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Botany Whole Course Test

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Why are flowers very colorful (and why do they produce odor?)
a)
So people buy them
b)
To make gardens look good
c)
To attract pollinators
d)
To attract sunlight
2.
What is a pollinator?
a)
Animal that moves pollen from plant to plant
b)
Animal that eats pollen
c)
A plant that makes pollen
d)
A plant that does not make pollen
3.
The two type of roots are fibrous and _____?
a)
ground
b)
tap
c)
bushy
d)
elongated
4.
What structure transports food and water back and forth from roots to leaves?
a)
petals
b)
stems
c)
guard cells
d)
ground tissue
5.

Which statement is true?

A. Leaves are the sites where oxygen is released and carbon dioxide is taken in.

B. Roots are the sites where oxygen is taken in and oxygen is released.

C. Leaves are the sites where oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is released.

D. Roots are the sites where oxygen is released and carbon dioxide is taken in.

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

6.

Which tissue gives rise to the cork ?

a)

Periblem

b)

Phellogen

c)

Phelloderm

d)

Dermatogen

7.

Vascular bundles in dicot stem are

a)

Closed, conjoint, endarch

b)

Open, conjoint, endarch

c)

Open, conjoint, exarch

d)

Closed, conjoint, exarch

8.

Bicollateral vascular bundles are seen in the plants belonging to family

a)

Malvaveae

b)

Gramineae

c)

Anacardiaceae

d)

Cucurbitaceae

9.

Radial vascular bundles are found in....?

a)

Dicot root

b)

Monocot stem

c)

Dicot stem

d)

All the above

10.

In angiosperms, xylem is made up of

a)

Tracheids

b)

Vessels

c)

Fibres

d)

All the above

11.

Dendrochronology is the study of the age of trees by counting .....

a)

The number of leaves

b)

Number of annual rings

c)

Number of roots

d)

Height of the tree

12.

Region where velamen tissues are located?

a)

Below the endodermis

b)

Just outside the cortex

c)

Just outside the exodermis

d)

Below the epidermis

13.

Velamen tissue is seen in

a)

Epiphytes

b)

Xerophytes

c)

Hydrophytes

d)

Mesophytes

14.

Bordered pits are found in

a)

Vessel wall

b)

Sieve cells

c)

Sieve tube

d)

Companion cells

15.

specialized part of a cell which has a specific function

a)

ATP

b)

Organelle

c)

Enzymes

d)

Dicotyledons

16.

trees which bear cones and need-like or scale-like leaves

a)

Monocots

b)

Dicots

c)

Conifers

d)

Gamete

17.

What are small organelles found in large numbers in the cytoplasm of a cell called?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Golgi Body

d)

Ribosomes

18.

How many primary roots are in a taproot system?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

19.

In alternate leaf patterns, how many leaves are produced at each node?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.
Pepsin works best in which type of environment?
a)
acidic only
b)
basic only
c)
neutral
d)
sometimes acidic, sometimes basic
21.
Which factor would have the least effect on the rate at which an enzyme breaks down starch?
a)
 the pH of the solution in which the reaction is occurring
b)
the concentrations of starch and enzyme
c)
the temperature at which the reaction is taking place
d)
 the wavelength of light illuminating the reaction
22.
The cell membrane is formed mostly by...
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
phospholipids
d)
nucleic acids
23.
___________ are the main source of energy for cells.
a)
Proteins
b)
Lipids
c)
Nucleic acids
d)
Carbohydrates
24.
The measurement of an element's affinity for electrons is called:
a)
Electronegativity
b)
Valence Shell
c)
Atomic Radius
d)
Pauling Quotient
25.
Which of the following is not an element found in large abundance in organisms?
a)
Calcium
b)
Carbon
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Nitrogen
26.
The elements: C H O N typically represent what proportion of an organism's element make up?
a)
78%
b)
68%
c)
96%
d)
82%
27.
Carbohydrates are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
28.

