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AP Bio Semester 2 Final (Units 1-5)

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which feature of model 1 best illustrates how biological information is coded in a DNA molecule?

a)

A) The 5' and 3' labels at the end of each strand

b)

B) The labeling of the hydrogen bonds between base pairs

c)

C) The lines connecting sugars and phosphate groups that represent covalent bonds

d)

D) The linear sequence of the base pairs

2.

Figure 1-1 represents a segment of DNA. Radiation can damage the nucleotides in a DNA molecule. To repair some types of damage, a single nucleotide can be removed from a DNA molecule and replaced with an undamaged nucleotide. Which of the four labeled bonds in Figure 1-1 could be broken to remove and replace the cytosine nucleotide without affecting the biological information coded in the DNA molecule?

a)

A) Bond X only

b)

B) Bond W only

c)

C) Bonds Y and Z at the same time

d)

D) Bonds W and Z at the same time

3.

A student wants to modify model 1 so that it represents an RNA double helix instead of a DNA double helix. Of the following possible changes, which would be most effective in making model 1 look more like RNA than DNA?

a)

A) Changing the sequence of the base pairs

b)

B) Changing the deoxyriboses to riboses by adding -OH groups

c)

C) Changing the shpaes of the nitrogenous bases to match those shown in model 2-1.

d)

D) Changing the sugar-phosphate backbone to a ribbon, as shown in model 3-1

4.

Based on Figure 1, which of the following best compares the atomic structures of starch and cellulose?

a)

A) Starch is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, while cellulose also contains nitrogen.

b)

B) Starch and cellulose are composed of repeating glucose monomers; however, in cellulose every other glucose monomer is rotated 180 degrees.

c)

C) Starch is composed of monomers that each have a CH2OH group, while cellulose only has a CH2OH group on every other monomer.

d)

D) Starch and cellulose are composed of identical monomers and therefore have identical structures.

5.

Based on the information provided (Figure 1-2 and Table 1-1), which of the following statements best describes why starch and cellulose provide different functions in plants?

a)

A) The differences in the assembly and organization of the monomers of these two polymers result in different chemical properties.

b)

B) Since starch and cellulose are composed of identical monomers, the cellular environment where they are located controls their function.

c)

C) The monomers of cellulose are connected by covalent bonds, making it ideal for structural support.

d)

D) The monomers of starch are connected by ionic bonds, making ideal for energy storage for plants.

6.

Which of the following (based on Figure 1-2 and Table 1-1) best describes the process that adds a monosaccharide to an existing polysaccharide?

a)

A) The monosaccharide is completely broken down by a specific enzyme and then atoms are reorganized and made into a polysaccharide.

b)

B) Ionic Bonds are formed between adjacent carbon atoms of the monosaccharide and the polysaccharide by adding water (H2O) and a specific enzyme.

c)

C) A specific enzyme removes the hydrogen (H) from the monosaccharide and the hydroxide (OH) from the polysaccharide, creating a bond between the two and creating a water (H2O) molecule.

d)

D) A specific enzyme removes two hydroxides (OH), one from the monosaccharide, and one from the polysaccharide, creating a bond between the two monosaccharides and creating a hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) molecule.

7.

Which of the following (based on Figure 1-2 and Table 1-1) would be most likely to occur if cattle lost the ability to maintain a colony of microorganisms in their digestive tract?

a)

A) Cattle would no longer be able to synthesize cellulose.

b)

B) Cattle would have to convert cellulose to starch by digesting it.

c)

C) Cattle would have to start producing enzyme B without the help of the bacteria.

d)

D) Cattle would no longer be able to use cellulose as a primary source of glucose.

8.

Based on diagram 1-1, which of the following best describes how the structure of ice benefits the organisms that live in the water below?

a)

A) The water molecules in ice are closer together than those in liquid water, so the ice prevents the passage of air to the water, maintaining a constant gas mixture in the water.

b)

B) The water molecules in ice are closer together than those in liquid water, so the ice forms a barrier that protects the organisms in the water from the freezing air temperatures.

c)

C) The water molecules in ice are farther apart than those in liquid water, so the ice floats, maintaining the warmer, denser water at the lake bottom.

d)

D) The water molecules in ice are farther apart than those in liquid water, so the ice floats, preventing the escape of gases from the liquid water.

9.

Water molecules are polar covalent molecules. There is a partial negative charge near the oxygen atom and partial positive charges near the hydrogen atoms due to the uneven distribution of electrons between the atoms, which results in the formation of hydrogen bonds between water molecules. The polarity of water molecules contributes to many properties of water that are important for biological processes.

Which of the following models best demonstrates the arrangement of hydrogen bonds between adjacent water molecules?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

Which statement describes how water is pulled up through the xylem to the leaves of the plant?

a)

As water exits the leaf, hydrogen bonding between water molecules pulls more water up from below.

b)

As water exits the leaf, signals are sent to the roots to pump more water up to the leaves through the xylem by adhesion.

c)

Evaporation from the leaf decreases the hydrogen bonds that form between the water molecules in the xylem, which helps the water molecules to be pulled up the xylem.

d)

Evaporation of water from the leaf increases the hydrogen bonds that form between water molecules in the air, providing the energy for transport.

11.

Based on the figure, which statement best describes the observed relationship between atmospheric CO2 enrichment and plant growth under ideal and stressed conditions?

a)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 had no observable effect on plant growth under either ideal or stressed conditions.

b)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 resulted in a greater increase in plant growth under ideal conditions than under stressed conditions.

c)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 resulted in a greater increase in plant growth under stressed conditions than under ideal conditions.

d)

The increase in atmospheric CO2 resulted in an inhibition of plant growth under both ideal and stressed conditions.

12.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for the difference in leaf growth?

a)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required proteins and lipids, limiting growth.

b)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required proteins and carbohydrates, limiting growth.

c)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required nucleic acids and lipids, limiting growth.

d)

The phosphorus-starved plant was unable to synthesize both the required carbohydrates and nucleic acids, limiting growth.

13.

As shown in Figure 1, an amino acid must have which of the following properties in order to be incorporated into a polypeptide?

a)

The ability to remain stable in the presence of water molecules

b)

An R-group that is compatible with the R-group of the last amino acid incorporated

c)

A central carbon atom that reacts with a nitrogen atom to form the peptide bond

d)

The ability to form a covalent bond with both its NH2 group and its COOHgroup

14.

Which of the following is common feature of the illustrated reactions showing the linking of monomers to form macromolecules?

a)

Two identical monomers are joined by a covalent bond.

b)

Two different monomers are joined by a covalent bond.

c)

Monomers are joined by a covalent bond, and a water molecule is produced.

d)

Monomers are joined by ionic bonds, and a water molecule is produced.

15.

Which of the following describes a key difference among the 20 amino acids that are used to make proteins?

a)

nly some amino acids have an R-group.

b)

Only some amino acids have a carboxyl group (COOH).

c)

Some amino acids are hydrophobic.

d)

Some amino acids contain the element phosphorus.

16.

How might this change affect the structure and function of the protein?

a)

The R-group of the new amino acid, valine, has different chemical properties than the R-group of cysteine. This will cause the protein to misfold and not function properly in the cell.

b)

The new amino acid, valine, has replaced cysteine in the new protein. Since the number of amino acids has remained the same, there will be no change in the three-dimensional folding, or function, of the protein.

c)

Since this is a linear section, it does not influence protein folding. Thus, there will be no change in protein structure or function.

d)

D

Since the new amino acid is bounded on one side by an amino acid with a negatively charged R-group and by an amino acid on the other side with a positively charged R-group, the charges will balance and the protein will fold as usual.

