no material to cross the membrane
d)
to allow only water across the membrane
65.
What factor DOES NOT influence whether or not a substance can pass through a membrane?
a)
size
b)
charge
c)
number of atoms
d)
shape
66.
Movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is
a)
diffusion 
b)
passive transport
c)
osmosis
d)
all of the above
67.

If a red blood cell is put in distilled water, what will most likely happen to the cell?

a)

Nothing will happen

b)

It will shrivel.

c)

It will burst and then shrivel up

d)

It will swell and burst

68.

What does semi-permeable mean?

a)

Some molecules can move through the membrane

b)

Nothing can move through the membrane

c)

All molecules can pass through the membrane.

69.
What is equilibrium?
a)
When concentrations cannot be balanced between two substances 
b)
When concentrations are balanced between two substances 
c)
Making the energy in the top half of your body equal the the energy in the bottom half
d)
Concentrations do not exist 
70.
Which diagram best shows the end result of diffusion?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
71.

In a "high concentration," molecules

a)

are spread out

b)

are tightly packed together

c)

are uncrowded

d)

are unevenly dispersed

72.
Which type of transport requires an input of energy?
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Osmosis
c)
Simple Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
73.

Movement of molecules through the cell membrane from high to low concentration

a)

passive transport

b)

active transport

74.
Active transport moves substances against a concentration gradient 
a)
true
b)
false 
75.

An example of a substance that requires active transport to enter or leave a cell is

a)

protein

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

76.
Which form of active transport is being shown?
a)
Pinocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
77.

When cells take in food molecules through active transport, what is it called?

a)

diffusion

b)

phagocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

osmosis

78.
Which is NOT a form of active transport?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Osmosis
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Pinocytosis
79.
What is the difference between active and passive transport?
a)
Active does not need energy and passive uses ATP (energy)
b)
Active uses ATP (energy) and passive does not need energy
c)
Active stores transport proteins and passive releases 
d)
Active uses hormones and passive does not 
80.
When cells form a vesicle to release materials, which form of transport is occurring? 
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Facilitated Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
81.
Human immune cells can engulf bacteria to destroy them. This is an example of 
a)
pinocytosis
b)
phagocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
acidosis
82.
Materials that can move across a membrane with passive transport include
a)
water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
b)
starch and other polysaccharides
c)
DNA and RNA
d)
large proteins
83.
When the concentration of solute molecules outside the cell is equal to the concentration inside the cell, the solution is
a)
hypertonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
isotonic
d)
ionic
84.
What happens to a cell placed in a HYPOTONIC solution?
a)
It shrinks
b)
It swells
c)
Nothing Happens
85.
What happens to a cell placed in a HYPERTONIC solution
a)
It shrinks
b)
It swells
c)
Nothing happens
86.
What is another term for "selectively permeable"?
a)
porous
b)
completely permeable
c)
permanent
d)
semipermeable
87.
Most of the cell membrane is made of...
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
88.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
89.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell membrane?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
90.
Which of the following is responsible for getting large or charged (polar) molecules across the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
91.
Part of the plasma membrane responsible for cell recognition... 
a)
C
b)
E
c)
B
d)
D
92.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
93.
The _____ in the plasma membrane prevents the fatty acids tails from sticking together. 
a)
carbohydrate chains
b)
cholesterol
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
94.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
95.
Hydrophilic means...
a)
water-loving
b)
water-fearing
c)
nonpolar
d)
lipid soluble
96.
Hydrophilic means...
a)
water-loving
b)
water-fearing
c)
nonpolar
d)
lipid soluble
97.
What is the correct equation for photosynthesis?
a)
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O
b)
6CO2 + 6O2 --> C6H12O6  + 6H2O
c)
 6CO2 + 6O2 --> 6H2O + C6H12O6
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O  -->  6O2 + C6H12O6
98.
What leaf structure prevents water loss?
a)
spongy mesophyll
b)
cuticle
c)
stoma
d)
phloem
99.
What tissue contains cells where the majority of photosynthesis takes place?
a)
spongy mesophyll
b)
palisade mesophyll
c)
upper epidermis
d)
guard cells
100.
What can change shape to open and close the stoma?
a)
guard cells
b)
xylem
c)
phloem
d)
vascular bundle
101.
After sugars are formed in photosynthesis, what structure do they travel through to reach the fruits of the plant?
a)
xylem
b)
cuticle
c)
phloem
d)
roots
102.
What type of solutions would cause a guard cell to open?
a)
hypotonic
b)
hypertonic
103.
Which of the following environmental conditions would cause the stomata to close?
a)
Low CO2 level
b)
Rain
c)
K+ moving into the guard cells
d)
darkness
104.
What color of light reflects off of chlorophyll?
a)
orange
b)
red
c)
blue
d)
green
105.
Where do the light reactions take place inside a chloroplast?
a)
stroma
b)
lamellae
c)
chloroplast membrane
d)
thylakoid membrane
106.