What category of plants evolved most recently?

a)

flowering plants

b)

cone-bearing plants

c)

ferns

d)

mosses

29.

Is also responsible for the strength of wood and provides stiffness to the stems of other plants.

a)

Lignin

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Carbohydrate

30.

The following are main phyla of Gymnosperms EXCEPT

a)

Anthophyta

b)

Cycadophyta

c)

Ginkgophyta

d)

Gnetophyta

31.

Pinus sp. is monoecious means ____

a)

male and female cones are found at separate trees.

b)

male and female cones are found at same tree.

c)

male and female flowers are found at separate trees.

d)

male and female flowers are found at same tree.

32.

This plant is found on other larger plant but do not harm the host plants. What is this plant?

Tumbuhan ini didapati pada tumbuhan lain yang lebih besar tetapi tidak mengancam tumbuhan perumah. Apakah tumbuhan ini?

a)

Carnivorous plants // tumbuhan karnivor

b)

Parasitic plants // Tumbuhan parasit

c)

Saprophytic plants // tumbuhan saprofit

d)

Epiphytic plants // tumbuhan epifit

33.

A character not met in bryophytes is

a)

Archegonia

b)

Motile sperms

c)

Oogamy

d)

Independent sporophyte

34.

Spore mother cells in Bryophytes are

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

c)

Triploid

d)

Aneuploid

35.

Bryophytes are

a)

First evolved vascular land plants

b)

First evolved land plants

c)

First evolved aquatic plants

d)

First evolved epiphytic plants

36.

Spores of bryophytes are

a)

Non-cutinsed and motile

b)

Non-cutinsed and non-motile

c)

Cutinised and non-motile

d)

Cutinised and motile

37.

Embryogeny in bryophytes is

a)

Endoscopic

b)

Exoscopic

c)

Endo-exoscopic

d)

All of them

38.

Storage of food is facilitated by

a)

Cholenchymatous cell

b)

Parenchymatous cell

c)

Sclerenchymatous cell

d)

All of them

39.

Polytrichum grows in

a)

Mesic condition

b)

Hydric condition

c)

Bog condition

d)

Xeric condition

40.

Which of the following is male gamete?

a)

Antheridium

b)

Oogonium

c)

Gynoecium

d)

Antherozoids

41.

Which of the following part of sporophyte contains spores?

a)

Foot

b)

Capsule

c)

Seta

d)

Protonema

42.

Which of the following part is not present in archegonium?

a)

Egg cells

b)

Androcytes

c)

Venter

d)

Neck canal cells

43.

Thallus shows

a)

Dichotomy

b)

Monopodial branching

c)

Sympodial branching

d)

No branching at all

44.

Bryophytes shows

a)

Heteromorphic type of alternation of generation

b)

Synmorphic type of alternation of generation

c)

Monomorphic type of alternation of generation

d)

Polymorphic type of alternation of generation

45.

Development type of sporophytes is

a)

Ex-situ type

b)

In-situ type

c)

Both

d)

None of the above

46.

What does the sepal do?

a)

It is the protective covering of the flower bud.

b)

It is the colored portion that attracts bees.

c)

It produces pollen.

d)

It produces the pistil.

47.

Flower parts in dicots are in multiples of?

a)

4 or 5

b)

7

c)

3

d)

2

48.
What type of leaves would you expect this flower to have?
a)
Branching (net-like) veins
b)
Parallel veins
c)
Scattered veins
d)
None of these.
49.

---------- tissue is responsible for producing pollen grains in microsporangia.

a)

Endothecium

b)

Tapetum

c)

Epidermis

d)

Sporogenous tissue

50.

Inner wall layer of pollen grain , intine consists of --------

a)

pectin

b)

cellulose and pectin

c)

Sporopollenin

d)

cellulose

51.

Non-vascular plants belongs to which group?

a)

pteridophytes

b)

bryophytes

c)

gymnosperms

d)

angiosperms

52.