17.

Which of the following statements is correct about the molecule shown in Figure 1 ?

a)

It is RNA because of the relative direction of the two strands.

b)

It is RNA because of the number of different nucleotides found in the molecule.

c)

It is DNA because of the nature of the hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine.

d)

It is DNA because of the nucleotides present.

18.

Which of the following best describes a structural similarity between the two molecules shown in Figure 1 that is relevant to their function?

a)

Both molecules are composed of the same four nucleotides, which allows each molecule to be produced from the same pool of available nucleotides.

b)

Both molecules are composed of the same type of five-carbon sugar, which allows each molecule to act as a building block for the production of polysaccharides.

c)

Both molecules contain nucleotides that form base pairs with other nucleotides, which allows each molecule to act as a template in the synthesis of other nucleic acid molecules.

d)

Both molecules contain nitrogenous bases and phosphate groups, which allows each molecule to be used as a monomer in the synthesis of proteins and lipids.

19.

Figure 1-1 represents a segment of DNA. Radiation can damage the nucleotides in a DNA molecule. To repair some types of damage, a single nucleotide can be removed from a DNA molecule and replaced with an undamaged nucleotide. Which of the four labeled bonds in Figure 1-1 could be broken to remove and replace the cytosine nucleotide without affecting the biological information coded in the DNA molecule?

a)

A) Bond X only

b)

B) Bond W only

c)

C) Bonds Y and Z at the same time

d)

D) Bonds W and Z at the same time

20.

A student wants to modify model 1 so that it represents an RNA double helix instead of a DNA double helix. Of the following possible changes, which would be most effective in making model 1 look more like RNA than DNA?

a)

A) Changing the sequence of the base pairs Changing the sugar-phosphate backbone to a ribbon, as shown in model 3-1

b)

B) Changing the deoxyriboses to riboses by adding -OH groups

c)

C) Changing the shpaes of the nitrogenous bases to match those shown in model 2-1.

d)

D) Changing the sugar-phosphate backbone to a ribbon, as shown in model 3-1

21.

Which feature of model 1 best illustrates how biological information is coded in a DNA molecule?

a)

A) The 5' and 3' labels at the end of each strand

b)

B) The labeling of the hydrogen bonds between base pairs

c)

C) The lines connecting sugars and phosphate groups that represent covalent bonds

d)

D) The linear sequence of the base pairs

22.

Which of the graphs below best represents the predicted change in mass over time of the dialysis bag in the beaker to which albumin was added?

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.

The team wants to extend the research project. What should the team of students do next to obtain data that are more conclusive?

a)

Repeat the process with other salt concentrations.

b)

Develop a model to explain why the cells react differently to different salt concentrations.

c)

Repeat the process using red blood cells from other animals.

d)

Develop an experimental procedure that uses a stain that makes the organelles of red blood cells more visible.

24.

Which of the following models shows how cholesterol molecules most likely interact with the phospholipid bilayer of a cell’s plasma membrane?

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.
a)

1, testosterone is nonpolar and can diffuse through the membrane.

b)

2, testosterone covalently binds to a surface protein and transports into the cell.

c)

3, testosterone dissolves in water and flows through the channel.

d)

4, testosterone is filtered out of the extracellular fluid and taken into the cell by endocytosis.

26.

Lysosomes digest food particles brought into a cell by endocytosis. After a vesicle containing food particles fuses with a lysosome, H+ ions are transported into the lysosome from the cytosol. This significantly lowers the pH of the lysosome relative to the cytosol and activates the enzymes that digest the particles.

Which of the following best predicts what will happen to the lysosomal enzymes if the proteins that transport H+ ions from the cytosol into the lysosome are damaged?

a)

The lysosomal enzymes will not become active, since there will be no active transport of H+ ions.

b)

The lysosomal enzymes will not become active, since H+ ions will diffuse out of the lysosome.

c)

The lysosomal enzymes will become active, since facilitated diffusion will move H+ ions into the lysosome.

d)

The lysosomal enzymes will become active, since passive diffusion will move H+ ions into the lysosome.

27.

In an experiment, researchers compared the growth of two different plants, plant X and plant Y. The researchers maintained the plants under nearly identical conditions and observed that plant Xgrew faster than plant Y. The researchers also observed that the inner mitochondrial membranes of plant X had more folds than did those of plant Y.

Which of the following conclusions about increasing the number of folds in the inner mitochondrial membrane is best supported by the results of the experiment?

a)

It increases the efficiency of photosynthesis, which results in faster cell growth.

b)

It increases the surface area available for ATP production, which results in faster cell growth.

c)

It increases the amount of space available for storing cellular wastes, which results in faster cell growth.

d)

It increases the rate of protein transport to the plasma membrane, which results in faster cell growth.

28.

A certain type of specialized cell contains an unusually large amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

Which of the following functions is this cell type most likely specialized to perform?

a)

The production and secretion of steroids

b)

The destruction of toxic materials produced in other cells of the organism

c)

The synthesis of polysaccharides for energy storage

d)

The production and secretion of proteins

29.

Some viral infections can lead to the rupture of the lysosome membrane. Which prediction of the effect of this disruption of cellular compartmentalization is most likely correct?

a)

Enzymes will be released that will specifically target the virus.

b)

Cellular osmotic concentrations will change, preventing viral entry into the cell.

c)

Hydrolytic enzymes will be released, which will cause cell death.

d)

Intracellular digestion of organic materials will increase, which will increase the energy available to the cell for fighting the virus.

30.

Researchers investigate the transport of a certain protein into cells by endocytosis. In an experiment, the researchers incubate the cells in the presence of the protein and measure the amount of the protein that is absorbed into the cells over a five-minute period.

Based on their observations, what should the researchers do to further clarify how the availability of the protein outside the cells affects the rate of endocytosis of the protein?

a)

Incubate the cells in the absence of the protein.

b)

Incubate the cells in the presence of several different proteins.

c)

Incubate the cells in the presence of several different concentrations of the protein.

d)

Incubate the cells in the presence of the protein for several different lengths of time.

31.

Aldosterone (a steroid hormone) is a small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecule that enters a target cell by moving across the plasma membrane, down a concentration gradient.

Based on the information presented, how does aldosterone most likely enter target cells?

a)

By simple diffusion because aldersterone can enter a cell by moving across the plasma membrane and moving down the concentration gradient.

b)

By facilitated diffusion because aldersterone would need the assistance of a protein channel to move across the plasma membrane.

c)

By active transport because aldersterone would need energy to move across the plasma membrane.

d)

By endocytosis because aldersterone would need to be transported by vesicle across the plasma membrane

32.

The cell membrane is selectively permeable due to its structure. Thus, the internal environment of the cell is distinct from the external environment of the cell. One biologist hypothesizes that small nonpolar molecules readily pass through the membrane. Another biologist alternatively hypothesizes that these types of molecules require channel and transport proteins that are embedded in the membrane in order to move across the membrane.