Lactic acid is produced by

a)

yeast during cellular respiration

b)

yeast during anaerobic respiration

c)

human muscles cells during aerobic respiration exercise

d)

muscle cells when they receive sufficient oxygen to power physical activity

e)

none of thee

107.

The term aerobic means

a)

wine-making

b)

with carbon dioxide

c)

without carbon dioxide

d)

with oxygen

e)

without oxygen

108.

Respiration ____ and cellular respiration ____.

a)

produces ATP, is gas exchange

b)

is gas exchange, produces ATP

c)

produces glucose, produces glucose

d)

uses glucose, produces glucose

109.

Humans use calories they obtain from ____ as their energy source.

a)

food

b)

water

c)

sunlight

d)

minerals

110.

During redox reactions

a)

the loss of electrons from one substance is called oxidation

b)

a substance that gains electrons is said to be reduced

c)

electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance

d)

protons lost from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule

111.

Oxidation is the ____ and reduction is the _____.

a)

gain of electrons...loss of electrons

b)

loss of electrons.... gain of electrons

c)

loss of oxygen...gain of oxygen

d)

gain of oxygen...loss of oxygen

112.

The end products of the KREBS cycle include all of the following except

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

ATP

d)

NADH

113.

In the electron transport chain, electrons are passed from one electron transport molecule to another and are finally accepted by

a)

an oxygen molecule

b)

a molecule of carbon dioxide

c)

a molecule of water

d)

ADP

114.

Which of the following processes is most efficient (produces most ATP per molecule if glucose oxidized)

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

alcoholic fermentation

d)

lactic acid fermentation

115.

Bacteria that are unable to survive in the presence of oxygen are called

a)

strict anaerobes

b)

aerobes

c)

facultative anaerobes

d)

chemosynthetic bacteria

116.

In yeast cells,

a)

lactic acid is produced during anaerobic respiration

b)

lactic acid is produced by glycolysis

c)

alcohol is produced during KREBS cycle

d)

alcohol is produced after glycolysis

117.

Muscle soreness associated with strenuous exercise is at least partly due to

a)

an excess of ATP that builds up during exercise

b)

the presence of lactic acid from fermentation by muscle cells

c)

the large amount of carbon dioxide that builds up in muscle

d)

the accumulation of alcohol from anaerobic respiration

118.
Which is NOT a process of the water cycle?
a)
precipitation
b)
freezing
c)
transpiration
d)
evaporation
119.
The process of plants losing water through their leaves is called ____.
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
transpiration
d)
exhaling
120.
What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
helium
d)
nitrogen
121.
Nitrogen that is not combined with other elements and found in the atmosphere as gas is _____.
a)
free nitrogen
b)
nitrogen compounds
c)
ammonia
d)
nitrates
122.
The type of nitrogen that can be used by producers is called _____.
a)
free nitrogen
b)
nitrous oxide
c)
nitrogen gas
d)
nitrogen compounds
123.
Why do living things need nitrogen?
a)
To get energy
b)
To make amino acids
c)
To make proteins
d)
To make proteins AND amino acids
124.
What are the swellings found on the roots of legumes called?
a)
noodles
b)
nodularisms
c)
nodules
d)
tubers
125.
Where are denitrifying bacteria found?
a)
In the soil
b)
Root nodules
c)
In dead things
d)
In the atmosphere
126.
Where are nitrogen-fixing bacteria found?
a)
In the soil
b)
Root nodules
c)
In dead things
d)
In the atmosphere
127.
What happens during the process of nitrogen-fixation?
a)
Nitrogen compounds turn into free nitrogen
b)
Free nitrogen turns into nitrogen compounds
128.
What happens during the process of denitrification?
a)
Nitrogen compounds turn into free nitrogen
b)
Free nitrogen turns into nitrogen compounds
129.
Which is NOT a way that nitrogen compounds are added to the soil?
a)
Decay of dead organisms
b)
Denitrification
c)
Animal waste
d)
Nitrogen-fixation
130.
What is the only process that removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
combustion
b)
cellular respiration
c)
photosynthesis
d)
decomposition
131.
Where is carbon stored in the environment?
a)
Fossil fuels
b)
Wood of trees
c)
Calcium carbonate (shells and bones)
d)
All of the above
132.
What 2 things does a plant make during photosynthesis?
a)
oxygen, glucose
b)
glucose, carbon dioxide
c)
useable energy, glucose
d)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
133.
What 3 things are made during cellular respiration?
a)
useable energy, water, glucose
b)
glucose, water, carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen, carbon dioxide, glucose
d)
carbon dioxide, water, useable energy
134.

