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Worksheets

Upper & Lower GI

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

sthenic

c)

asthenic

d)

hypersthenic

2.

A patient comes to radiology with a history of a gastric ulcer. Which of the following procedures would be most diagnostic to demonstrate this lesion?

a)

Double-contrast upper GI series

b)

Oral, water-soluble upper GI series

c)

Single-contrast barium sulfate upper GI series

d)

Carbon dioxide upper GI series

3.

A stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L1-2 would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

hyposthenic

b)

sthenic

c)

asthenic

d)

hypersthenic

4.

A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed:

a)

intussusception

b)

volvulus

c)

diverticulosis

d)

colitis

5.

A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:

a)

enteritis

b)

volvulus

c)

diverticulosis

d)

intussusception

6.

An infant is brought to the ED with a possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition?

a)

Small bowel series

b)

Small bowel enema

c)

Barium or air enema

d)

Defecography

7.

At what level should the CR and image receptor be centered for the RAO or PA upper GI projection and/or position on asthenic body type of patient?

a)

Lower costal margin

b)

L3-4

c)

Iliac crest

d)

L1

8.

At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?

a)

Suspended expiration

b)

During deep breaths

c)

Suspended inspiration

d)

During shallow breaths

9.

CR centering for an esophagogram should be to the vertebral level of:

a)

T5 or T6.

b)

the sternal angle

c)

T3 or T4

d)

T7

10.

Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1-hour small bowel radiograph should be:

a)

at the level of the iliac crest.

b)

at the level of the ASIS.

c)

2 inches (5 cm) above level of the iliac crest

d)

1 inch (2.5 cm) below the level of the iliac crest.

11.

During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

a)

directly posterior

b)

toward the coccyx.

c)

toward the umbilicus.

d)

directly superior.

12.

For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-oz cup for a small bowel only series.

a)

False

b)

True

13.

How much barium is typically given to a 3- to 10-year-old child during an upper GI series?

a)

6 to 12 ounces

b)

14 to 16 ounces

c)

1 cup

d)

4 to 6 ounces

14.

How much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus?

a)

20 to 30 degrees

b)

10 to 15 degrees

c)

45 to 60 degrees

d)

35 to 40 degrees

15.

In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?

a)

Sims’

b)

Prone

c)

Modified lithotomy

d)

Lithotomy

16.

Lipids (fats) are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the:

a)

stomach and small bowel.

b)

small bowel only.

c)

stomach only.

d)

none of the options (are not digested).

17.

Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:

a)

biologic catalysts.

b)

lipids

c)

bile

d)

chyme

18.

Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes:

a)

nothing; no patient preparation is required.

b)

NPO 4 hours before the procedure.

c)

NPO 24 hours before the procedure.

d)

NPO 8 hours before the procedure

19.

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.).

a)

0.5

b)

1

c)

0.75

d)

0.25

20.

Research suggests that peptic ulcers may be caused by:

a)

smoking

b)

alcohol

c)

bacteria

d)

antibiotics

21.

Saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of:

a)

starch

b)

minerals

c)

proteins

d)

lipids

22.

Swallowed air can be used as a negative-contrast medium during an upper GI series.

a)

False

b)

True

23.

The RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the left anterior oblique (LAO) because it:

a)

increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart.

b)

is easier for the patient to hold the cup of barium in his or her left hand

c)

reduces thyroid exposure to the patient.

d)

is a more comfortable position for the patient.

24.

The height of the enema bag must be set at 40 inches (100 cm) above the radiographic table at the onset of the study.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The ideal kVp range for a double-contrast barium enema is:

a)

130 to 140.

b)

100 to 125.

c)

90 to 100.

d)

70 to 80.

26.

The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen.

a)

LLQ

b)

LUQ

c)

RLQ

d)

RUQ

27.

The liver performs more than 100 different physiologic functions

a)

True

b)

False

28.

The liver secretes approximately ____ mL of bile per day.

a)

100 to 250

b)

800 to 1000

c)

1200 to 1500

d)

500 to 700

29.

The main function of bile is to:

a)

begin the digestion of proteins.

b)

break down cholesterol

c)

begin the digestion of complex sugars.

d)

emulsify fats.

30.

The patient must be NPO a minimum of ____ hours before the small bowel series.

a)

24

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

31.