Which of these species belongs to bryophytes?

a)

Polytrichum sp.

b)

Dryopteris sp.

c)

Pinus sp.

d)

Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

53.

Which of the following is the unique characteristics for Kingdom Plantae

a)

cell wall consist of peptidoplycan

b)

carbohydrate storage is glycogen

c)

has alternation of generation

d)

motile

54.

Mosses and liverworts are called non-vascular plant because

a)

they lack motile sperm

b)

they lack seed

c)

they lack vascular tissue

d)

they lack true roots, stems and leaves

55.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pteridophytes?

a)

Sporophyte generation is dominant

b)

Gametophyte generation is dominant

c)

Produce spores

d)

Has true roots, stems and leaves

56.

Why Hibiscus sp. are considered more advanced compared to Pinus sp.?

a)

Xylem consists of vessel and tracheid

b)

Reproduction by producing seeds

c)

Phloem consists of sieve tube

d)

Has true roots, stem and leaves

57.

Most conifers have separate male and female reproductive parts on the same tree. This condition is referred to as

a)

monoecious

b)

dioecious

c)

homosporous

d)

heterosporous

58.

In a fern life cycle, the ____________ is the dominant generation.

a)

haploid gametophyte

b)

haploid sporophyte

c)

diploid gametophyte

d)

diploid sporophyte

59.

The common name for the organism in bryophytes is

a)

mosses

b)

flowering plants

c)

ferns

d)

pines

60.

All statements below is true about gymnosperms EXCEPT

a)

heterosporous

b)

seed does not enclosed within ovary

c)

non-vascular plants

d)

less dependent on water for fertilization

61.
Which two groups of plants depend on water for reproduction?
a)
Bryophytes and Angiosperms
b)
Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms
c)
Bryophytes and Pteridophytes
d)
Angiosperms and Gymnosperms
62.
Which group of plants were the first to have vascular tissue?
a)
Bryophytes
b)
Pteridophytes
c)
Gymnosperms
d)
Angiosperms
63.
Which domain is capable of living in extreme environments like hot springs, geysers, or very salty waters?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Archaea
c)
Eukarya
64.

Who was the first scientist to develop a classification system for living organisms?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Carolus Linnaeus

c)

Robert Hooke

d)

Charles Darwin

65.
Cladograms are constructed by grouping organisms together based on their____________ characteristics.
a)
shared
b)
different
c)
similar
d)
opposite
66.
Who first proposed binomial nomenclature as a way of classifying organisms?
a)
Carolus Linnaeus
b)
Carl's Jr.
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Henry Groseclose
67.

International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN) has been changed to

a)

International Code of Nomenclature for Algae and Plants

b)

International Code of Nomenclature for Fungi and Plants

c)

International Code of Nomenclature for Animal, Fungi and Plants

d)

International Code of Nomenclature for Algae, Fungi and Plants

68.

The International Code of Nomenclature for Algae, Fungi and Plants was published on

a)

20th June 2020

b)

21st June 2019

c)

26th June 2018

d)

9th October 2006

69.

Generic name is a ____ noun. It should come _____ and begin with _____ letter

a)

Complex; Second; Capital

b)

Simple; First; Capital

c)

Simple; Second; Capital

d)

Simple; Second; Small

70.

Specific name is the _______ adjective which should come later and begin with _____ letter

a)

Specific; Bold

b)

Descriptive; Latin

c)

Descriptive; Small

d)

Descriptive; Capital

71.

Scientific names must be __________ separately if hand written and must be printed in _____

a)

Underlined; Italics

b)

Highlighted; Greek

c)

Underlined; Latin

d)

Highlighted; Indian

72.

The generic and specific name should not have less than ____ letters and more than ______ letters

a)

Three; Fourteen

b)

Four; Thirteen

c)

Three; Thirteen

d)

Four; Three

73.

Usually the name of the author who names a plant or animal is also written in ____ or __________ form after scientific name

a)

Italics; Latin

b)

Full; Abbreviated

c)

Greek; Latin

d)

Short; Abbreviated

74.