Once inorganic phosphate has been released by weather of rocks, which of the following might be it's next step in the phosphorus cycle?

a)

it can become part of surface water and runoff into the ocean, and eventually become new rock at the bottom of the ocean through the process of sedimentation

b)

it can become part of the soil and be taken up by plant roots and used to make lipids, ATP, nucleic acids and other cellular molecules

c)

it can become part of groundwater and leech into the ocean, and eventually become new rock through the process of sedimentation

d)

all of the answers are possible pathways for phosphorus

135.

What is the original, and primary reservoir of inorganic phosphate (PO43-)in terrestrial ecosystems?

a)

live plants and animals

b)

groundwater

c)

the atmosphere

d)

rocks

136.

Plants are the only organisms that can directly absorb inorganic phosphorus ions (PO43-) and turn them into organic molecules that can support all other life processes in an ecosystem.

a)

true

b)

false

137.

Inorganic phosphate (PO43-) is added to the soil by which three processes?

a)

uplift; sedimentation; consumption

b)

live plants; animal decomposition; bacterial fixation

c)

precipitation; runoff; weathering of rock

d)

animal excretion; decomposition; weathering of rock

138.

Why is phosphorus important to biology?

a)

it works alongside the nitrogen cycle to fertilize plants

b)

it is the primary component of mountains, which serve as habitats for animals

c)

it enhances decomposition of organic matter

d)

it is a component of many biological molecules, such as nucleic acids, some lipids, ATP, and bony structures

139.

Nitrogen and carbon are cycled on a global scale. Why does phosphorus cycling tend to occur more locally?

a)

it primarily involves the weather of rocks, which are mostly stationary

b)

it only involves land animals that cannot swim across oceans to transport the nutrient

c)

it occurs in areas where cloud formation is low, so it rarely gets trapped in water vapors

d)

all of the answers are correct

140.

The phosphorus cycle occurs much more quickly than the carbon and nitrogen cycles.

a)

true

b)

false

141.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
142.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
143.
Trophic levels are represented by 
a)
squares
b)
circles
c)
pyramids
d)
lines
144.
Which animal is the apex predator?
a)
hawk
b)
lizard
c)
snake
d)
grass
145.
Which animal is not the apex predator but, a predator to a mouse?
a)
hawk
b)
rabbit
c)
snake
d)
grass
146.
Why is a shark a carnivore.
a)
because it eats seaweed
b)
because it eats dead animals
c)
because it eats sand 
d)
because it eats other animals
147.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
148.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
149.
An organism that gets energy from breaking down dead organisms, non-living material or waste is a(an) ___________.
a)
producer
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
autotroph
150.
Organisms that create their own energy from sunlight or chemicals
a)
Herbivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Autotroph
d)
Heterotroph 
151.
Eat primary consumers (can be carnivores and omnivores)
a)
Tertiary Consumers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Quaternary Consumers 
d)
Top Predators 
152.
An organism that obtains energy from eating meats
a)
Omnivores
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Animals 
153.
An organism that obtains energy by consuming plants and animals.
a)
Omnivores
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Humans 
154.
An organism that uses an outside source of energy like the sun to create energy-rich food molecules.
a)
Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Decomposer
d)
Parasite 
155.
Biomass refers to
a)
Chemical Energy
b)
Light Energy
c)
Rank in the feeding heirarchy
d)
Amount of living tissue at the tropic level
156.
The process of plants using energy from the sun to create the first trophic level is called?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Chemosynthesis
c)
Cellular Respiratation
d)
Primary Producers
157.

What is biomass energy?

a)

any organic matter that can be used by burning wood and other plant life.

b)

Radiant energy emitted by the sun.

c)

a combustible black or dark brown rock consisting mainly of carbonized plant matter, found mainly in underground deposits and widely used as fuel.

d)

made by tapping into steam or hot water reservoirs underground; the heat is used to drive an electrical generator.

158.

Fuelwood, charcoal, and manure provide up to ___% of energy in developing nations.

a)

90

b)

50

c)

33

d)

10

159.

Is biomass energy a renewable energy source?

a)

Yes, always, because you can grow trees again.

b)

No, it's just like fossil fuels.

c)

It depends, only if the source is not overharvested.

d)

No, because manure is not renewable.

