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Unit 5 - Gene Expression Study Guide

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which process converts DNA into a complementary RNA sequence?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Duplication

2.

Which base correctly pairs with adenine during transcription?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

3.

If a DNA strand is TAC GGC TTA, the mRNA produced will be—

a)

ATG CCG AAT

b)

AUG GGC UUA

c)

UAC CCG AAU

d)

AUG CCG TTT

4.

Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

snRNA

5.

Which molecule acts as the “blueprint” for making proteins?

a)

Lipids

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

ATP

6.

Cell specialization is determined primarily by—

a)

which genes are expressed

b)

the number of genes present

c)

the size of the nucleus

d)

mitotic rate

7.

During translation, the codon AUG always codes for—

a)

Stop

b)

Proline

c)

Methionine

d)

Histidine

8.

Which statement best describes gene expression?

a)

Every cell expresses every gene.

b)

Only certain genes are activated in each cell type.

c)

Genes change sequence to match the cell.

d)

Proteins turn into DNA.

9.

Which environmental factor can influence gene expression in plants?

a)

Gravity

b)

Sunlight

c)

Wind speed

d)

Soil color

10.

What is the correct order of information flow in the central dogma of biology?

a)

Protein → RNA → DNA

b)

RNA → DNA → Protein

c)

DNA → RNA → Protein

d)

RNA → Protein → DNA

11.

Stem cells can form many cell types because they—

a)

lack DNA

b)

are undifferentiated

c)

contain fewer chromosomes

d)

use

12.

Which RNA base sequence complements DNA ATT CGA?

a)

UAA GCU

b)

TAA GCT

c)

AUA CGT

d)

UUA CGA

13.

What happens to mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?

a)

Its introns are removed.

b)

It binds amino acids.

c)

It becomes double-stranded.

d)

It dissolves ribosomes.

14.

Which process occurs at the ribosome?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Duplication

15.

Why do lens cells and muscle cells in the same organism look and function differently?

a)

They contain different genes.

b)

They express different genes.

c)

Their DNA sequences differ.

d)

One lacks a nucleus.

16.

Which molecule directly determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

ATP

17.

Which event marks the beginning of gene expression?

a)

Replication of DNA

b)

Binding of RNA polymerase

c)

Formation of ribosomes

d)

Translation termination

18.

An mRNA codon is UAC. Its complementary tRNA anticodon will be—

a)

AUG

b)

TAC

c)

GUA

d)

CAU

19.

Which statement about enzymes and gene expression is true?

a)

Enzymes are coded by specific genes.

b)

Enzymes copy genes into DNA.

c)

Genes form enzymes directly.

d)

All genes code for the same enzyme.

20.

What is the function of RNA polymerase?

a)

Join amino acids

b)

Unzip DNA and add RNA nucleotides

c)

Synthesize DNA

d)

Transport tRNA

21.

A student claims transcription errors never matter because they aren’t inherited. Which correction is accurate?

a)

They can still affect protein production in that cell.

b)

They are immediately repaired by ribosomes.

c)

They change the organism’s offspring.

d)

They cause chromosomal duplication.

22.

In a developing embryo, cell fate depends mainly on (a)   .

Choose from the below words

gene activation patterns

mutation rate

mitosis speed

protein digestion

23.

What happens after mRNA leaves the nucleus?

a)

It binds to ribosomes for translation.

b)

It is degraded immediately.

c)

It unzips DNA.

d)

It joins tRNA molecules.

24.

The sequence of three bases on mRNA that codes for one amino acid is a—

a)

gene

b)

anticodon

c)

codon

d)

chromatid

25.

Which best describes the purpose of gene regulation?

a)

To activate every gene

b)

To allow cells to respond to environmental changes

c)

To mutate DNA

d)

To stop protein synthesis

26.

A mutation that substitutes one base for another is called a—

a)

Frameshift mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Insertion mutation

d)

Deletion mutation

27.

Which mutation results in an entirely different amino-acid sequence after the change?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Nonsense

d)

Silent

28.

A mutation changing a codon to a stop codon is a—

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Frameshift

29.