Which of the following data would best refute this alternative hypothesis?

a)

Ethanol is found in the cytosol of cells when they are briefly exposed to a ten percent ethanol solution.

b)

Cells become oxygen deficient when membrane protein activity is blocked.

c)

CO2 and N2 movement in and out of cells is unaffected when membrane protein activity is blocked.

d)

Sodium ions cannot move across the cell membrane when membrane protein activity is blocked.

33.

Researchers have proposed a model of chloroplast evolution. According to the model, chloroplasts evolved from a small prokaryotic organism that was engulfed by an ancestral eukaryote. The engulfed prokaryote then formed an endosymbiotic relationship with the eukaryotic host.

Which of the following observations best supports the model?

a)

Chloroplasts are separated from other subcellular compartments by semipermeable membranes.

b)

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms both acquire nutrients from the surrounding environment.

c)

Eukaryotes evolved after prokaryotes and have more complex structures.

d)

Chloroplasts and some prokaryotes share similar photosynthetic reactions.

34.

A magnesium sulfate solution taken orally can cause a net movement of water into the large intestine, which results from water molecules diffusing through aquaporins embedded in the cells of the intestinal lining.

By which of the following mechanisms do the water molecules most likely move into the large intestine?

a)

By passive transport from an area of low osmolarity to an area of high osmolarity

b)

By passive transport from an area of high osmolarity to an area of low osmolarity

c)

By active transport from an area of low osmolarity to an area of high osmolarity

d)

By active transport from an area of high osmolarity to an area of low osmolarity

35.

A study was conducted to understand the factors controlling the rate at which molecules or ions travel across cell membranes. An artificial membrane was created that was composed of a phospholipid bilayer only. The speed at which various substances crossed this membrane was measured.

Some substances can pass through an actual cell membrane much faster than they passed through the artificial membrane in this study. Which of the following statements best explains this finding?

a)

Actual cell membranes have a much thicker phospholipid bilayer than the artificial membrane does.

b)

Actual cell membranes have a variety of proteins embedded in the membrane that are absent in the artificial membrane.

c)

Hydrophobic substances spend more time between the two layers of phospholipid in the artificial membrane than they do between the layers in an actual membrane.

d)

Hydrophilic substances spend more time attached to the polar region of the phospholipids in the artificial membrane than they do attached to the polar region of the phospholipids in an actual membrane.

36.

Hereditary spherocytosis (HS) is a disorder of red blood cells that causes the cells to be smaller and spherical instead of having the usual flattened, biconcave shape. The average diameter of normal red blood cells is 7.2μm, and the average diameter of red blood cells in a person with HSwas found to be 6.7μm. The normal red blood cell has an average surface area of 136μm2 and an average volume of 91μm3.

Which of the following provides an accurate calculation of the surface area to volume ratio of an HS red blood cell, as well as a prediction of its effect on the efficient transferring of oxygen compared to a normal red blood cell?

a)

The ratio is 0.45, and the cells are more efficient at transferring oxygen.

b)

The ratio is 1.12, and the cells are less efficient at transferring oxygen.

c)

The ratio is 0.89, and the cells are less efficient at transferring oxygen.

d)

The ratio is 141, and the cells are more efficient at transferring oxygen.

37.

Gaucher disease is an inherited disorder in which cells of the body are unable to break down a particular type of lipid, resulting in a buildup of the lipid in some tissues and organs.

Based on the information provided, Gaucher disease results most directly from a defect in the function of which of the following organelles?

a)

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

The nucleus

c)

The lysosome

d)

The mitochondrion

38.

Beetroot cells contain a family of dark red pigments called betalains. The selectively permeable nature of the beetroot cells keeps the internal environment of the cell separate from the external environment of the cell. Researchers are interested in determining whether the selective permeability of beetroot cells is due to the cell membrane or if it is due to the cell wall.

Exposure to cellulase is known to damage the structure of the cell wall. An experiment is set up in which beetroot cells are placed in an aqueous solution with cellulase and in one without cellulase.

Which of the following results best refutes the alternative hypothesis that selective permeability is a consequence of the cell wall?

a)

When beetroot cells are placed in a solution with cellulase, the solution turns dark red.

b)

When beetroot cells are placed in a solution with cellulase, the solution remains clear.

c)

When beetroot cells are placed in a solution, it turns dark red with or without cellulase present.

d)

Since plant cells contain cell membranes, not cell walls, the alternate hypothesis cannot be tested.

39.

A scientist is studying the various prokaryotic and eukaryotic species found floating in a sample of water taken from a marine ecosystem.

Which cellular component will be found in the widest range of organisms in the sample?

a)

The chloroplast, since all organisms need a source of energy.

b)

The ribosome, since all organisms need to synthesize proteins.

c)

The mitochondrion, since all organisms need to break down glucose.

d)

The cell wall, since all marine organisms need them for support.

40.

Two competing hypotheses exist regarding the cell membrane structure. One hypothesis states that membrane structure is static and membrane components throughout the bilayer are rigidly bound. Alternatively, the other hypothesis states that cell membranes are a fluid mosaic in which membrane components may drift within the bilayer around the surface of the cell. An experiment is set up in which membrane proteins of two different cells are fluorescently labeled with two different colors and then fused as shown in Figure 1.

Which of the following results, one hour after membrane fusion, best supports the alternative hypothesis that the cell membrane is a fluid mosaic?

a)
b)
c)
d)
41.

Researchers conducted an experiment to investigate the effects of a valinomycin treatment on skeletal muscle cells. Valinomycin is a naturally occurring substance that can be used as a drug. The results of the experiment are presented in the table.

Which of the following claims about the effects of the valinomycin treatment is best supported by the data presented in the table?

a)

The valinomycin treatment caused an increase in the activity of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

The valinomycin treatment caused an increase in the activity of the Golgi complex.

c)

The valinomycin treatment caused a decrease in the activity of the lysosome.

d)

The valinomycin treatment caused a decrease in the activity of the mitochondria.

42.

Which of the following observations best supports the claim that mitochondria evolved from once-free-living prokaryotic cells by the process of endocytosis?

a)

Mitochondria produce ATP.

b)

Mitochondria contain proteins.

c)

Mitochondria exchange substances with the cytosol.

d)

Mitochondria are surrounded by a double membrane.

43.

Some membrane proteins help maintain the concentrations of ions inside a cell by transporting the ions across the cell’s plasma membrane. Other membrane proteins form pores in the plasma membrane through which the ions can diffuse. A model showing the influence of membrane proteins on the movement of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions across a plasma membrane is presented in Figure 1.

Based on the model presented in Figure 1, which of the following changes will most likely result from a depletion of available ATP stores inside the cell?

a)

The Na+ concentration outside the cell will increase.

b)

The Na+concentration inside the cell will increase.

c)

The K+ concentration inside the cell will increase.

d)

The K+ concentration outside the cell will decrease.

44.

Euglenids are single-cell eukaryotes that live in aquatic environments. The chloroplasts found inside euglenids are enveloped by three membranes, as represented in Figure 1. The inner membrane of euglenid chloroplasts resembles the thylakoid membrane.

Which of the following claims about the origin of the euglenid chloroplast is best supported by the three-membrane structure of the envelope?

a)

It originated from the spontaneous assembly of organic molecules into a lipid bilayer inside a free-living prokaryote.

b)

It originated from the fusion of the plasma membranes of two different free-living photosynthetic prokaryotes.

c)

It originated from the incorporation of a photosynthetic prokaryote into a eukaryotic cell by a single endosymbiotic event.

d)

It originated from the incorporation of a photosynthetic prokaryote into a eukaryotic cell by two endosymbiotic events.