The “tapered,” or “corkscrew,” radiographic sign is often seen with:

a)

volvulus

b)

neoplasm

c)

diverticulosis

d)

intussusception

32.

Toward which aspect(s) of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body and pylorus

c)

Fundus and body

d)

Cardiac

33.

What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media?

a)

Isodense

b)

Radiopaque

c)

Radiolucent

d)

Negative-contrast media

34.

What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach?

a)

Haustra

b)

Gastric canal

c)

Rugae

d)

Valvulae conniventes

35.

What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?

a)

Taenia coli

b)

Haustra

c)

Suspensory ligaments

d)

Valvulae conniventes

36.

What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient during an esophagogram using a thin barium mixture?

a)

Suspended respiration while continuing to swallow

b)

Shallow breathing and continued swallowing during exposure

c)

Exposure immediately after last bolus is swallowed (patient will not be breathing immediately after swallow)

d)

Suspended inspiration after the last swallow

37.

What type of contrast media is ideal for demonstrating a diverticulum within the stomach?

a)

Water soluble

b)

Radiolucent

c)

Single-contrast barium sulfate

d)

Double-contrast barium/negative-contrast agent

38.

When are small bowel series deemed to be complete?

a)

Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve

b)

Two hours after the ingestion of barium

c)

Once the contrast media reaches the rectum

d)

Once the contrast media passes the duodenojejunal flexure

39.

Where is bile formed?

a)

Duodenal mucosa

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Liver

40.

Which aspect of the colon has the widest range of motion?

a)

Descending colon

b)

Transverse colon

c)

Ascending colon

d)

Sigmoid colon

41.

Which aspect of the gallbladder is labeled 1?

a)

Body

b)

Neck

c)

Apex

d)

Fundus

42.

Which aspect of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products along with water, vitamins, and minerals?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Pancreas

43.

Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?

a)

Body

b)

Cardiac

c)

Fundus

d)

Pylorus

44.

Which of the following clinical indications would mandate the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast agent?

a)

Patient with a bezoar

b)

Patient with esophageal reflux

c)

Patient with a possible perforated bowel

d)

Patient with a possible peptic ulcer

45.

Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of a cathartic before a barium enema?

a)

Obstruction

b)

Diverticulitis

c)

Colitis

d)

Diverticulosis

46.

Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?

a)

Intensity

b)

Shielding

c)

Distance

d)

Time

47.

Which of the following kVp ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate (single-contrast study)?

a)

110 to 125 kVp

b)

125 to 140 kVp

c)

80 to 90 kVp

d)

90 to 100 kVp

48.

Which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate?

a)

It should be discarded if not used within an hour after mixing.

b)

It is soluble in water.

c)

The patient may become ill if it is not prepared with sterile water.

d)

It rarely produces an allergic reaction.

49.

Which of the following structures is not considered to be an accessory organ of digestion?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Salivary glands

d)

Kidneys

50.

Which of the following technical factors will best enhance a digital image taken during an upper GI series?

a)

Low-kVp techniques

b)

Use of compensation (wedge) filter

c)

Long SID

d)

Collimation

51.

Which one of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy?

a)

Intensity

b)

Shielding

c)

Time

d)

Distance

52.

Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?

a)

Right colic flexure

b)

Left colic flexure

c)

Sigmoid colon

d)

Cecum

53.

Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?

a)

Ileum

b)

Pylorus

c)

Jejunum

d)

Duodenum

54.

Which part of the small intestine makes up three-fifths of its entirety?

a)

Jejunum

b)

Ilium

c)

Ileum

d)

Duodenum

55.

Which position taken during a barium enema will best demonstrate the left colic flexure?

a)

Left lateral decubitus

b)

LPO

c)

RPO

d)

AP

56.

Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine?

a)

“Sail” sign

b)

Diverticula

c)

“Napkin ring” or “apple core” sign

d)

Thickened mucosa

57.

Which structure is labeled 1?

a)

Ascending colon

b)

Left colic flexure

c)

Right colic flexure

d)

Sigmoid colon

58.

Which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach?

a)

Greater curvature

b)

Gastric border

c)

Lesser curvature

d)

Incisura angularis

59.

Which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus?

a)

Peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation

b)

Gravity and deglutition

c)

Deglutition and mastication

d)

Peristalsis and gravity

60.

Chole-” is a prefix for terms pertaining to the:

a)

ducts

b)

liver

c)

gallbladder

d)

bile