Which type of chromosomal mutation reverses gene order on the same chromosome?

a)

Deletion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Duplication

30.

If a segment of DNA breaks off one chromosome and attaches to another non-homologous chromosome, it is—

a)

Duplication

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion

d)

Inversion

31.

Which statement best explains why most mutations are neutral?

a)

They occur in noncoding regions or result in the same amino acid.

b)

They always enhance protein function.

c)

They are quickly repaired by the cell.

d)

They lead to beneficial traits.

32.

After bacteria were exposed to UV light, some developed antibiotic resistance. What explains this change?

a)

They inherited traits from nearby bacteria

b)

They became resistant through adaptation only

c)

A beneficial mutation occurred and was selected for

d)

The light sterilized weak bacteria

33.

Match the following genetic changes with the conditions they result in:

a)

A deletion of a single gene

1.

Cystic fibrosis results from—

b)

A substitution that changes one amino acid in hemoglobin

2.

Sickle-cell anemia results from—

c)

A duplication of a chromosome

3.

Down syndrome results from—

d)

A translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22

4.

Chronic myeloid leukemia results from—

34.

Which mutation is heritable and can be passed to offspring?

a)

A gametic (sex-cell) mutation

b)

A somatic mutation

c)

A skin-cell mutation

d)

A nerve-cell mutation

35.

Which chromosomal mutation removes a section of genes?

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

36.

Cystic fibrosis is caused by the loss of three bases in the CFTR gene. This mutation is classified as—

a)

Deletion

b)

Insertion

c)

Substitution

d)

Duplication

37.

Why are frameshift mutations typically more harmful than substitutions?

a)

They only affect one amino acid

b)

They shift the reading frame, changing all codons after the mutation

c)

They duplicate a single gene

d)

They never alter amino acids

38.

Which factor increases the likelihood of mutations in DNA?

a)

Exposure to sunlight

b)

Exposure to radiation and mutagenic chemicals

c)

Balanced diet

d)

Rest during cell division

39.

A deletion in a skin cell’s DNA would most likely—

a)

Affect only that cell and its daughter cells

b)

Be passed to the next generation

c)

Repair itself during mitosis

d)

Alter gametes permanently

40.

A substitution mutation that still codes for leucine is known as a—

a)

Missense

b)

Silent

c)

Nonsense

d)

Frameshift

41.

Why are mutations important to evolution?

a)

They always cause disease.

b)

They destroy harmful traits.

c)

They create genetic variation for natural selection.

d)

They prevent adaptation.

42.

What is the Philadelphia chromosome?

a)

A duplication linked to cystic fibrosis

b)

A translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 linked to leukemia

c)

A deletion found in Down syndrome

d)

An inversion linked to sickle-cell anemia

43.

Which of the following is a chemical mutagen?

a)

Tobacco smoke

b)

X-rays

c)

UV radiation

d)

High temperature

44.

Which of the following is a physical mutagen that causes thymine dimers?

a)

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation

b)

Tobacco tar

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Nitrous acid

45.

The ultimate source of all new genetic variation is (a)  

Choose from the below words

Crossing over

Independent assortment

Fertilization

Mutation

46.

Which event can cause a change in chromosome number?

a)

Inversion

b)

Translocation

c)

Nondisjunction during meiosis

d)

Duplication

47.

Gametic mutations differ from somatic mutations because they—

a)

Occur after birth

b)

Can be passed to offspring

c)

Are always fatal

d)

Never affect genes

48.

Which type of cell could pass a mutation to the next generation?

a)

Egg cell

b)

Skin cell

c)

Nerve cell

d)

Muscle cell

49.

If replication errors are not corrected by DNA repair enzymes, what results?

a)

The cell immediately dies.

b)

A permanent mutation in the DNA sequence.

c)

The RNA is altered.

d)

The protein dissolves.

50.

Which group of enzymes repairs errors in DNA?

a)

RNA polymerase and helicase

b)

Ribosomes and ligase

c)

DNA polymerase and ligase

d)

tRNA and primase

51.