45.

Which of the following cellular deficiencies would most likely be related to mutations in mitochondrial proteins?

a)

The cell is unable to synthesize most proteins required for normal cell functions.

b)

The cell is unable to break down toxic materials and would accumulate large volumes of these materials.

c)

The cell is able to synthesize proteins, but the proteins would not fold properly and would not contain the correct molecular tags for export from the cell.

d)

The cell is unable to complete reactions related to electron transport and ATP production.

46.

Certain bacteria can use both ethyl alcohol and acetate as sources of nutrients. In an experiment where both nutrients are available to a bacterial population, the following results were obtained and graphed.

What additional procedure would best help determine whether these movements are due to active transport or to passive transport?

a)

Repeat the original experiment, but at three different temperatures. Compare the transport rates among the three temperatures.

b)

Repeat the original experiment, but add a substance known to block movement of molecules across aquaporins. Compare the rates on the two graphs.

c)

Use two additional treatments, one containing only ethyl alcohol and one containing only acetate. Compare the graphs of these two treatments with the original graph.

d)

Use two additional treatments, one containing only ethyl alcohol and one containing only acetate. Include a substance known to block ATP use by the plasma membrane. Compare the graphs of these two treatments to the original graph.

47.

Which of the following transport mechanisms will be affected most directly by a temporary shortage of ATP molecules inside the cell?

a)

The movement of water molecules through aquaporins

b)

The diffusion of oxygen molecules across the plasma membrane

c)

The transport of glucose molecules against a concentration gradient

d)

The facilitated diffusion of Ca2+ ions into the cell

48.

The figure shows a representation of a protein embedded in a cell membrane. The numbers indicate different structural regions of the protein.

Based on the figure, which of the following statements best describes the relationship between regions 1 and 2 of the protein?

a)

Region 1 is hydrophilic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane, whereas region 2 is hydrophobic because it interacts with an aqueous environment.

b)

B

Region 1 is hydrophilic because it interacts with an aqueous environment, whereas region 2 is hydrophobic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane.

c)

Region 1 is hydrophobic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane, whereas region 2 is hydrophilic because it interacts with an aqueous environment.

d)

Region 1 is hydrophobic because it interacts with an aqueous environment, whereas region 2 is hydrophilic because it interacts with the interior of the membrane.

49.

Some cells, such as intestinal cells, exchange a lot of material with their surroundings. The surface-to-volume ratio of these cells affects the efficiency of material exchange.

The table provides measurements of four different eukaryotic cells.

Based on the data, which cell is likely to be most effective in the exchange of materials?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

50.

In an experiment, researchers provided a radiolabeled amino acid to living plant cells. After one hour, the researchers determined the amount of the radiolabeled amino acid that was in each of several subcellular compartments. The results of the experiment are represented in the table.

Which of the following conclusions about the radiolabeled amino acid is best supported by the results of the experiment?

a)

It was mostly incorporated into nucleic acids that store the biological information.

b)

It was mostly incorporated into proteins that regulate and manage metabolic reactions.

c)

It was mostly incorporated into lipids that help separate cells from their surrounding environment.

d)

It was mostly incorporated into carbohydrates that form protective structures outside the cells.

51.

Stomata are pores on the surfaces of the leaves and stems of plants that regulate gas exchange between the plants and the atmosphere.

Researchers found that the stomata density on the leaves of a species of plant change as the concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere changes. When grown at 350 ppm CO2 the plant has an average density of 300 stomata per mm2, but when grown at 400 ppm CO2 the plant has an average density of 250 stomata per mm2.

Which of the following best describes how the ratio of the density of stomata (stomata per mm2) per CO2 concentration (ppm CO2) changes as the CO2 concentration increases?

a)

The ratio decreases from 0.86 to 0.63, because fewer stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentrations.

b)

The ratio decreases from 1.6 to 1.2, because fewer stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentrations.

c)

The ratio increases from 0.63 to 0.86, because more stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentrations.

d)

The ratio increases from 1.2 to 1.6, because more stomata are needed at higher CO2 concentrations.

52.

Based on Figure 1, which of the following statements best predicts the effect that a change from a moderately acidic environment (pH near 6) to a basic environment will have on peroxidase activity?

a)

Peroxidase activity will decrease.

b)

Peroxidase activity will increase.

c)

Peroxidase activity will stay the same.

d)

Peroxidase activity will increase at first and then decrease.

53.

Which of the following actions will provide a negative control for the investigation?

a)

Repeating the experiment at 25°C

b)

Repeating the experiment using twice the amount of hydrogen peroxide

c)

Repeating the experiment using twice the amount of peroxidase

d)

Repeating the experiment using heat-denatured peroxidase

54.

One of the researchers proposes using oxygen gas production to measure reaction rates. Which of the following statements best justifies the use of the proposed modification as a way of creating an appropriate control for the investigation?

a)

The experiment can be repeated without hydrogen peroxide, which will help eliminate an uncontrolled variable.

b)

The experiment can be repeated without peroxidase, which will introduce a second independent variable.

c)

The experiment can be repeated without guaiacol, which will reveal the effect of guaiacol on the reaction rates.

d)

The experiment can be repeated without water, which will reveal whether the reaction can occur inside a living cell.

55.

Aminolevulinate dehydratase (ALAD) is an enzyme that relies on zinc as a cofactor. A zinc ion binds to the ALAD active site, where it forms favorable interactions with the side chains of three amino acids. Researchers have found that substituting a lead ion for a zinc ion in the ALADactive site causes inhibition of ALAD.

Which of the following statements best helps explain how the lead ion causes inhibition of ALAD?

a)

It changes the shape and charge of the substrate so that it becomes more compatible with ALAD’s active site.

b)

It changes the amino acid sequence of the ALAD protein so that the enzyme catalyzes a different reaction.

c)

It changes the three-dimensional structure of the active site so that ALADis no longer compatible with its substrate.

d)

It changes the enzyme-substrate complex so that the transition state is more stable and the reaction proceeds at a faster rate.

56.

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) is a protein that catalyzes the conversion of acetylcholine to acetate and choline. When the concentration of AChE in an aqueous solution is held constant, the rate of the reaction catalyzed by AChE increases with increasing concentrations of substrate. At low concentrations of acetylcholine, a small increase in the substrate concentration results in a large increase in the reaction rate. At high concentrations of acetylcholine, however, a large increase in the substrate concentration results in only a small increase in the reaction rate.

Which of the following statements correctly explains the observed effect of the acetylcholine concentration on the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

a)

The active site of AChE is specific for acetylcholine, and only one substrate molecule can occupy the active site at a time.

b)

AChE begins converting product into substrate as the acetylcholine concentration changes from low to high.

c)

The AChE protein becomes denatured as the acetylcholine concentration changes from low to high.

d)

The substrate specificity of AChE changes as the acetylcholine concentration changes from low to high.

57.

A researcher proposes a model to explain how enzyme-substrate interactions determine enzyme specificity. The model is based on the idea that substrate molecules form favorable interactions with the amino acid side chains in an enzyme’s active site.

Based on the model, which of the following statements best explains an enzyme’s specificity for a particular substrate molecule?

a)

A hydrophilic molecule interacts with nonpolar side chains in the enzyme’s active site.

b)

A hydrophobic molecule interacts with polar side chains in the enzyme’s active site.

c)

A molecule with positive charges interacts with positively charged side chains in the enzyme’s active site.

d)

molecule with negative charges interacts with positively charged side chains in the enzyme’s active site.