A taxonomic category above the kingdom level. The three domains are Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.

a)

Scientific Name

b)

Archaea

c)

Domain

d)

Clade

75.

Classifying organisms by their molecular structures is?

a)

Linnaean Classification

b)

Phylogenetic Systematics

c)

Molecular Classification

d)

Molecular Sorting

76.

Cladistic classification traces the ___________________ of organisms.

a)

evolutionary descent

b)

physical similarities

c)

naming conventions

d)

regions of origin

77.

This group includes every descendant of an organism and excludes everything not a descendant of that organism.

a)

Clade

b)

Class

c)

Kingdom

d)

species

78.

The branch points of a cladogram represent _____ species evolving into ____

a)

1,5

b)

3,2

c)

1,2

d)

2,1

79.

A chart of evolutionary relationships is a...

a)

defining characteristic

b)

classification taxa

c)

evolutionary tracer

d)

cladogram

80.

A trait evolved by the last common ancestor of a particular lineage

a)

DNA analysis

b)

derived characteristics

c)

last common characteristic

d)

shared characteristics

81.

The lowest point at which lines from two organisms on a cladogram meet is their ______________.

a)

derived characteristic

b)

phylogenetic systematic

c)

evolutionary touchpoint

d)

common ancestor

82.

The ________________ contains birds but the _____________ does not.

a)

class Reptilia, clade Reptilia

b)

clade Aves, class Aves

c)

clade Reptilia, class Reptilia

d)

clade Mammals, class Mammilia

83.

Gemma cup is found in

a)

Marchantia

b)

Salvinia

c)

Selaginella

d)

Funaria

84.

Holdfast, Stipe and frond are usually found in members of

a)

Chlorophyceae

b)

Phaeophyceae

c)

Rhodophyceae

d)

All algae

85.

Which of the following is a Red alga?

a)

Chara

b)

Laminaria

c)

Fucus

d)

Polysiphonia

86.

Sphagnum is used as a packaging material to transport living plants because (most appropriate)

a)

It is bushy

b)

It lasts long

c)

it is easily available

d)

it retains huge amount of water

87.

Find the incorrect match from the following pairs i) Psilopsida - Psilotum, ii) Lycopsida - Lycopodium iii) Sphenopsida - Selaginella iv) Pteropsida - Pteris

a)

i)

b)

ii)

c)

iii)

d)

iv)

88.

Which of the following is not a gymnosperm?

a)

Cycas

b)

Gingko

c)

Pinus

d)

Equisetum

89.

Study the paired combinations on Classification and find out the incorrect pair: i) Artificial system - based on few characteristics ii) Natural system - natural affinities among organisms iii) Phylogenetic - using computers comparing lot of characteristics iv) Cytotaxonomy- chromosome number, structure etc.

a)

i)

b)

ii)

c)

iii)

d)

iv)

90.

Which of the following pairs is a true aquatic fern?

a)

Azolla, Salvinia

b)

Azolla, Selaginella

c)

Azolla, Lycopodium

d)

Salvinia, Equisetum

91.

A type of plant will grow tendrils and wind round a support. Name this type of reaction.

a)

Tropism.

b)

Nastic response.

c)

Reflex action.

d)

Taxis response.

92.

What is the role of auxin that causes a plant to bend towards light?

a)

The concentration of auxin in the plant increases when there is light.

b)

Auxin causes uniform growth on every stem.

c)

Auxin causes cells that are on the dark side to grow faster.

d)

Auxin causes the increase in the number of plant cells.

93.

The movement of Euglena sp and Volvox sp. towards moderate light itensity is a type of reaction to an external stimulus. What is the reaction?

a)

Photonasty.

b)

Phototaxis.

c)

Thermonasty.

d)

Phototropism.

94.
which tissue provide support and mechanical strength to the plant?
a)
parenchyma tissue
b)
sclerenchyma tissue
c)
xylem tissue
d)
collenchyma tisssue
95.
which of this tissues support the young plants and woody plants?
a)
collenchyma tissue
b)
parenchyma tissue
c)
sclerenchyma tissue
d)
xylem tissue
96.