A chromosomal duplication results in—

a)

Loss of genetic information

b)

Extra copies of certain genes

c)

Genes switching positions

d)

Complete chromosome loss

52.

A missing part of chromosome 5 causes Cri-du-chat syndrome. This is an example of—

a)

Duplication

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Translocation

53.

A large inversion on a chromosome can disrupt gene regulation because—

a)

The chromosome breaks during mitosis

b)

Gene sequences are reversed, altering expression

c)

Proteins replace missing bases

d)

Codons are shifted one base forward

54.

Mutations in genes that code for DNA-repair enzymes often lead to—

a)

Faster cell division

b)

Cancer and accumulation of DNA damage

c)

Increased fertility

d)

Neutral genetic variation

55.

Why can radiation therapy damage healthy tissue near a tumor?

a)

It causes dehydration of healthy cells

b)

It increases blood pressure

c)

It induces mutations in normal DNA

d)

It prevents mitosis from ending

56.

When DNA polymerase fails to proofread properly, the result is—

a)

A chromosomal translocation

b)

A neutral gene

c)

A spontaneous mutation

d)

A duplicated chromosome

57.

If a mutation alters an mRNA molecule but not the DNA sequence, the effect—

a)

Becomes permanent

b)

Affects only proteins made from that transcript

c)

Spreads to all daughter cells

d)

Is inherited through gametes

58.

Beneficial mutations are important because they—

a)

Usually cause disease

b)

Prevent adaptation

c)

Provide advantages that can be selected for over generations

d)

Reduce genetic diversity

59.

Neutral mutations are defined as those that—

a)

Destroy enzymes

b)

Benefit only one species

c)

Have no effect on phenotype or fitness

d)

Always occur in coding DNA

60.

In humans, Down syndrome most often results from (a)  

Choose from the below words
A large deletion
Nondisjunction producing an extra c
A translocation
A duplication of chromosome 21
61.

Why can chromosomal mutations have greater effects than gene mutations?

a)

They occur later in development

b)

They involve many genes and regulatory regions

c)

They only affect mRNA

d)

They are easier to repair

62.

Which outcome could follow a mutation in a regulatory gene?

a)

Chromosome shortening

b)

Faster DNA replication

c)

Abnormal levels of protein production

d)

Improved enzyme proofreading

63.

Why aren’t all mutations expressed in an organism’s traits?

a)

All are repaired

b)

Some occur in non-coding DNA or are silent

c)

They never reach RNA

d)

They duplicate chromosomes

64.

What can cause mutations during meiosis?

a)

Cytokinesis errors

b)

Nondisjunction or errors in crossing-over

c)

mRNA splicing

d)

Mitotic checkpoints

65.

Which medical condition most likely results from a translocation?

a)

Down syndrome

b)

Certain leukemias and cancers

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Sickle-cell anemia

66.

If a mutation changes the shape of a protein, what effect may occur?

a)

The protein gains more amino acids

b)

Translation stops permanently

c)

The protein may lose its normal function

d)

The DNA sequence repairs itself

67.

When a gene is duplicated, one copy may—

a)

Be deleted immediately

b)

Reverse its base order

c)

Evolve a new function over time

d)

Prevent the other from working

68.

A mutation that increases the efficiency of an enzyme’s activity is considered—

a)

Harmful

b)

Neutral

c)

Beneficial

d)

Artificial

69.

Which type of mutation is most likely lethal to an organism?

a)

Silent substitution

b)

Frameshift in an essential gene

c)

Duplication in a noncoding region

d)

Single-base insertion in tRNA

70.

When can a mutation be corrected by repair enzymes?

a)

After cell division

b)

During transcription

c)

Before DNA replication is complete

d)

During meiosis

71.

Radiation, chemicals, and certain viruses are all examples of—

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Codons

c)

Mutagens

d)

Alleles

72.

Cancer often arises because of mutations in genes that—

a)

Control digestion

b)

Regulate the cell cycle or suppress tumors

c)

Code for tRNA

d)

Replicate viral DNA

73.