58.

Catalase is an enzyme found in yeast cells that facilitates the chemical breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas. An experiment was conducted to determine the effect of pHon catalase function. Five buffer solutions of varying pH (2, 4, 6, 8, and 10) were prepared and added to separate test tubes. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) was added to each test tube. Yeast was added, and the reactions were timed. After 1 minute the amount of oxygen gas released was determined by measuring the foam layer produced in each test tube. Figure 1 illustrates the experimental setup.

A set of five additional test tubes were prepared and used as controls. Which of the following best describes the contents expected to be contained in one of the five control test tubes?

a)

pH 4 buffer solution and hydrogen peroxide only

b)

All five pH buffer solutions combined and hydrogen peroxide only

c)

Water, hydrogen peroxide, and yeast

d)

Water and yeast only

59.

A student designs an experiment to investigate the influence of temperature on enzyme function. The student’s plan is presented in Table 1.

Which test tubes are controls in the experiment?

a)

Test tubes 1 and 2 only

b)

Test tubes 5 and 6 only

c)

Test tubes 1, 3, 5, and 7

d)

Test tubes 2, 4, 6, and 8

60.

A researcher designs an experiment to investigate whether soil bacteria trigger the synthesis of defense enzymes in plant roots. The design of the experiment is presented in Table 1. For each group in the experiment, the researcher will determine the average rate of change in the amount of defense enzymes in the roots of the seedlings.

Which of the following statements best helps justify the inclusion of group 2 as one of the controls in the experiment?

a)

It will show whether the changes observed in group 1 depend on the metabolic activity of soil bacteria.

b)

It will show whether the changes observed in group 1 depend on the type of plants used in the experiment.

c)

It will show the average growth rate of seedlings that are maintained in a nonsterile environment.

d)

It will show the changes that occur in the roots of seedlings following an infection by soil bacteria.

61.

Pectinase is a protein that catalyzes the breakdown of pectic polysaccharides in plant cell walls. A researcher designs an experiment to investigate the effect of salinity on the ability of pectinase to lower the activation energy of the reaction involved. The design of the experiment is presented in Table 1. For each test tube, the researcher will measure the amount of product formed over 20 minutes.

Which of the following statements best helps justify the inclusion of test tube 5 in the experiment?

a)

It will act as a control for test tube 4 by showing the effect of the presence or absence of the substrate.

b)

It will act as a control for test tube 4 by showing the effect of a change in environmental temperature.

c)

It will act as a control for test tube 6 by showing the effect of the presence or absence of the enzyme.

d)

It will act as a control for test tube 6 by showing the effect of a change in sodium chloride concentration.

62.

Researchers investigated the effect of urea on the three-dimensional structure of a certain enzyme. The researchers dissolved the enzyme in an aqueous buffer solution and added urea to the solution. The enzyme did not appear to have a secondary or tertiary structure. The researchers carefully removed the urea from the solution and determined that the enzyme had the original secondary and tertiary structure again.

Based on the results of the experiment, which of the following statements best predicts the effect of urea on the enzyme’s function?

a)

Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.

b)

Function will be disrupted by adding the urea, but it will not be regained by removing the urea.

c)

Function will be gained by adding the urea and disrupted by removing the urea.

d)

Function will be unaffected by the addition and removal of the urea.

63.

In an experiment, a researcher prepares a reaction mixture by dissolving a substance in a buffered solution. The substance is the substrate of a certain enzyme. The researcher adds a small amount of the enzyme to the reaction mixture and measures the amount of product that is formed over time. The data are represented in Figure 1.

Which of the following best predicts the immediate result of adding more substrate to the reaction mixture at the point indicated by the arrow in Figure 1?

a)

The amount of product will decrease until the reaction rate goes to zero.

b)

The amount of product will decrease until the reaction reaches its equilibrium point or until the enzyme is been used up by the reaction.

c)

The amount of product will increase until the reaction reaches its equilibrium point or until the substrate is used up by the reaction.

d)

The amount of product will increase without stopping because the enzyme will be unchanged by the reaction.

64.

European flycatchers feed caterpillars to their hatchlings. Graph 1 shows the average dates of hatching and fledging (leaving the nest), and the biomass of the caterpillars between early May (when flycatcher young hatch) and June (when fledging of young occurs).

Based on the data, scientists claim that the reproductive behavior of European flycatchers is influenced by the availability of energy sources. Which of the following statements best justifies this claim?

a)

Young European flycatchers hatch from eggs when caterpillar biomass is available for the young birds to consume and convert into energy for growth.

b)

European flycatcher hatchlings begin to need energy to leave the nest only after the caterpillars have turned into pupae.

c)

Female European flycatchers require energy to lay eggs, so they lay their eggs when the caterpillar biomass is maximal.

d)

The energy requirements for hatching European flycatchers and caterpillars are proportional to each other.

65.

A researcher claims that the incorporation of carbon dioxide into organic molecules during photosynthesis does not violate the second law of thermodynamics.

Which of the following statements best helps justify the researcher’s claim?

a)

Organisms contain enzymes that lower the activation energies of specific chemical reactions.

b)

An ecosystem is formed by the interaction of a community of organisms with their surrounding environment.

c)

Photosynthetic organisms use the organic molecules produced during photosynthesis for growth and repair.

d)

The total system that includes photosynthetic organisms and the Sun becomes less ordered over time.

66.

Brown fat is a type of fat tissue found in hibernating mammals. Inside the mitochondria of these fat tissue cells, these mammals have an uncoupling protein embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. This uncoupling protein allows hydrogen ions to leak from the intermembrane space back into the mitochondrial matrix. Figure 1 shows details of the processes in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Which of the following statements provides reasoning that supports the claim that brown fatty tissue keeps an animal warm?

a)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue increases the production of ATP and causes more body heat to be produced to warm the animal.

b)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue reduces the proton gradient across the membrane and thus produces heat to warm the animal without ATPproduction.

c)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue causes an increase in the proton gradient, which causes more ATP to be produced that helps to warm the animal.

d)

The uncoupling protein in this tissue reduces the production of ATP and creates an increase in the proton gradient that allows more heat energy to be produced to warm the animal.

67.

A researcher claims that spinach leaves capture the most energy from light waves in the range of 500 nm to 600 nm. To test the claim, the researcher will place spinach leaves in separate chambers and expose the leaves to different wavelengths of light. For each chamber, the researcher will measure the amount of oxygen gas (O2) that is produced in one hour.

Which of the following graphs best represents data from the experiment that will support the researcher’s claim?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

A researcher claims that the initial rise of oxygen in Earth’s early atmosphere, which occurred approximately 2.3 billion years ago, resulted from the metabolic activity of prokaryotic organisms. The claim is based on an interpretation of the geochemical and fossil evidence represented in Figure 1.

Which of the following types of evidence will best support the researcher’s claim?

a)

Evidence that some of the earliest eukaryotes used oxygen to produce ATP by cellular respiration

b)

Evidence that the earliest plants produced oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis

c)

Evidence that some of the earliest organisms carried out photosynthesis without producing oxygen

d)

Evidence that the cyanobacteria produced oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis

69.

