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Nervous System

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The somatic nervous system conducts impulses from the CNS to the _________.

a)

heart

b)

skin

c)

spinal cord

d)

stomach

2.

When a cell is at rest, the cytosol contains a lower concentration of _____and a higher concentration of ___________.

a)

sodium; potassium

b)

calcium; iron

c)

potassium; sodium

d)

calcium; sodium

3.

Which cells line the central cavities of the brain and spinal cord and provide a fairly permeable barrier between the CSF and nervous tissue?

a)

oligodendrocytes

b)

ependymal cells

c)

Schwann cells

d)

astrocytes

4.

Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with a myelinated nerve fiber?

a)

slow conduction of nerve impulses

b)

the presence of nodes of Ranvier

c)

rapid conduction of nerve impulses

d)

formation by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system

5.

Which of the following events occurs at an electrical synapse?

a)

Ions flow directly from one neuron to the next.

b)

Calcium channels open in the presynaptic region.

c)

A neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis.

d)

Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft.

6.

Which of the following factors is associated with increased conduction velocity in an axon?

a)

small diameter

b)

large diameter

c)

presence of collaterals

d)

increased number of dendrites

7.

Which of the following neurotransmitters act(s) as a natural opiate?

a)

GABA

b)

endorphins

c)

dopamine

d)

serotonin

8.

The CNS can discriminate between strong and weak stimuli as strong stimuli by __________.

a)

an increase in the frequency of action potentials

b)

a shift threshold

c)

an increase the amplitude of action potentialing

d)

hyperpolarizing the neuron

9.

Which of the following neuroglia are most responsible for helping determine capillary permeability in the central nervous tissue?

a)

oligodendrocytes

b)

Schwann cells

c)

astrocytes

d)

microglial cells

10.

Which of the following defines integration?

a)

activating effector organs

b)

increasing the level of one substance in response to a decrease in the level of another

c)

monitoring changes both inside and outside the body

d)

processing and interpreting sensory input and determining what should be done at each moment in the body

11.

Which of the following divisions of the nervous system is also known as the involuntary nervous system?

a)

the autonomic nervous system

b)

the somatic nervous system

c)

the spinal division of the nervous system

d)

the peripheral nervous system

12.

Organelles slated for degradation or recycling are moved through the axon by ___________.

a)

retrograde movement

b)

anterograde movement

c)

saltatory movement

d)

phagocytosis

13.

In a __________ circuit, multiple presynaptic neurons innervate a single postsynaptic neuron.

a)

diverging

b)

converging

c)

reverberating

d)

parallel after-discharge

14.

What is the primary difference between the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system?

a)

The somatic nervous system allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles, and the autonomic nervous system controls activity that humans cannot consciously control, such as the pumping of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive tract.

b)

The somatic nervous system enables us to control our involuntary muscles, while the autonomic nervous system controls our glands.

c)

The autonomic nervous system enables us to control our involuntary muscles, while the somatic nervous system controls our glands.

d)

The autonomic nervous system allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles, and the somatic nervous system controls activity that humans cannot consciously control, such as the pumping of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive tract.

15.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neurons?

a)

In general, neurons cannot be replaced if destroyed.

b)

Neurons require continuous and abundant supplies of oxygen, and cannot survive for more than a few minutes without it.

c)

Neurons are relatively small, simple-structured cells.

d)

Neurons can function optimally for over 100 years.

16.

Which of the following are the main receptive or input regions found in neurons?

a)

dendrites

b)

ganglia

c)

neurofibrils

d)

axons

17.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the myelin sheath?

a)

to recapture and recycle released neurotransmitters

b)

to electrically insulate nerve fibers

c)

to protect nerve fibers

d)

to increase the speed of transmission of nerve impulses

18.

Which of the following diseases is directly related to demyelination?

a)

lupus

b)

multiple sclerosis

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

cerebral palsy

19.

An action potential is a phenomenon that either happens completely or doesn't happen at all.

a)

true

b)

false

20.

Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system?

a)

sensory (afferent) division

b)

somatic nervous system

c)

sympathetic division

d)

parasympathetic division

21.