In a cold environment, a mutation that could provide an adaptive advantage is (a)  

Choose from the below words
One that increases body temperature
One that reduces metabolism
A gene variant for thicker fur or f
A deletion in heat-shock proteins
74.

Which process ensures most DNA replication errors are corrected before cell division?

a)

RNA splicing

b)

Proofreading by DNA polymerase

c)

Codon pairing

d)

Translation editing

75.

Why are some mutations described as “silent”?

a)

They always destroy DNA

b)

They occur only in tRNA

c)

They do not change the amino-acid sequence of the protein

d)

They affect every codon in the sequence

76.

Which biotechnology tool cuts DNA at specific sequences?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

Restriction enzyme

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Helicase

77.

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used primarily to—

a)

Separate DNA fragments

b)

Amplify tiny DNA samples into millions of copies

c)

Cut DNA into equal lengths

d)

Replace faulty genes in humans

78.

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their—

a)

Age

b)

Enzyme activity

c)

Size and electrical charge

d)

Type of nitrogen base

79.

CRISPR technology allows scientists to—

a)

Observe protein folding

b)

Edit or disable specific genes precisely

c)

Copy RNA into DNA

d)

Clone whole organisms

80.

Why can a frog gene function properly inside bacterial cells?

a)

They share the same cell structures

b)

The genetic code is universal among all organisms

c)

Frog proteins fold faster

d)

Bacteria have extra chromosomes

81.

(a)   identifies individuals by comparing DNA banding patterns.

Choose from the below words
Genetic therapy
PCR
DNA fingerprinting
Gene splicing
82.

Recombinant DNA refers to—

a)

DNA that has been replicated

b)

DNA formed by combining genes from two organisms

c)

Mutated DNA

d)

Deleted chromosomes

83.

How do scientists produce human insulin using biotechnology?

a)

By selective breeding of humans

b)

By inserting the human insulin gene into bacteria that produce it

c)

By cloning pancreatic cells

d)

By using X-rays to activate insulin genes

84.

Which protein is commonly mass-produced using genetic engineering?

a)

Collagen

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Insulin

d)

Myosin

85.

Which human protein is not typically produced using biotechnology?

a)

Human growth hormone

b)

Insulin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Clotting factor VIII

86.

What benefit do herbicide-resistant crops provide farmers?

a)

They prevent soil erosion

b)

They require no sunlight

c)

They survive herbicide sprays that kill weeds

d)

They eliminate all pests

87.

A plasmid containing both bacterial and human DNA is an example of—

a)

RNA sequencing

b)

Genetic engineering using recombinant DNA

c)

Translation

d)

Transformation error

88.

Which step occurs first when creating a genetically modified organism (GMO)?

a)

Insert the plasmid into host cells

b)

Grow modified cells in culture

c)

Identify and isolate the target gene

d)

Harvest desired proteins

89.

A student discovers E. coli expressing a human gene makes an identical protein. What does this show?

a)

Genes can change between species

b)

The genetic code is shared by all living things

c)

Only bacteria express human genes

d)

Human DNA mutates quickly

90.

Which biotechnology process can treat some genetic disorders by replacing faulty genes?

a)

DNA fingerprinting

b)

Cloning

c)

Gene therapy

d)

Gel electrophoresis

91.

Why is biotechnology valuable in modern agriculture?

a)

It reduces photosynthesis

b)

It increases soil salinity

c)

It enhances crop yield and disease resistance

d)

It eliminates genetic diversity

92.

What is the role of vectors such as plasmids in biotechnology?

a)

They cut DNA

b)

They translate mRNA

c)

They deliver foreign genes into host cells

d)

They destroy unwanted proteins

93.

Match each scientific field with the type of work or evidence it is most associated with.

a)

Evolutionary biology

1.

Study of how species change over time

b)

Cytology

2.

Examination of cells and their structure

c)

Forensic science

3.

Identification of individuals using DNA evidence

d)

Embryology

4.

Study of development from fertilization to birth

94.

Which biotechnology allows scientists to detect pathogens rapidly in a patient sample?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR amplification and sequencing

c)

Gene therapy

d)

RNA interference

95.

