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Biology Final Review

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive in its environment?
a)
adaptation
b)
variation
c)
homologous structure
d)
vestigial structure
2.
Vertebrate embryos pass through similar stages of development is evidence for
a)
use and disuse
b)
homologous structures
c)
common ancestry
d)
acquired characteristics
3.
Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce
a)
better traits
b)
stronger genes
c)
more offspring
d)
fewer mutations
4.
The fossil record provides evidence that 
a)
Fossils cannot be dated.
b)
All species were formed during Earth’s formation and have changed little since then.
c)
The fossilized species have no connection to today’s species.
d)
Older species gave rise to more-recent species.
5.
Individuals that are better able to cope with the challenges of their environment tend to  
a)
Decrease in population over time.
b)
Leave more offspring than those less suited to the environment.
c)
Leave fewer offspring than those less suited to the environment.
6.
Structures that share a common ancestry or are similar because they are modified versions of structures from a common ancestor that contain the same basic bone structure are
a)
Not related.
b)
Not homologous. 
c)
Homologous.
d)
Young in origin.
7.
The process in which organisms with traits well suited to an environment are more likely to survive and to produce offspring is
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Origin of Species
c)
Genetic Principles
d)
Trait Mechanism
8.
The formation of new species is a process known as ____________________, which is typically the product of divergence. 
a)
gradualism
b)
speciation
c)
reproductive isolation
d)
subspecies
9.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
10.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
11.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
12.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
13.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

14.

Orcas occur in the same habitat but some are avoiding each other and do not interbreed. They have different diets, vocal behavior, and social structures. What type of speciation is this?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Complex

d)

Covergent

15.

The Western Skunk mates in the fall and the Eastern Skunk mates in the spring. This is a type of

a)

prezygotic barrier

b)

postzygotic barrier

c)

allopatric barrier

d)

polyploidy

16.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic drift

17.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

geographic selection

d)

disruptive selection

18.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

adaptive radiation

d)

disruptive selection

19.
Natural selection states that organisms are best suited for their environment if they ____________ and ____________.
a)
Survive and Reproduce
b)
Survive and Predate
c)
Survive and Parasitize
d)
Survive and Adapt
20.

A change in allele frequency following a dramatic reduction in the size of a population (like a catastrophe)

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

founder effect

c)

temporal isolation

d)

speciation

21.

Change in allele frequencies as a result of the migration of a small subgroup of a population

a)

speciation

b)

founder effect

c)

bottleneck effect

22.
DNA has a _____________ structure. 
a)
double helix
b)
single strand
c)
ring 
d)
chain
23.
In DNA, Adenine pairs with ___________. 
a)
Guanine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
24.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
25.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
26.

DNA holds the code for making

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

27.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would be match up with to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

ACGACTG

c)

CAUCAGU

d)

CATCAGT

28.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
29.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA

a)

Met-Pro-Ala-Val

b)

Met-Pro-Val

c)

Tyr-Gly-His

d)

Tyr-Gly-Arg-His

30.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
31.
What part of protein synthesis does this diagram represent?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA
32.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
33.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

34.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

35.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

36.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
37.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
38.
which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
39.
Which of the following best describes how DNA and RNA are similar?
a)
they both contain A and T
b)
They both have a double helix
c)
They are both composed of 5 different nucleotides
d)
they both have C and G
40.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
41.
Which process?
a)
mutation
b)
transcription
c)
respiration
d)
translation
42.

This type of inheritance pattern is a Blend of both traits.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

recessive pattern

43.

This is an example of ___________?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Co-Dominance

c)

Sex-linked inheritance

d)

Autosomal recessive inheritance

44.

If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken, black-white checkered chickens are produced. What kind of inheritance pattern does this follow?

a)

incomplete Dominance

b)

Co-Dominance

c)

Sex-linked Inheritance

d)

Multiple alleles

45.

What is the phenotype of a person with the genotype AO?

a)

type A

b)

type O

c)

AA

d)

OO

46.
If a trait is controlled by one gene, but there are 4 possible alleles, the inheritance pattern is called...
a)
dominance
b)
sex-linked
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic
47.
The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
polygenic inheritance
48.
AB blood type is an example of what type of inheritance?
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
codominance
d)
polygenic inheritance
49.

A White Rose crossed with a Red Rose produces a Pink Rose. Which pattern of inheritance does this follow?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Sex-Linked Traits

50.

Which cross can produce a child with Type O blood?

a)

IA IB × IA IB

b)

IA i × IB i

c)

IA IB × i i

51.

What is the Phenotypic Ratio?

a)

100% Type A

b)

100% Type AB

c)

100% Type O

d)

100% Type B

52.

Color Blindness is recessive.

Which statement below is true?

a)

The mother is color-blind.

b)

The father is a carrier.

c)

The mother is a carrier.

d)

The father is color-blind.

53.

(Color-blindness is recessive)

There is a 25% chance that:

a)

Daughter will be color-blind.

b)

Daughter will be a carrier.

c)

A child will have normal vision.

d)

Daughter will have the Y chromosome.

54.

Color-blindness is recessive.

What is the chance of having a child who is color-blind?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

55.
Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked disease or disorder because
a)
males are the weaker sex
b)
males have less DNA
c)
males have 1 X chromosome, so the disorder is more likely to be expressed
56.
When we say that a woman is a carrier for a genetic disease or disorder it means that
a)
she has 1 gene, but not the disorder
b)
she has 2 genes for the disorder
c)
she can pass the gene only to male children
d)
she can pass the gene only to female children
57.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
58.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHY
d)
XhY
59.
What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?
a)
BB
b)
AB
c)
BO
60.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
61.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a recessive x-linked disorder.
According to the Punnett square, what percentage of male offspring will have the disorder?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
62.