Like all cells, the neurons' internal organization dictates its function. Neurons have relatively many mitochondria, an extensive network of rough endoplasmic reticulum and many clusters of ribosomes. These cellular features indicate all of the following except ________.

a)

neurons must meet a high demand for ATP

b)

neurons have a relatively high consumption of oxygen

c)

neurons have stable, relatively unchanging internal environments

d)

neurons produce many proteins

22.

Which of the following is a function of the pons?

a)

provides motor signals to the red nucleus

b)

is a nucleus for the abducens nerve

c)

relays information from the cerebrum to cerebellum

d)

acts to regulate body temperature

23.

Which of the following areas is involved in speech processing?

a)

gustatory cortex

b)

Wernicke's area

c)

Broca's area

d)

insula

24.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?

a)

regulation of sleep-wake cycles

b)

balance

c)

body temperature regulation

d)

food intake regulation

25.

Which of the following is the autonomic control center?

a)

pons

b)

diencephalon

c)

medulla

d)

hypothalamus

26.

Which part of the brain regulates thirst?

a)

cerebral cortex

b)

cerebellum

c)

hypothalamus

d)

pons

27.

Which of the following statements concerning epilepsy is INCORRECT?

a)

Most cases are caused by brain injuries, such as blows to the head, stroke, or infections.

b)

It involves abnormal discharges from a group of brain neurons.

c)

It is associated with intellectual impairment.

d)

It can have a genetic factor.

28.

Of the three meningeal layers that surround the CNS, which one is located in the middle?

a)

dural sinuses

b)

pia mater

c)

arachnoid mater

d)

dura mater

29.

Which of the following landmarks separates the cerebral hemispheres?

a)

the central sulcus

b)

the longitudinal fissure

c)

septum pellucidum

d)

the transverse cerebral fissure

30.

The visceral sensory area of the cerebral cortex is involved in the conscious perception of all the following EXCEPT __________.

a)

taste

b)

upset stomach

c)

full bladder

d)

the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath

31.

In which part of the cerebral cortex do sensations, emotions, and thoughts come together to form our personality?

a)

the multimodal association areas

b)

the primary sensory cortex

c)

the motor cortex

d)

the premotor cortex

32.

Which structure is involved in planning (rather than executing) movement?

a)

cerebellum

b)

cerebrum

c)

pons

d)

medulla

33.

All the following are functions of the amygdaloid body EXCEPT __________.

a)

assessment of danger

b)

recognition of fear

c)

resolving mental conflict

d)

elicit fear response

34.

Between 5 and 15 percent of of people over 65 develop ________.

a)

Parkinson's disease

b)

Huntington's disease

c)

Alzheimer's disease

d)

transient ischemic attacks

35.

If you are having a conversation with a person, excuse yourself for five minutes, and come back, and the person no longer knows you, the person would be suffering from __________.

a)

anterograde amnesia

b)

retrograde amnesia

c)

epilepsy

d)

Huntington’s disease

36.

What structure produces cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

choroid plexus

b)

mammillary body

c)

the pituitary gland

d)

dura mater

37.

What is the main role of the olfactory cortex?

a)

sight

b)

detection of odors

c)

spatial discrimination

d)

sound interpretation

38.

Which of the following protects the brain from bloodborne metabolic wastes and most drugs?

a)

blood brain barrier

b)

pia mater

c)

dura mater

d)

cerebrospinal fluid

39.

Which of the following is NOT one of the major regions of the brain stem?

a)

cerebellum

b)

pons

c)

midbrain

d)

medulla

40.

Some peripheral nervous system axons are able to regenerate following injury.

a)

true

b)

false

41.

A nerve that carries autonomic signals away from the central nervous system is classified as a __________.

a)

visceral afferent

b)

somatic efferent

c)

visceral efferent

d)

somatic afferent

42.

Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?

a)

optic

b)

vagus

c)

hypoglossal

d)

accessory

43.

How many of the pairs of cranial nerves originate from the brain stem?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

10

d)

12

44.

Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved with the eye?

a)

abducens

b)

abducens

c)

trigeminal

d)

trochlear

45.