A researcher claims that a certain herbicide suppresses plant growth by inhibiting chloroplast function. To test the claim, the researcher treats isolated chloroplasts with increasing concentrations of the herbicide. The data from the experiment are presented in Table 1.

Which of the following statements best clarifies how the data support the researcher’s claim?

a)

The thylakoid membrane is more permeable to carbon dioxide than to polar molecules.

b)

ATP synthase activity depends on a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.

c)

Some enzymes embedded in the thylakoid membrane catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP.

d)

Carbon fixation in the Calvin-Benson cycle takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts.

70.

A researcher claims that genetic variation provides organisms with the ability to survive and reproduce in different environments. To support the claim, the researcher makes the following observation: bacteria that contain plasmids (small DNA molecules) are resistant to a wider range of antibiotics than are bacteria that contain no plasmids.

Which of the following statements best establishes a connection between the observation and the researcher’s claim?

a)

Some antibiotics inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell walls.

b)

Some antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria cells.

c)

Some plasmids cannot exist in a bacterial cell with certain other plasmids.

d)

Some plasmids contain antibiotic resistance genes.

71.

Phycobiliproteins are a complex of accessory pigments and proteins found in cyanobacteria but not in green algae. A researcher claims that the phycobiliprotein pigments in cyanobacteria allow the cyanobacteria to survive in certain aquatic niches better than green algae can.

Which of the following statements best justifies the researcher’s claim?

a)

The additional pigments allow the cyanobacteria to store light energy so that it can be used at night to continue photosynthesis.

b)

The additional pigments block light and prevent it from reaching photosynthetic organisms at greater depths, so no photosynthetic organisms can live below the surface waters containing cyanobacteria.

c)

The additional pigments require energy and cellular resources to produce, so they can be used as an energy source during times of insufficient light.

d)

The additional pigments absorb light at wavelengths that green algae cannot absorb; this may allow cyanobacteria to capture more light energy for photosynthesis than green algae can in certain areas.

72.

A researcher claims that budding yeast are able to survive in different environments because they produce enzymes that allow them to use different molecules as sources of matter and energy.

Which of the following statements best helps justify the researcher’s claim by providing a relevant example?

a)

Yeast cells produce protein kinases, which are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups from ATP to protein substrates.

b)

Yeast cells produce DNA polymerases, which are enzymes that catalyze the conversion of free nucleotides into strands of DNA.

c)

Yeast cells produce invertase, which is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of the disaccharide sucrose into glucose and fructose.

d)

Yeast cells produce catalase, which is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen gas.

73.

Site of glucose synthesis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

74.

Site of conversion of chemical energy of glucose to ATP

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

75.

Site of modification and packaging of proteins and lipids prior to export from the cell

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

76.

Site of transport of materials into and out of the cell

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

77.

Evolved from a photoautotrophic prokaryote

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

78.

Which of the following organelles modifies and packages for secretion the materials produced by the ribosomes?

a)

The chloroplast

b)

The Golgi apparatus

c)

The nucleus

d)

The nucleolus

e)

The Mitochondrion

79.

This group of questions refers to the following groups of biological compounds.

(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Nucleic acids (D) Lipids (E) Steroids

Synthesized at the ribosome

a)

Proteins

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Lipids

d)

Steroids

e)

Carbohydrates

80.

Individuals with an inherited autosomal recessive disorder called primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) often have severe respiratory problems due to defective cilia. Males with PCD are often sterile because they produce sperm with defective flagella. Which of the following most likely explains the effect of the recessive allele?

a)

The mitochondria are defective and do not produce sufficient protein to synthesize microtubules in the cilia and flagella.

b)

The plasma membrane of the alveoli is not permeable to carbon dioxide during respiration because it is too hydrophobic.

c)

The Golgi bodies secrete an enzyme that destroys the proteins in the flagella and cilia.

d)

The cells do not produce functional motor proteins in flagella and cilia.

81.

Contains hydrolytic enzymes associated with the intracellular digestion of macromolecules

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Lysosome

c)

Peroxisome

d)

Ribosome

e)

Centriole

82.

The organelle that is a major producer of ATP and is found in both heterotrophs and autotrophs is the

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondrion

e)

Golgi apparatus

83.

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?

a)

A membrane-bound nucleus

b)

A cell wall made of cellulose

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Flagella or cilia that contain microtubules

e)

Linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein

84.

For following group of questions first study the description of the situation or data and then choose the one best answer to each question following it and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

In the first step of an experiment, rat liver cells were exposed for 5 minutes to amino acids labeled with a radioactive isotope. The cells were then washed to stop any further incorporation of radioactive amino acids. The cells were sampled periodically thereafter, and the radioactivity of a certain protein (protein X) was measured in various cell components, as shown below.

What is the most likely identity of protein X ?

a)

An enzyme that is involved in transcription

b)

An electron transport protein that participates in respiration reactions

c)

A protein secreted from liver cells into the blood stream that permits proper capillary function

d)

An enzyme that participates in the degradation and recycling of cell components

e)

A building block of the microtubules that are part of the cytoskeleton

85.

For following group of questions first study the description of the situation or data and then choose the one best answer to each question following it and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

In the first step of an experiment, rat liver cells were exposed for 5 minutes to amino acids labeled with a radioactive isotope. The cells were then washed to stop any further incorporation of radioactive amino acids. The cells were sampled periodically thereafter, and the radioactivity of a certain protein (protein X) was measured in various cell components, as shown below.

Which of the following correctly shows the order in which protein X moves through the cell?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> lysosomes

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> nucleus -> cytoplasm -> lysosomes

c)

Extracellular space -> mitochondria -> cytoplasm

d)

Golgi apparatus -> cytoplasm -> lysosomes

e)

Cytoplasm -> mitochondria -> extracellular space

86.

For following group of questions first study the description of the situation or data and then choose the one best answer to each question following it and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

In the first step of an experiment, rat liver cells were exposed for 5 minutes to amino acids labeled with a radioactive isotope. The cells were then washed to stop any further incorporation of radioactive amino acids. The cells were sampled periodically thereafter, and the radioactivity of a certain protein (protein X) was measured in various cell components, as shown below.

The same procedure was repeated with a second protein (protein Y). If the function of Y is protein processing and packaging, the most radioactivity would be found in the

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosomes

e)

Cytoplasm

87.

For following group of questions first study the description of the situation or data and then choose the one best answer to each question following it and fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

In the first step of an experiment, rat liver cells were exposed for 5 minutes to amino acids labeled with a radioactive isotope. The cells were then washed to stop any further incorporation of radioactive amino acids. The cells were sampled periodically thereafter, and the radioactivity of a certain protein (protein X) was measured in various cell components, as shown below.

In graphing the data from this experiment, the sampling time would be shown on the x-axis because

a)

cell components were shown on the y-axis

b)

radioactivity level shows the most variation

c)

time values are always located on the horizontal axis

d)

all quantitative values are represented on the x-axis

e)

sampling time is the independent variable

88.

The figure below illustrates a eukaryotic cell. Which of the following best describes how the three structures indicated by the arrows work together?

a)

To synthesize lipids and modify toxic substances in order to render them harmless

b)

To synthesize and isolate proteins for secretion or for use in the cell

c)

To catabolize nutrients and produce ATP for intracellular energy storage

d)

To synthesize all ribosomal proteins

89.