Which of the following tissues whose role is to protect and cover the plant?

a)

Dermal tissue

b)

Epidurial tissue

c)

Ground tissue

d)

Vascular tissue

97.

Which of the following is an example of sclerenchyma tissue that are shorter than fiber and primary component in seed coat, coconut shells, and gave gritty texture on ripe pears?

a)

lignin

b)

Pectin

c)

Fiber

d)

Sclereid

98.

The use of what modern technology has cause the rise in resistant bacteria

a)

vaccines

b)

antibiotics

c)

fertilizers

d)

solar panels

99.

Which of these is characteristic of both viruses and bacteria?

a)

They get their energy from their environment.

b)

They can reproduce on their own.

c)

They can form crystals and become dormant.

d)

They contain proteins and nucleic acids.

100.

Which of the following is a viral infection?

a)

cholera

b)

influenza

c)

strep throat

d)

tuberculosis

101.
When a new viral infection appears in a population, scientists usually try to develop a vaccine against the virus. Which substances would most likely be contained in the new vaccine?
a)
live bacteria that ingest viruses
b)
white blood cells from an infected individual
c)
weakened viruses associated with the infection
d)
a variety of microbes that will attack the virus
102.
Which type of bacteria performs the first step in recycling nitrogen compounds from the bodies of plants and animals?
a)
nitrogen-fixing bacteria
b)
bacteria of decay
c)
nitrifying bacteria
d)
denitrifying bacteria
103.
A piece of refrigerated, cooked meat will remain safe to eat for a longer period of time than a refrigerated piece of raw meat of similar size. Which statement is a valid inference based on this information?
a)
Cooking meat kills many bacteria and fungi.
b)
Cool temperatures stimulate the growth of microbes on raw meat.
c)
Raw meat cannot be preserved.
d)
Cooked meat contains antibodies that destroy decomposers.
104.
When penicillin was first introduced, it was very effective in destroying most of the bacteria that cause gonorrhea. Today, certain varieties of this bacterium are resistant to penicillin. Which statement best explains the appearance of these resistant varieties?
a)
Penicillin stimulated the bacteria to become resistant, and this resistance was passed to the offspring.
b)
Penicillin killed the susceptible bacteria, while naturally resistant varieties survived and reproduced.
c)
Penicillin used today is not as strong as the penicillin used when it was first introduced.
d)
Penicillin stimulated the production of antigens in the resistant bacteria.
105.
Enzymes are used in moving sections of DNA that code for insulin from the pancreas cells of humans into a certain type of bacterial cell. What will this bacterial cell's offspring be able to produce?
a)
human insulin
b)
antibodies against insulin
c)
enzymes that digest insulin
d)
a new type of insulin
106.
Species of bacteria can evolve more quickly than species of mammals because bacteria have
a)
less competition
b)
more chromosomes
c)
lower mutation rates
d)
higher rates of reproduction
107.

AIDS, influenza, and Ebola are examples of diseases caused by microbes called–

a)

viruses

b)

parasites

c)

bacteria

d)

fungi

108.

Bacteria have short, fine, hairlike appendages called ______

a)

plasmids

b)

flagella

c)

spirillia

d)

fimbriae

109.
The first living organism probably belonged to which kingdom?
a)
Archaebacteria
b)
Fungus
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
110.
Archaebacteria live in
a)
bathroom sinks
b)
radioactive water
c)
mud puddles
d)
yogurt.
111.
Where are Eubacteria found?
a)
in extremely hot environments
b)
in hypersalines lakes
c)
deep in the swamp muds
d)
almost anywhere
112.

During which process do two bacterial cells join together to transfer genetic material?

a)

transduction

b)

conjugation

c)

binary fission

d)

asexual reproduction

113.