Which of the following cranial nerves has a name that means "the wanderer"?

a)

trochlear

b)

trigeminal

c)

vagus

d)

vestibulocochlear

46.

Which type of sensory receptor is stimulated by touch, pressure, vibration, and stretch?

a)

thermoreceptors

b)

mechanoreceptors

c)

nociceptors

d)

photoreceptors

47.

Reflexes that result from practice or repetition are known as __________.

a)

acquired reflexes

b)

acquired reflexes

c)

intrinsic reflexes

d)

central reflexes

48.

In a reflex arc, the muscle fiber or gland that responds to the efferent impulses is known as the __________.

a)

motor neuron

b)

receptor

c)

integration center

d)

effector

49.

Which of the following cranial nerves controls chewing food?

a)

facial nerve

b)

hypoglossal nerve

c)

trigeminal nerve

d)

vagus nerve

50.

At the perceptual level, the ability to differentiate the submodalities of a sensation is known as __________.

a)

pattern recognition

b)

magnitude estimation

c)

quality discrimination

d)

spatial discrimination

51.

Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reflex?

a)

playing a musical instrument

b)

singing a song

c)

driving a car

d)

maintaining posture

52.

If a patient has difficulty using the "pincer grasp" to pick up small objects, which nerve is injured?

a)

ulnar nerve

b)

musculocutaneous nerve

c)

axillary nerve

d)

median nerve

53.

The receptors for taste and smell are classified as __________.

a)

thermoreceptors

b)

proprioceptors

c)

chemoreceptors

d)

mechanoreceptors

54.

Anosmia, an olfactory disorder, is caused by __________.

a)

iron deficiency

b)

loss of gustatory epithelial cells

c)

head injuries or the aftereffects of nasal cavity inflammation

d)

vagus nerve damage

55.

The accessory structures of the eye do NOT include the __________.

a)

lacrimal glands

b)

cornea

c)

eyebrows

d)

conjunctiva

56.

When crying, people tend to repeatedly wipe their dripping noses. The nose drips because __________.

a)

lacrimal gland secretions drain into the lacrimal duct, which empties into the nasal cavity

b)

the olfactory mucosa is irritated by the pH of lacrimal solution and increases secretions into the nasal cavity

c)

special secretory glands in the nasal epithelium produce secretions in response to crying

d)

the nasal mucosa is co-activated with the lacrimal glands to produce mucus

57.

Adduction of the eyeball toward the nose is the function of the __________.

a)

inferior rectus

b)

lateral rectus

c)

superior rectus

d)

medial rectus

58.

Rotational movement of the head is monitored by receptors located in the __________.

a)

cochlear duct

b)

semicircular canals

c)

cortex of the cerebrum

d)

membranous labyrinth

59.

Which sequence follows the correct passage of light entering the cornea?

a)

cornea, anterior segment, pupil, lens, posterior segment, retina

b)

cornea, lens, posterior segment, anterior segment, pupil, retina

c)

cornea, pupil, anterior segment, posterior segment, lens, retina

d)

cornea, pupil, retina, anterior segment, lens, posterior segment

60.

Stimulation by which of the following nerves results in an increase in the diameter of the pupil?

a)

parasympathetic nerves

b)

sympathetic nerves

c)

somatic motor nerves

d)

visceral motor nerves

61.

The tiny skeletal muscles associated with the ossicles of the middle ear function to __________.

a)

increase the vibration of the ossicles of the ear

b)

protect the hearing receptors from loud sounds

c)

increase the vibration of the tympanic membrane

d)

connect the ossicles to the oval window

62.

The receptors for sound reception and equilibrium are located in the __________.

a)

middle ear cavity

b)

inner ear cavity

c)

middle and inner ear cavities

d)

outer, middle, and inner ear cavities

63.

The pharyngotympanic tube __________.

a)

contains receptors to maintain dynamic equilibrium

b)

carries sound to the eardrum

c)

amplifies sound waves

d)

equalizes air pressure between the middle and outer ears

64.

When focusing on a distant object, the lens is __________.

a)

unchanged

b)

more flattened

c)

more convex

d)

more concave

65.

Seventy percent of the sensory receptors in the body are associated with which special sense?

a)

sight

b)

hearing

c)

balance

d)

smell

66.