Simple cuboidal epithelial cells line the ducts of certain human exocrine glands. Various materials are transported into or out of the cells by diffusion. (The formula for the surface area of a cube is 6 X S2, and the formula for the volume of a cube is S3, where S = the length of a side of the cube.)

Which of the following cube-shaped cells would be most efficient in removing waste by diffusion?

a)
b)
c)
d)
90.

R. C. Punnett conducted experiments on the inheritance of traits in the sweet pea, Lathyrus odoratus. In one experiment, he crossed two different true-breeding sweet pea plant strains, one with erect petals and long pollen, and the other with hooded petals and round pollen. All the offspring (F1 generation) had erect petals and long pollen (Figure 1).

Next, Punnett allowed the F1 generation to self-fertilize and recorded the phenotypes of their offspring. The data are shown in Table 1.

Sweet pea plants have a diploid (2n) chromosome number of 14.

Which of the following best explains how the sweet pea plants in the parental generation produce F1 offspring with 14 chromosomes?

a)

Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 14 chromosomes. When two cells combine during fertilization, extra chromosomes are randomly broken down, leading to offspring with 14 chromosomes.

b)

Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 14 chromosomes. When two cells combine during fertilization, extra chromosomes with recessive traits are broken down, leading to offspring with 14 chromosomes.

c)

Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 7 chromosomes. During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate. During meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. Two cells combine during fertilization to produce offspring with 14 chromosomes.

d)

Meiosis I and II lead to the formation of cells with 7 chromosomes. During meiosis I, sister chromatids separate. During meiosis II, homologous chromosomes separate. Two cells combine during fertilization to produce offspring with 14 chromosomes.

91.

R. C. Punnett conducted experiments on the inheritance of traits in the sweet pea, Lathyrus odoratus. In one experiment, he crossed two different true-breeding sweet pea plant strains, one with erect petals and long pollen, and the other with hooded petals and round pollen. All the offspring (F1 generation) had erect petals and long pollen (Figure 1).

Next, Punnett allowed the F1 generation to self-fertilize and recorded the phenotypes of their offspring. The data are shown in Table 1.

Which of the following questions would be most useful to researchers trying to determine the role of meiosis in the F2 phenotypic frequencies?

a)

What is the molecular mechanism underlying the dominance of erect petals and long pollen?

b)

Which phenotypes give pea plants the highest level of fitness: erect or hooded petals and long or round pollen?

c)

How do the phases of meiosis differ between sweet pea plants and other organisms?

d)

What is the recombination frequency between the genes for petal shape and pollen shape?

92.

R. C. Punnett conducted experiments on the inheritance of traits in the sweet pea, Lathyrus odoratus. In one experiment, he crossed two different true-breeding sweet pea plant strains, one with erect petals and long pollen, and the other with hooded petals and round pollen. All the offspring (F1 generation) had erect petals and long pollen (Figure 1).

Next, Punnett allowed the F1 generation to self-fertilize and recorded the phenotypes of their offspring. The data are shown in Table 1.

How many degrees of freedom should be used when looking up the critical value for a chi-square analysis of the ratios of phenotypes observed among the F2 offspring versus the expected phenotypic ratio assuming independent assortment?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

93.

For sexually reproducing diploid parent cells, which of the following statements best explains the production of haploid cells that occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

a)

Separation of chromatids occurs once, and there is one round of cell division in meiosis.

b)

Separation of chromatids occurs twice, and there are two rounds of cell division in mitosis.

c)

Separation of chromatids occurs once, and there are two rounds of cell division in meiosis.

d)

Separation of chromatids occurs twice, and there is one round of cell division in mitosis.

94.

Which of the following best explains a distinction between metaphase I and metaphase II?

a)

The nuclear membrane breaks down during metaphase I but not during metaphase II.

b)

Chromosomes align at the equator of the cell during metaphase II but not during metaphase I.

c)

The meiotic spindle is needed during metaphase I but not during metaphase II.

d)

Homologous pairs of chromosomes are aligned during metaphase I, but individual chromosomes are aligned during metaphase II.

95.

In anaphase I of meiosis, cohesion between the centromeres of sister chromatids is maintained while homologous chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell along the meiotic spindle as represented in Figure 1.

A compound that prevents the separation of the homologous chromosomes in anaphase I is being studied. Which of the following questions can be best answered during this study?

a)

Will the cells produced at the end of meiosis still be genetically identical to each other in the presence of this compound?

b)

Will the long-term development of the individual be affected by this meiotic error?

c)

When do the centrosomes start to move apart during meiosis I as compared to meiosis II?

d)

Is there a pattern to the movement of homologous chromosomes in the presence of this compound?

96.

A model of crossing over during gamete formation is shown in Figure 1.

Based on Figure 1, which of the following questions could best be addressed?

a)

Does synapsis of homologous chromosomes in the parent cell contribute to an increase in genetic diversity in the daughter cells?

b)

Do sister chromatids separate and form diploid daughter cells?

c)

Do chromatids from nonhomologous chromosomes rearrange to produce identical daughter cells?

d)

Does synapsis of nonhomologous chromosomes produce daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell?

97.

Researchers performed a dihybrid cross with coffee bean plants to investigate whether the inheritance of two traits (height and stem circumference) follows Mendel’s law of independent assortment. The data for the F2 generation are presented in Table 1.

Which of the following is closest to the calculated chi-square (χ2) value for the data presented in Table 1?

a)

8.35

b)

72.01

c)

98.00

d)

2,546.00

98.

Researchers hypothesized that red eye color in Japanese koi, a type of fish, is due to a mutation. To study the inheritance of red eye color in koi, the researchers conducted breeding experiments over several generations. The results are summarized in Figure 1.

Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following is the best prediction of the mode of inheritance of red eyes in Japanese koi?

a)

The allele for red eyes is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

b)

The allele for red eyes is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.

c)

The allele for red eyes is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern.

d)

The allele for red eyes is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern.

99.

In corn plants, purple kernel color is dominant to yellow kernel color, and smooth kernels are dominant to wrinkled kernels. Researchers carried out a genetics experiment to investigate whether the genes controlling kernel color and kernel texture segregate independently. In their experiment, the researchers crossed two corn plants that were each heterozygous for both kernel color and kernel texture. The results of the experiment are presented in Table 1.

Using a significance level of p=0.05, which of the following statements best completes a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment?

a)

The calculated chi-square value is 0.66, and the critical value is 0.05. The null hypothesis can be rejected.

b)

The calculated chi-square value is 0.66, and the critical value is 3.84. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

c)

The calculated chi-square value is 3.91, and the critical value is 5.99. The null hypothesis can be rejected.

d)

The calculated chi-square value is 3.91, and the critical value is 7.82. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

100.

Several members of a family are found to involuntarily sneeze when exposed to bright lights, such as sunlight. Following analysis of the condition in the family, a doctor predicts that the symptoms have an underlying genetic basis. A pedigree of the family is shown in Figure 1.-please edit “male” to XY individual and “female” to XX individual.

For this condition, which of the following modes of inheritance is most consistent with the observations?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

X-linked recessive

101.

In pea plants, purple flower color is dominant to red flower color and long pollen grains are dominant to round pollen grains. Researchers crossed two pure-breeding lines of the pea plants to investigate whether the genes controlling flower color and pollen shape segregate independently. The procedure for the genetics experiment is summarized in Figure 1.

