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10SSC Revision Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The central region of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is its 
a)
nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
core 
d)
center 
2.
An atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons 
a)
6
b)
12
c)
3
d)
cannot be determined 
3.
True or False? Neutrons have a negative charge
a)
True
b)
False
4.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
electrons 
b)
positrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
5.
electrons have this type of charge?
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
6.
Most of the mass in an atom is concentrated in the...
a)
electrons
b)
nucleus
c)
protons
d)
empty space
7.
What does the nucleus consist of?
a)
Protons + Electrons
b)
Neutrons + Electrons
c)
Atoms
d)
Protons + Neutrons
8.
A part of the atom that has a negative charge is?
a)
Proton
b)
electron
c)
neutron
9.
The part of the atom that is moving around the nucleus is called?
a)
electron
b)
neutron
c)
proton
10.

Valence electrons are the

a)

outer most electrons in an atom

b)

total electrons in an atom

11.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
12.
How do positive ions form?
a)
by gaining electrons
b)
getting compliments
c)
by losing electrons
d)
gaining more protons
13.

What is the atomic number of this element?

a)

17

b)

18

c)

35

d)

35.453

14.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
None of these
15.
How many Hydrogen are in 4H2O?
a)
6
b)
8
c)
2
d)
4
16.
Is the following equation balanced?...
Al + O2 --> 2Al2O3
a)
Yes!
b)
No!
17.
Which problem is balanced?
a)
PbO2 + 2H2
b)
SO2 + H20 --> H2SO4
c)
2Na + 2H2O --> 2NaOH + H2
18.

What part is Label A of the Atom?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Electron Orbit

e)

Neutron

19.

What part is Label B of the Atom?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Electron Orbit

e)

Neutron

20.

What part is Label C of the Atom?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Electron Orbit

e)

Neutron

21.

What part is Label D of the Atom?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Electron Orbit

e)

Neutron

22.

What do you call Label F of the Element Block?

a)

Element Name

b)

Chemical Name

c)

Chemical Symbol

d)

Atomic Mass

23.

What do you call Label G of the Element Block?

a)

Atomic Number

b)

Atomic Mass

c)

Mass Number

d)

Protons

24.

What do you call Label H of the Element Block?

a)

Atomic Name

b)

Chemical Symbol

c)

Element Symbol

d)

Chemical Abbreviation

25.

What do you call Label I of the Element Block?

a)

Atomic Number

b)

Atomic Mass

c)

Mass Number

d)

Protons

26.

An atom that is no longer neutral because it has gain or lost electrons is called ______________.

a)

Ion

b)

Isotope

27.

What is a cation's charge?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

depends on the element

28.

What is an anion's charge?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

d)

depends on the element's charge

29.

A sour taste is a characteristic of:

a)

acids

b)

bases

c)

neutral

d)

pH scale

30.

Which is a characteristic of a base?

a)

tastes sour

b)

found mostly in foods

c)

feels slippery

d)

turn litmus paper red

31.

pH is the measure of the concentration of ______.

a)

Acids

b)

H+ ion

c)

OH- ion

d)

Bases

32.

A substance that is 3 on the pH scale would be a(n):

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

neutral

d)

solute

33.
Which one of the following is an example of a base?
a)
orange juice
b)
dish soap
c)
vinegar
d)
lemons
34.
Bases are located where on the pH scale?
a)
any number can be a base
b)
below 7
c)
above 7
d)
number 7 is a base
35.
A substance that is a 10 on the pH scale would be a(n) ____.
a)
acid
b)
neutral
c)
base
d)
indicator
36.
Which of the following is neutral?
a)
milk
b)
eggs
c)
gummy worms
d)
pure water
37.
What happens to the temperature if more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere?
a)
Temperature goes up
b)
Temperature goes down
38.
What is the greenhouse effect?
a)
The warming of a planet due to trapped radiation.
b)
The cooling of Earth due to air pollution.
c)
The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
39.
This is an image demonstrating...
a)
Tornado Formation
b)
The Greenhouse Effect
c)
Hurricane Formation
40.
The gas that is most abundant in the atmosphere is
a)
oxygen
b)
nitrogen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
argon
41.
The gas that is the second most abundant in the atmosphere is
a)
oxygen
b)
nitrogen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
argon
42.
What can we do to slow down enhanced greenhouse effect
a)
        Take private cars
b)
     Take public transport
c)
            Deforestation
d)
          Just do nothing
43.
Which of the following sets of evidence supports global warming?
a)
CO2 levels rising
b)
Sea Levels rising
c)
Glacier mass decreasing
d)
All of the Above
44.
Increased carbon dioxide may cause global warming by
a)
allowing more sunlight into the atmosphere.
b)
reflecting more sunlight from clouds.
c)
reducing the amount of oxygen in the air.   
d)
trapping more heat in the atmosphere.
45.

how many atoms make up a molecule of carbon dioxide ( CO2)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

46.