Which of the following occurs when a virus infects a bacterium and leaves behind new genes from a different bacterium?

a)

transduction

b)

conjugation

c)

transformation

d)

binary fission

114.

Which of the following about viruses is incorrect?

a)

they are not grouped with any living organism

b)

they are inactive outside a living organism

c)

they are made of tiny cells

d)

they can reproduce, but not without a host cell.

115.

Which of the following structures is NOT used by protists for movement?

a)

oral groove

b)

flagella

c)

clila

d)

pseudopodia

116.

Which of the following statements about viruses is incorrect?

a)

a virus infects a host cell and causes the cell to burst

b)

a virus takes over the host cell's biological processes and produces viral DNA and proteins.

c)

a virus may insert its DNA into the host cell's chromosome

d)

a virus combines with the host cell to form an endospore

117.

Which of the following describes a type of bacteria that obtains its carbon from carbon dioxide rather than organic molecules?

a)

photoautotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

chemoheterotrophs

d)

photoheterotrophs

118.
Which is NOT a part of the cell theory?
a)
Cells are the smallest structural and functional unit
b)
Every organism is made up of cells
c)
Cells come from other cells
d)
Cells are made of atoms
119.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both
a)
store genetic information
b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticula
120.

apple, pear, peach , almond belongs to family

a)

Solanaceae

b)

Fabeaceae

c)

Rosaceae

d)

Mimosaceae

121.

it is floral diagram

a)

Solanaceae

b)

Fabeaceae

c)

Rosaceae

d)

Ceasalpinaceae

122.

zygomorphic flowers are present in this family

a)

Rosaceae

b)

Solanaceae

c)

Fabeacaea

d)

Leguminaceae

123.

Potato are a member of the

a)

Solanaceae Family

b)

Leguminosae Family

c)

Cruciferae Family

d)

Cucurbitaceae Family

124.
Female reproductive part of flower
a)
pistil
b)
stamen
c)
petals
d)
sepals
125.

Another name of family Mimosaceae is....

a)

Casia Family

b)

Acacia Family

c)

Pea Family

d)

Rose Family

126.

wheat, oat, rice and sugar cane belongs to family

a)

Rosaceae

b)

Solanaceae

c)

Fabeaceae

d)

Poaceae

127.
They enclose the egg cells inside the ovaries.
a)
ovules
b)
anther
c)
seeds
d)
stamen
128.
Why are most enzymes destroyed by high temperature? 
a)
Changes their shape 
b)
Changes their pH 
c)
Changes their amino acid sequence 
d)
Causes them to break into pieces 
129.
What cell function would be affected if the Golgi apparatus is damaged? 
a)
Exporting Proteins
b)
Storage of water and waste
c)
Production of Energy 
d)
Cell divison
130.
What would happen to a saltwater protozoan if it is removed from its normal habitat and placed into a freshwater pool?
a)
Loss of water through active transport
b)
Loss of water through diffusion 
c)
Gain of water through protein channels 
d)
Gain of water through osmosis
131.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
132.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
133.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
134.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

Yy

b)

yY

c)

yy

d)

YY

135.
 One dog carries homozygous, long-haired traits (SS), and its mate carries homozygous short-haired traits (ss). Use a Punnett square to determine the probability of one of their offspring having long hair.
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
136.

Which of the following could be used as a vector for a human gene?

a)

Bacterial Plasmid

b)

Bacteria

c)

A mitochondria

d)