A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance. What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

63.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
64.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXB
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
65.

If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?

a)

sex-linked trait

b)

polygenic trait

c)

codominant trait

d)

incomplete dominance trait

66.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
67.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
68.
What do helpful mutations do? 
a)
Increases chances of survival 
b)
Decreases changes of survival 
c)
Increases chances of developing cancer
d)
Decreases skills
69.
What is the definition of DNA mutation? 
a)
The original DNA strand
b)
The strand with four pairs 
c)
A change in the DNA strand
d)
The strand in a double helix 
70.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
71.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
72.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
73.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
74.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
75.
A frameshift mutation can occur with either _________ or __________ mutations.
a)
Addition, division
b)
Deletion, substitution
c)
Addition, substitution
d)
Addition, deletion
76.

Which type of mutation is MOST LIKELY to cause the greatest disruption?

a)

Frameshift

b)

Silent

c)

Point

77.
Why is the order of amino acids so important?
a)
The order of amino acids dictates what shape the protein will fold into.
b)
It is not important. The protein folding chamber will force the protein to fold into the correct shape.
78.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
79.

A piece of a chromosome is lost

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

80.

A piece of a chromosome is copied and remains within the chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

81.

A piece of the chromosome detches, turns 180 degrees, and reattaches

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

82.

A piece of one chromosome detaches and reattaches to a different chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

83.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

84.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

85.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

86.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

87.

What would you call the failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally during meiosis?

a)

nondisjunction

b)

anaphase I

c)

nondiploidy

d)

karyotype

88.

What process is steps 1-3 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

89.

What is 11. pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

mRNA

d)

Nucleus

90.

What is 2. pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Ribosome

c)

mRNA

d)

Nucleus

91.

What process is step 12 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

92.

What does tRNA carry to the ribosome?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Codons

c)

Amino Acids

d)

None of the Above

93.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

94.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

95.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

96.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
97.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
98.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
99.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
100.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
101.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
102.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
103.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
104.
The enzyme that produces RNA in Transcription is called
a)
RNA Polymerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Transcriptase
d)
RNA Intrase
105.
21 nucleotides will provide how many codons?
a)
3 amino acids
b)
5 amino acids
c)
7 amino acids
d)
9 amino acids
106.

A feature regulated by a set of genes (allele) passed on

from parents to offspring. Also called inherited traits.

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Mendel

c)

Chromosome

d)

Traits

107.

Passing on traits from parents to offspring

a)

Chromosome

b)

Genotype

c)

Heredity

d)

Allele

108.

The study of heredity

a)

Genetics

b)

Genome

c)

Allele

d)

Punnett Square

109.

The instruction of one allele covers up the instruction

of the other allele in a homologous pair. Symbolized by a capital letter.

a)

Recessive Allele

b)

Dominant Allele

c)

Heredity

d)

Trait

110.

The instructions of this allele are covered up by the other allele in a homologous pair. Symbolized by a small letter.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Dominant

c)

Recessive

d)

Genetics

111.

The letter symbols for both homologous alleles.

BB Bb bb AA Aa aa

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Recessive

d)

Dominant

112.

A genotype where only dominant alleles were passed on

from both parents for one trait

BB AA TT LL

a)

Homozygous Recessive

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Dihybrid

d)

Heredity

113.

A genotype where only recessive alleles

were passed on from both parents for one trait

bb aa tt ll

a)

Heredity

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

d)

Phenotype

114.

A genotype where one dominant and one recessive allele was passed on from both parents for one trait.

Bb Aa Tt Ll

a)

Allele

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

d)

Heterozygous

115.

The observable traits dictated by the genotype

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Homozygous Recessive

d)

Homozygous Dominant

116.

During meiosis and gamete formation, homologous (paired up) alleles split up

a)

Phenotype

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Genotype

d)

Dihybrid Cross

117.

During meiosis, the homologous pairs of chromosomes and the matching alleles are lined up independently.

Offspring are a mix of maternal genes and paternal genes.

This increases genetic variation.

a)

Homozygous Dominant

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Crossing Over

d)

Independent Assortment

118.

The genetic cross between two parents for one trait:

Example BB x bb

B = dominant for brown

b = recessive for blue

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Dihybrid Cross

c)

Monohybrid Cross

d)

Iron Cross

119.

Referring to the original parents.

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

Homozygous

120.

First Filial (child) Generation: the offspring of P1

a)

P1

b)

F2

c)

F1

d)

Heterozygous

121.

Second Filial Generation: the offspring of F1

a)

P1

b)

F1

c)

F2

d)

Homozygous Recessive

122.

The ratio of homozygous dominant to heterozygous

to homozygous recessive offspring

a)

Genotypic Ratio

b)

Phenotypic Ratio

c)

Monohybrid Cross

d)

Homologous Pair

123.

The ratio of phenotypes in a Punnett Square

a)

Phenotypic Ratio

b)

Genotypic Ratio

c)

Dihybrid Cross

d)

Independent Assortment

124.

The chance that a genotype or phenotype

will actually occur in offspring

a)

Probability

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genotype

d)

Homozygous Recessive

125.

The Italian monk/scientist who first showed

the principles of genetics

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Linnaeus

c)

Darwin

d)

Mendel

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