160.

What is co-generation?

a)

Substituting biomass for coal in a coal-fired power plant.

b)

Vaporizing biomass at extremely high temperatures.

c)

Using the extra heat from a power plant to heat a nearby business or homes.

d)

Fermenting grain to form alcohol.

161.

What is co-firing?

a)

Substituting biomass for some coal in a coal-fired power plant.

b)

Vaporizing biomass at extremely high temperatures to form a gas fuel.

c)

Using leftover heat from a power plant to heat nearby homes or businesses.

d)

Fermenting biomass to form alcohol fuel.

162.

What is a primary drawback to using biomass as an energy source?

a)

It produces more sulfur dioxide emissions than coal.

b)

Access to biomass is variable depending on location.

c)

No waste materials can be used.

d)

Removing the crops or trees for burning deprives the soil of nutrients used to grow them, resulting in lowered soil fertility.

163.

What is E-85?

a)

A common type of fuel at most gas stations.

b)

Fancy biomass fuel that costs $85 per gallon.

c)

A mixture of 85% gasoline and 15% ethanol.

d)

A mixture of 85% ethanol and 15% gasoline.

164.

What is the primary drawback to using ethanol for fuel?

a)

It requires no pesticides.

b)

It competes for food crops, driving up prices.

c)

It requires little fossil fuel inputs.

d)

It has a higher EROI than hydropower.

165.

What is B-20?

a)

A mix of ethanol and biodiesel.

b)

A mix of conventional gasoline and biodiesel.

c)

Fuel that must always be processed in a biodiesel plant.

d)

The best biofuel in the Top 20 Biofuel list.

166.

Which of these is an advantage to using algae for fuel?

a)

It uses only fresh water.

b)

It can only be grown in the ocean or a lakee.

c)

It can be grown in wastewater and can use CO2 from smokestacks.

d)

It causes eutrophication.

167.

Which source of energy has the highest EROI?

a)

hydropower

b)

nuclear

c)

coal

d)

ethanol

168.

This is a drawing of:

a)

the Three Gorges Dam in China

b)

a run-of-river hydropower dam

c)

a large hydropower dam

d)

a dam that likely blocks fish passage

169.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
170.

What is the largest ecological system?

a)

Humans

b)

Organisms

c)

Biosphere

d)

Plants

171.

How do living things interact?

a)

Organization

b)

Depends on the other living organisms

c)

Biosphere

d)

Ecological system

172.

What is a community?

a)

A group of different species that live in a common location

b)

Where all the same species live together

c)

Where animals go to socialize with other animals

d)

A popular tv Show

173.

What is Ecology?

a)

The study of the relations between organisms to one another and to their physical environment

b)

The study of the relations between plants and animals

c)

The study of the relations between humans and the earth

d)

The study of the relations between plants and humans

174.

Biologists use models to represent or describe components of an ecological system.

a)

True

b)

False

175.

What is another word we could use to describe an ecosystem?

a)

The Food Chain

b)

Traits

c)

Population

d)

Habitat

176.

What is Biodiversity?

a)

The study of life

b)

A living organism

c)

The variety of life on Earth

d)

A non living organism

177.

Genetic diversity within individual species allows them to _________.

a)

Die

b)

Become isolated

c)

Lower their population

d)

Cope with changes

178.

What is the most bio-diverse ecosystem on earth?

a)

A rural area

b)

A rain forest

c)

A urban area

d)

A beach

179.

What are the three features biodiversity is built on?

a)

Genetic, community, habitat

b)

Genetic, ecosystem, species

c)

Genetic, population, species

d)

Genetic, ecosystem, population

180.

Which is NOT an example of an ecosystem service?

a)

provisioning

b)

regulating

c)

associating

d)

supporting

181.
Ecosystem services
a)
are the processes by which life-supporting resources are produced.
b)
indicate the current state of the environment.
c)
are valued for their beauty.
d)
refer to abiotic features of the environment.
182.

The aesthetic value of an ecosystem provides

a)

a supporting service.

b)

a regulating service.

c)

an intrinsic value.

d)

a cultural service.

183.

When a spruce tree is harvested so the wood can be used to build a house, the tree is providing

a)

a cultural service.

b)

a provision.

c)

an intrinsic value.

d)

a monetary unit.

184.

Human waste is often dumped in the ocean. Microbial organisms in marine ecosystems can break down organic waste into less harmful components. This is an example of

a)

a cultural service.

b)

an ecosystem provision.

c)

a regulating service.

d)

an intrinsic value.