Which of the following tables best shows the expected values in the F2 generation for a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment?

a)
b)
c)
d)
102.

Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate and is observed in each of the three domains. The hexokinase family of enzymes is required during glycolysis to phosphorylate six-carbon sugars. Researchers designed a general hexokinase inhibitor that is effective in the neurons of rats.

Which of the following best predicts the effect of adding this inhibitor to a culture of plant cells?

a)

Plant cells will be unaffected by the inhibitor as they do not perform glycolysis.

b)

Plant cells will be unable to perform glycolysis due to the inhibitor and will die.

c)

Plant cells will be unable to perform photosynthesis due to the inhibitor and will die.

d)

Plant cells will still be able to perform glycolysis since plant hexokinase is not structurally similar to animal hexokinase.

103.

Students carry out a genetics experiment to investigate the inheritance pattern of the white-eye trait in fruit flies. In the experiment, the students cross a red-eyed female with a white-eyed male to produce an F1 generation. The students observe that all the flies in the F1 generation have red eyes. The students then allow the F1 flies to mate and produce an F2 generation. The students will use the F2 data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test based on a null hypothesis of autosomal recessive inheritance. The observed and expected values for the chi-square goodness-of-fit test are shown in Table 1.

The students plan to use a significance level of p=0.01. Which of the following is the most appropriate critical value for the students to use in their chi-square goodness-of-fit test?

a)

7.82

b)

11.34

c)

13.28

d)

326.7

104.

Four trials measuring recombination frequency between gene R and gene L were conducted, and the results are shown in Table 1.

The mean map distance between gene R and gene L is closest to which of the following?

a)

0.28 map units

b)

28 map units

c)

0.14 map units

d)

14 map units

105.

Rubber rabbitbrush plants display heritable variation in plant height and insect-induced gall formation. In a field study, researchers investigated the relationship between plant height and gall number for the rubber rabbitbrush plants in a natural population. The researchers used the data they collected to perform a chi-square test of independence. The null hypothesis for the chi-square test was that plant height and gall number are independent. The data for the chi-square test are presented in Table 1.

The researchers calculated a chi-square value of 29.25. If there are three degrees of freedom and the significance level is p=0.05, which of the following statements best completes the chi-square test?

a)

The critical value is The critical value is 0.05, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value.

b)

The critical value is 0.05, and the null hypothesis can be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value.

c)

The critical value is 7.82, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value.

d)

The critical value is 7.82, and the null hypothesis can be rejected because the calculated chi-square value is greater than the critical value.

106.

A true-breeding variety of wheat that produces deep-red-colored grain was crossed with a true-breeding variety that produces a white-colored grain. The resulting F1 offspring all had medium-red-colored grain. Five crosses of the F1 plants were all grown under the same conditions and resulted in plants with a variety of grain color, as indicated in Table 1.

Which of the follow indicates the mean number per cross of F2 plants producing medium-red grain and correctly explains the distribution of the phenotypes?

a)

The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 20.8. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that grain color is under environmental control.

b)

The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 20.8. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that multiple genes are involved in grain color determination.

c)

The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 104. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that grain color is under environmental control.

d)

The mean number of medium-red phenotypes per cross is 104. The distribution of phenotypes suggests that multiple genes are involved in grain color determination.

107.

Two fruit fly mutations are ebony body (e) and sepia eyes (s). Four different students performed dihybrid crosses with flies that were heterozygous with a mutant allele and a wild-type allele for both genes (EeSs×EeSs). The results are shown in Table 1.

The mean number of fruit flies per student that are homozygous recessive for both genes is closest to which of the following?

a)

89.75

b)

29.0

c)

22.75

d)

18.5

108.

Himalayan rabbits are a breed of rabbits with highly variable fur color. If genetically similar rabbits are raised in environments that have different temperature conditions, the rabbits can have different color patterns.

Which of the following statements best explains how the fur color can be different in Himalayan rabbits raised under different temperature conditions?

a)

The genotype does not contribute to coat color in Himalayan rabbits.

b)

The phenotype determines the genotype of coat color in Himalayan rabbits.

c)

Different environments cause specific mutations in the genes controlling pigment production.

d)

The environment determines how the genotype is expressed.

109.

The tadpoles of Mexican spadefoot toads are known to exhibit phenotypic plasticity depending on food availability. Tadpole mouthparts can vary significantly, prompting researchers to categorize them as either omnivore-morph or carnivore-morph. Carnivore-morph tadpoles are larger and have mouthparts that are better suited for predation. Remarkably, carnivore-morph tadpoles can change into omnivore-morph tadpoles when the food supply changes.

Which of the following best describes an advantage of the phenotypic plasticity displayed by the tadpoles?

a)

It allows the tadpoles to change their genome in response to environmental pressures.

b)

It enables the tadpoles to develop into a distinct species of toads.

c)

It gives the tadpoles increased versatility with respect to diet.

d)

It allows the tadpoles to delay metamorphosis until there is maximal food available for the adults.

110.

When a mustard plant seedling is transferred to an environment with higher levels of carbon dioxide, the new leaves have a lower stomata-to-surface-area ratio than do the seedling’s original leaves.

Which of the following best explains how the leaves from the same plant can have different stomatal densities when exposed to an elevated carbon dioxide level?

a)

Increased photosynthesis leads to larger leaves that need more stomata for photosynthesis, leading to an increase in stomatal density.

b)

Leaf growth is promoted through increased photosynthesis, but the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production is not altered, leading to a decrease in stomatal density.

c)

Leaf growth is inhibited by decreased photosynthesis, and the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production remains the same, leading to an increase in stomatal density.

d)

Leaf growth is inhibited by decreased photosynthesis, and the genetically regulated rate of stomatal production remains the same, leading to a decrease in stomatal density.

111.

A model showing the cells in anaphase I and anaphase II of meiosis during a nondisjunction event is shown in Figure 1.

Which of the following best predicts the effect of the chromosomal segregation error shown in Figure 1?

a)

All of the resulting gametes will have an extra chromosome.

b)

All of the resulting gametes will be missing a chromosome.

c)

Half of the resulting gametes will have an extra chromosome and the other half will be missing a chromosome.

d)

Half of the resulting gametes will have the correct number of chromosomes, and the other half will have an incorrect number of chromosomes.

112.

Sex chromosomes determine the phenotype of sex in humans. Embryos containing XX chromosomes develop into females, and embryos containing XY chromosomes develop into males. The sex chromosomes separate during meiosis, going to different gamete cells.

A woman is heterozygous for the X-linked recessive trait of hemophilia A. Her sex chromosomes can be designated as XHXh. During meiosis the chromosomes separate as shown in Figure 1.

If the woman and a man with normal clotting function have children, what is the probability of their children exhibiting hemophilia A?

a)

50 percent for daughters, 0 percent for sons

b)

50 percent for sons, 0 percent for daughters

c)

50 percent for all children

d)

0 percent for all children

113.

Huntington’s disease has been traced to the number of CAG repeats in the HTT gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The phenotypic influence of individual alleles with different numbers of repeats is shown in Table 1.

Which of the following is most likely the immediate cause of the first appearance of Huntington’s disease in a person?

a)

A point mutation occurs in the HTT gene.

b)

The first appearance of the CAG repeat occurs in the HTT gene.

c)

An allele with more than 39 CAG repeats was inherited by the affected person.

d)

The person inherited two alleles that each contained CAG repeats.