Forests are carbon sinks because they remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through ____________.

a)

combustion

b)

respiration

c)

photosynthesis

d)

decomposition

47.

The total set of carbon emissions caused by an individual.

a)

carbon cycle

b)

carbon handprint

c)

carbon footprint

d)

carbon summary

48.
When we discuss greenhouse gases what is the main one we discuss?
a)
Methane (CH4)
b)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
c)
Nitrous oxide (N2O)
d)
Flourinated gases
49.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is...
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
50.
Which of the following is not a type of fossil fuel? 
a)
Coal
b)
Light
c)
Petroleum
d)
Natural Gas
51.
What are fossil fuels?
a)
Dinosaur bones
b)
Resources made from once living organisms 
c)
Combination of different rocks
d)
Gas Stations
52.
Why do we depend on fossil fuels? 
a)
Electricity, transportation, and heating
b)
Food
c)
Sunlight
d)
Growing, building muscle, calcium
53.
Why is burning fossil fuels harmful? 
a)
then we won't have any fossil fuels if we burn them all
b)
They can get extremely hot
c)
Increases the amount of greenhouse gases in the air
d)
this would destroy fossils
54.
Which greenhouse gas is produced most by the automobile industry? 
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Sulfur
c)
Methane
d)
Carbon Dioxide
55.

____________________ is energy that can be replaced as quickly as it is used.

a)

nonrenewable

b)

renewable

c)

nuclear

d)

kinetic

56.

_____________________ energy comes from underground pockets of hot water.

a)

hydroelectric

b)

nuclear

c)

solar

d)

geothermal

57.

____________________ energy is created by transforming radiant energy from the sun.

a)

geothermal

b)

biomass

c)

solar

d)

nuclear

58.

_________________________ is created when the kinetic energy from falling water is converted into electricity.

a)

geothermal energy

b)

biomass energy

c)

wind energy

d)

hydroelectricity

59.

Which one of these is NOT a type of renewable energy?

a)

solar

b)

wind

c)

biomass

d)

nuclear

60.
Generators are devices that convert _____ energy into _____ energy.
a)
chemical; mechanical
b)
mechanical; electrical
c)
electrical; mechanical
d)
potential; kinetic
61.
What happens to the strength of an electromagnet as you add more coils around it?
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
d)
Stops completely
62.

What energy transformation takes place in an electric fan's motor?

a)

electrical energy into mechanical energy

b)

mechanical energy into electrical energy

c)

alternating current to direct current

d)

direct current to alternating current

63.
the process of making a copy of DNA
a)
transcription
b)
double helix
c)
DNA replication
d)
replication fork
64.
nitrogen base that pairs with guanine
a)
adenine
b)
cytosine
c)
nucloetide
d)
deoxyribose
65.
the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA
a)
adenine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
nucleotide
66.
The shape of DNA.
a)
double helix
b)
nucleotide
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
single stranded
67.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
68.
A nucleotide is made up of three parts:  which of these is not one of those parts?
a)
sugar
b)
phosphate
c)
amino acids
d)
base
69.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
70.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
71.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
72.

How many chromosomes do human cells have?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

44

73.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the Middle

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

74.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

75.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

76.
Cells spend 90% of their time in this stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason you would see most cells in this stage if viewed under a microscope.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Interphase
77.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
78.

At the end of Mitosis, how many cells are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

79.
The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
characteristics
d)
intelligence
80.
How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
it varies
81.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's genotype?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
bB
82.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Jj
b)
Rr
c)
MM
d)
ee
83.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
rr
b)
AA
c)
TT
d)
Ff
84.
Which of the following is heterozygous
a)
FF
b)
tt
c)
Gg
d)
RR
85.
Alternative forms of a gene are called
a)
Alleles
b)
Homozygous
c)
DNA
d)
Genetics
86.
The allele combinations
a)
genetics
b)
mitosis
c)
genotype
d)
phenotype
87.
This trait will always be expressed if present because it will mask the expression of others
a)
stem cells
b)
heterozygous
c)
dominant
d)
recessive
88.
Hair colour is an example of
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
89.
Having the genes for baldness is an example of
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
90.
Homozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
91.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
92.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
93.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
94.

A chart that displays family relationships indicating traits or disorders

a)

Punnett square

b)

Pedigree

c)

Karyotype chart

95.

In a pedigree chart, men are represented by

a)

Circles

b)

Diamonds

c)

Squares

96.

In a pedigree chart, women are represented by

a)

Circles

b)

Diamonds

c)

Squares

97.

In a pedigree, individuals that are unaffected are represented as shapes that are

a)

Not shaded

b)

Fully shaded

c)

Half shaded

98.

In a pedigree, individuals that are affected are represented as shapes that are

a)

Not shaded

b)

Fully shaded

c)

Half shaded

99.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
100.
Which gender can be carriers of colorblindness and not have it?
a)
Just males
b)
Just females
c)
Both genders

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