Pinkeye is caused by an infection that produces inflammation of the __________.

a)

lacrimal gland

b)

conjunctiva

c)

tarsal glands

d)

cornea

67.

Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

a)

brain

b)

sensory receptors

c)

motor endings

d)

neurons

68.

Dim light and peripheral vision receptors are called __________.

a)

foveae

b)

cones

c)

rods

d)

ganglion cells

69.

Where is the olfactory epithelium located?

a)

in the nostrils

b)

in the soft palate

c)

in the floor of the nasal cavity

d)

in the roof of the nasal cavity

70.

The optic disc on the retina is __________.

a)

a dense collection of rod cells

b)

where the optic nerve leaves the eye

c)

the area of greatest visual acuity

d)

the location of the optic chiasma

71.

Proprioceptors advise the brain of __________.

a)

chemical imbalances

b)

pain localization

c)

temperature of the skin

d)

body movements

72.

Taste buds are found only on the tongue.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

How many cranial nerve pairs are involved with the sense of taste?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

74.

Which of the following is associated with the parasympathetic system?

a)

embarrassment

b)

excitement

c)

digestion

d)

exercise

75.

Which of the following substances is a hormone and a neurotransmitter?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

dopamine

d)

nicotine

76.

Which of the following would NOT occur when the parasympathetic system is active?

a)

low normal blood pressure

b)

elimination of urine

c)

cold, sweaty skin

d)

constricted pupils

77.

Which of the following would NOT take place during exercise or vigorous physical activity?

a)

increased digestive activity to allow more glucose absorption for energy

b)

increased glucose release from the liver to provide increased energy to cells

c)

bronchial dilation to increase ventilation

d)

constriction of visceral blood vessels to supply more blood to the heart and skeletal muscle

78.

Parasympathetic tone dominates all of the following EXCEPT __________.

a)

smooth muscle of blood vessels

b)

cardiac muscle

c)

smooth muscle of digestive tract organs

d)

smooth muscles of urinary organs

79.

The division of the autonomic nervous system that puts you into "fight-or-flight" mode is the __________.

a)

parasympathetic division

b)

sympathetic division

c)

cerebral cortical branch

d)

somatic branch

80.

Dual innervation means that __________.

a)

an organ is supplied by both the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system

b)

an organ is supplied by both the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system

c)

both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system supply an organ

d)

an organ is innervated by both a spinal nerve and a cranial nerve

81.

The parasympathetics in the glossopharyngeal nerves (IX) are responsible for which of the following functions?

a)

activating the parotid salivary glands

b)

focusing the eyes on objects

c)

reflexive blinking of the eyes

d)

activating the nasal and lacrimal glands

82.

The sympathetic division is anatomically more complex than the parasympathetic division.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

__________ and __________ are the major neurotransmitters released by autonomic nervous system neurons.

a)

Nicotine; muscarine

b)

Acetylcholine; norepinephrine

c)

Serotonin; dopamine

d)

Atropine; neostigmine

84.

The part of a neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body is the ____.

a)

myelin sheath

b)

dendrite

c)

axon

d)

Schwann cell

85.

Which of these is NOT a SNS response?

a)

decreased peristalsis

b)

dilation of the bronchioles

c)

decreased heart rate

d)

dilation of the pupils

86.

Which of the following is NOT a major part of a neuron?

a)

cell body

b)

axon

c)

dendrites

d)

sarcolemma

87.

The _____ is responsible for thinking and memory.

a)

cerebrum

b)

cerebellum

c)

thalamus

d)

corpus callosum

88.

The _____ contracts the bladder.

a)

parasympathetic response

b)

sympathetic response

89.

The ______ causes the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.

a)

parasympathetic response

b)

sympathetic response

90.

The part of the brain that initiates voluntary movement is the ___.

a)

cerebellum

b)

parietal lobes

c)

frontal lobes

d)

pons

91.

The blood-brain barrier is formed by the ____.

a)

brain capillaries and astrocytes

b)

meninges and CSF

c)

microglia and cranial venous sinuses

d)

subarachnoid space and choroid plexus