What is a major ethical concern surrounding genetic engineering?

a)

It prevents genetic diversity

b)

It reduces crop yield

c)

It may create unintended ecological or health effects

d)

It has no real benefits

96.

How do government agencies ensure the safety of genetically modified foods?

a)

By banning biotechnology research

b)

Through regulatory testing, labeling, and approval standards

c)

By limiting all exports

d)

By eliminating herbicide use

97.

Cloning animals such as Dolly the sheep relied on—

a)

Cross-breeding

b)

Transferring a nucleus from a body cell into an enucleated egg cell

c)

Radiation exposure

d)

Bacterial conjugation

98.

Biotechnology that repairs or replaces defective genes in humans is known as—

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Gene therapy

c)

Recombinant cloning

d)

DNA extraction

99.

Which laboratory process creates identical DNA copies outside a living organism?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

d)

Transformation

100.

How do studies of mutations and biotechnology together support the theory of evolution?

a)

They show evolution stops in modern species

b)

They prove all mutations are harmful

c)

They demonstrate that DNA changes create variation that drives adaptation over time

d)

They eliminate natural selection

101.

A mutation within the promoter region has occurred. What would potentially happen to transcription rate?

a)

Mutated promoters decrease the rate of transcription.

b)

Mutated promoters increase the rate of transcription.

c)

Mutated promoters can increase or decrease the rate of transcription.

d)

Mutated promoters cease transcription of the adjacent gene.

102.

A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to "turn off" genes:

a)

Operon

b)

Inducer

c)

Promoter

d)

Repressor

e)

Corepressor

103.

A mutation in this section of DNA could influence the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA:

(a)  

104.

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when

a)

there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.

b)

the cyclic AMP levels are low.

c)

there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.

d)

the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

e)

the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

105.

How does active CAP induce expression of the genes of the lactose operon?

a)

It terminates production of repressor molecules.

b)

It degrades the substrate allolactose.

c)

It stimulates splicing of the encoded genes.

d)

It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.

106.

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they

a)

express different genes.

b)

contain different genes.

c)

use different genetic codes.

d)

have unique ribosomes

107.

The protein that performs RNA splicing by removing introns and connecting exons is called a(n) (a)   .

108.

Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?

a)

It is an activator for other genes.

b)

It speeds up the cell cycle.

c)

It causes cell death via apoptosis.

d)

It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage.

e)

It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.

109.

The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes?

a)

Relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor

b)

DNA replication

c)

DNA repair

d)

Cell cycle control system

110.

Attachment of ______ groups to ______ will cause promotion of gene expression due to looser DNA.

a)

acetyl, DNA

b)

methyl, DNA

c)

acetyl, histones

d)

methyl, histones

111.

The noncoding sequence of DNA located within the promoter where RNA polymerase will bind is called the (a)   .

112.

A type of control element that acts with transcription factors to promote initiation may be perceived as a distal control element. This control element is called a(n):

(a)  

113.

All of the following occur before mature RNA is formed except:

a)

Addition of a poly-A tail

b)

Addition of a 3' cap

c)

Addition of a release factor

d)

Removal of introns

e)

Alternative splicing

114.

The sequence of nucleotides complementary to one located on mRNA that is carried by tRNA towards the translation site is called a(n):

(a)  

115.

Proteins targeted for degradation are tagged with (a)   before they are recognized by proteasomes.

116.

The function of siRNAs is to:

a)

play a role in RNAi

b)

contribute to euchromatin formation

c)

degrade mature RNA

d)

contribute to forming mutations in the promoter sequence

117.

Cancerous genes that have undergone some type of transformation from their normal counterparts through mutations are called (a)   .

118.

The protein that functions in unwinding DNA strands before replication occurs is called:

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

Single-strand binding proteins

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

e)

Spliceosome

119.

The mitotic division undergone by only prokaryotes, such as bacteria is known as (a)   .

120.

A type of hereditary pattern exhibited by the coat colors of Labrador retrievers shows a phenotypic ratio of 9:7. This type of pattern is known as:

a)

Polygenetic inheritance

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Codominance

d)

Incomplete dominance

e)

Epistasis