185.

Products obtained from nature that humans can use such as lumber, medicines and food crops are

a)

ecological benefits.

b)

provisions.

c)

supplies.

d)

services.

186.

Fruits, fish, and livestock are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Economic

b)

Provisioning

c)

Regulating

d)

Cultural

187.

Music, art, and architecture born from interactions with nature are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Cultural

d)

Supporting

188.

Natural processes such as nutrient cycling and the creation of soils are all examples of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Cultural

d)

Supporting

189.

Which of the following would be an example of a regulating service?

a)

Nutrient cycling

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Drinking water from a creek

d)

Bees pollinating flowers

190.

Bacteria decomposing waste is an example of what type of ecosystem service?

a)

economic

b)

regulating

c)

provisioning

d)

supporting

191.
Which of the following situations is MOST HARMFUL to an ecosystem's food web or food chain?
a)
introduction of a similar producer
b)
loss of one of the top consumers
c)
increase in the population of producers
d)
disease killing the producers
192.
The graph above shows the variation in the deer population in the Kaibab Plateau from 1905 to 1939. Between 1907 and 1923, the natural predators of deer were eliminated from the area by hunters. What was the most likely reason for the decline in the deer population after 1924?
a)
The deer stopped competing for resources because they had no predators.
b)
The increased number of deer led to increased competition for resources.
c)
A large number of deer left the region in search of new predators.
d)
The removal of predators caused fewer resources to be available to the deer.
193.
In a particular habitat, owls eat mice and mice eat grass. If the owl population suddenly grows, then most likely
a)
the number of mice will decrease and the amount of grass will not change.
b)
the number of mice will increase and the amount of grass will increase.
c)
the number of mice will increase and the amount of grass will not change.
d)
the number of mice will decrease and the amount of grass will increase.
194.
All living and nonliving things that surround an animal are part of its
a)
food chain
b)
life cycle
c)
atmosphere
d)
habitat
195.
Deer usually travel in groups of 2-3 sometimes more. How does staying in a group increase one deer’s chance to pass on his genes to the next generation?
a)
It increases the deer’s chances of survival.
b)
It protects the deer from the cold.
c)
It allows the deer to eat.
d)
It gives the deer time to think.
196.
Which habitat exhibits the greatest biodiversity?
a)
A habitat with 15 different species with about 300 individuals each
b)
A habitat with 10 different species with about 75 individuals each
c)
A habitat with 4 different species with about 150 individuals each
d)
A habitat with only one species with about 2000 individual
197.
What is the MOST likely consequence if a fungal disease killed the grass in this WOODLAND ECOSYSTEM?
a)
Only the rabbits would be affected, because they are the ones who eat the grass.
b)
The blueberry bush would begin to grow wild, because it would have more space to grow.
c)
Nothing would happen; the animals would eat something else.
d)
The ecosystem would most likely be disrupted, because the grass is one of its primary producers
198.
Currently sharks are on a rapid decline due to overfishing. If sharks go extinct will this affect the biodiversity of the ocean?
a)
No, sharks are not important.
b)
No, sharks will only affect the seal populations.
c)
Yes, it will disrupt the entire food chain in the ocean.
d)
Yes, but only a little.
199.
Some students are studying a vacant city lot as a small ecosystem. Which of the following yields the most information for evaluating the biodiversity of this ecosystem?
a)
identifying all of the species found living in the ecosystem
b)
testing the speed of decomposition of organic matter in the ecosystem
c)
creating a food-web diagram among key species in the ecosystem
d)
observing the feeding habits of the insect predators in the ecosystem
200.
How can humans best help an endangered species avoid extinction?
a)
they can feed the animals
b)
they can put the animals in a zoo
c)
they can protect the animal’s habitat
d)
they can take the animal to new habitats
201.
Why is biodiversity so important?
a)
Because all species depend on each other to survive, so if one becomes extinct another species that relies on it could go extinct as well
b)
Because it’s better to have only one variation of each species.
c)
Because it better to only have a few species on Earth.
d)
Honestly, I have no idea what biodiversity is!
202.
What factor does NOT affect biodiversity?
a)
Urbanization
b)
Planting Native Plants
c)
Overfishing
d)
Pollution
203.
What is the name of the rate at which organisms leave a population?
a)
the rate of mutation
b)
the immigration rate
c)
the emigration rate
d)
the death rate
204.
A Wildlife Biologist is photographing only the deer in the meadow. Another way of saying this would be that the Wildlife Biologist is photographing the deer____________________ in the meadow.
a)
Organism
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Population

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