mRNA

137.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
138.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
139.
Which is used to cut DNA molecules at specific points?
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
PCR analysis
c)
a restriction enzyme
d)
recombinant DNA
140.
The "Father of Genetics"
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Robert Hooke
141.
Another term for homozygous is
a)
Hybrid 
b)
Purebred
c)
Recessive
d)
Dominant
142.
The law that states that when an organism is hybrid for a pair of contrasting traits, the dominant trait is the one that is shown. 
a)
Law of Dominance
b)
Law of Independent Assortment
c)
Law of of Segregation
d)
Law of Incomplete Dominance
143.
What shows the possible combinations of alleles that can result from a genetic cross?
a)
bar graph
b)
pie chart
c)
punnett square
d)
co-dominant graph
144.
Unattached earlobes (E) is dominant. Attached earlobes (e) is recessive. A woman with the genotype (Ee) and a man with the genotype (ee) have a child. What is the probability that the child is heterozygous?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
145.
Tomato plants usually have hairy stems. Hairless stems are present in tomato plants that are homozygous recessive for this trait. If the stem characteristics are determined by a single gene, what is the expected outcome of crossing two tomato plants that are heterozygous for hairy stems?
a)
100% hairless stems
b)
100% hairy stems
c)
50% hairy stems : 50% hairless stems
d)
75% hairy stems : 25% hairless stems
146.
In cocker spaniels the allele for a black coat color (B) is dominant over the allele for a brown coat color (b). If a brown cocker spaniel is crossed with a heterozygous black cocker spaniel, which of the following genotypic ratios can be expected?
a)
0BB : 2Bb : 2bb
b)
1BB : 2Bb : 1bb
c)
2BB : 0Bb : 2bb
d)
2BB : 1Bb : 0bb
147.
In snapdragons, Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfness (t). In a cross between two plants that are homozygous for the recessive allele, the percent of offspring expected to exhibit tallness is
a)
 25%
b)
 75%
c)
100%
d)
0%
148.
In Mendel's pea plants, the homozygous recessive phenotype was white flowers.  If Mendel crossed two homozygous recessive pea plants, what color flowers would be seen in the offspring?
a)
white and purple
b)
white 
c)
purple
d)
lavendar
149.

Darwin's Finches became separate species due to

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Temporal Isolation

c)

Behavioral Isolation

d)

Postzygotic Isolation

150.

The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...

a)

speciation

b)

biological species concept

c)

reproductive barrier

d)

natural selection

151.
What is founder effect?
a)
Any change in the allelic frequencies in a population that is due to chance
b)
›A small sample of a population settles in a location separated from the rest of the population
c)
  The process in which humans select for or against particular features in organisms
d)
›Members of one sex choose mates with particular features
152.
What is genetic drift?
a)
The movement of genes in/out of a population
b)
A small, random change in the DNA
c)
Any change in the allelic frequencies in a population that is due to chance
d)
›The process in which humans select for or against particular features in organisms
153.
When has speciation occurred?
a)
When populations no longer look the same
b)
When populations no longer have the same frequency of alleles
c)
When populations are living in different environments
d)
When populations can no longer interbreed
154.
Which is a mechanism for change in allele frequency?
a)
gene flow
b)
genetic drift
c)
natural selection
d)
all answers are correct
155.
Which of the following is NOT a condition for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
a)
No mutations
b)
Random Mating
c)
No natural selection
d)
No offspring
156.
A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The gene of interest has two alleles, with 16% of the population portraying the recessive phenotype. Which percentage of the population is heterozygous?
a)
48%
b)
36%
c)
16%
d)
24%
157.

All organisms begin as a single cell. After dividing many times, differentiation occurs. During the process of differentiation, (1.1.3)

a)

some genes are turned on, others are turned off

b)

genes are removed from some cells

c)

DNA is modified to contain different genes

158.

A pair of identical twins were separated at birth and raised by different parents. Both were found to have the gene for type II diabetes, but only one developed the disease. What could explain this? (3.2.3)

a)

mutation and genetic recombination

b)

independent assortment

c)

environmental influence

d)

segregation of alleles

159.

Human males are much more likely to have hemophilia than human females. This is the case because: (3.2.2)

a)

the gene for hemophilia is carried on the Y chromosome

b)

hemophilia is carried on autosomes

c)

the gene for hemophilia is sex-linked

d)

hemophilia is a contagious disease to which males are more susceptible

160.

Chromosomal disorder where a male has an extra X chromosome(3.2.2)

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Turners

c)

Jacobs

d)

Klinefelter's

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