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WorksheetsChap 2 skeletal test review-student created
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the anatomical name of the "Cheek Bone"?
a)
Mastoid
b)
Mandible
c)
Zygomatic
d)
Temporal
2.
What bone is located in the lower back of the head and is one of the 7 bones that make up the skull?
a)
Frontal bone
b)
Occipital bone
c)
Parietal bone
d)
Temporal bone
3.
What does hematopoiesis mean?
a)
vomiting blood
b)
blood cells are excreted in urine
c)
production of blood cells in bone marrow
d)
blood discharged from anus
4.
What is the medullary cavity?
a)
contains yellow bone marrow composed chiefly of fat cells
b)
very dense, hard, and strong bone tissue
c)
represents an area of cartilage tissue
d)
porous and less dense bone
5.
What is a Compound Fracture?
a)
An incomplete fracture
b)
A break across the bone at an angle
c)
Bone that has been splintered/crushed
d)
A broken bone with an open wound leading to the site of the fracture, or bone that protrudes the skin; "Open Fracture"
6.
What is a CT scan?
a)
Surgical repair of a joint
b)
A blood test performed to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Visual examination of a joint using a scope
d)
Process in which images of a specific section of the body are taken from multiple angles and then analyzed by a computer to find bone injury or disease.
7.
comminuted fracture
a)
A bone that has splintered or has been crushed
b)
A break in a bone.
c)
A fracture in which the bone has been twisted apart;
d)
A fracture that runs parallel to the long axis of the bone
8.
____ Attach muscle to bones, while ___ Attach bone to bone.
a)
Tendons, Ligaments
b)
Red blood Marrow, Nerves
c)
Ligaments, Tendons
d)
Joints, Bursa
9.
How do false ribs correlate with the sternum?
a)
They directly articulate with the sternum
b)
They do not correlate
c)
They indirectly articulate with the sternum
d)
They are on opposite sides of the body
10.
What does periosteum means?
a)
tissue surrounding the bone
b)
bone structure
c)
tissue without bone
d)
around the hunchback
11.
Where are long bones located?
a)
Arms and legs
b)
Cranium
12.
the passageway for blood vessels and verves are ?
a)
foramen & part of bone depressions
b)
sinus and part of the bone depression
c)
tubercle and part of bone process
d)
condyle and part of bone process
13.
what is another name for the compact bone that is located under the periosteum?
a)
Cancellous bone
b)
Epiphyseal
c)
Endosteum
d)
Cortical bones
14.
What does kyphosis mean?
a)
Humpback
b)
Spine curves sideways
c)
Inward curving of spine
d)
Surgery to fix back problems
15.
What is the purpose of the occipital bone?
a)
forms part of the nose, eye socket, and floor of the cranium
b)
form the roof and upper sides of the cranium
c)
form the posterior floor and walls of the cranium
d)
forms the forehead
16.
What contains the bone marrow?
a)
Endosteum
b)
Epiphyseal line
c)
Spongy bone
d)
Medullary cavity
17.
Diarthroses joints are:
a)
Immovable
b)
Slightly Movable
c)
Freely Movable
d)
Shaft of a Long Bone
18.
where is the epiphyseal plate?
a)
the plate that separates the top part of the bone from the middle part
b)
The plate that covers the knee
c)
the membrane of blood vessels and nerves that wraps around most of your bones
19.
a tibia is the ... bone of the lower leg?
a)
shin
b)
lateral
c)
medial
d)
anterior
20.
What does MRI stand for? what is an MRI?
a)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging, A scanning test to see the inside of the body
b)
Magnetic Reasonance imaging, Like an taking an X-ray
c)
More reasoning information, the need of more information with reason
d)
Mostly relying on Information, The relying on information
21.
What is the definition of bone process
a)
areas on the bone that extend outward and serve as attachment zones for muscles and tendons.
b)
and area at the end of a bone
c)
a area in the middle of the bone that muscle connects to
d)
The inside of the bone
22.
Describe the location of the radius and ulna bone
a)
Medial to the humerus
b)
On the forearm, the radius is on the thumb side, Ulna is on the pinky side
c)
Distal to the femur on the medial side
d)
Connected to the sternum
23.
is Your pelvic girdle ------ to your lumbar spine
a)
Inferior
b)
anterior
c)
distal
d)
posterior
24.
When is the Epiphyseal plate present?
a)
During the growth period of the bone
b)
When the bone is fully developed
c)
During a person's entire lifetime
d)
Right when a person is born
25.
diaphysis/epiphysis are parts of what type of bone.
a)
irregular bone
b)
short bone
c)
long bone
d)
sesamoid bone
26.
What are false ribs?
a)
7 pairs of ribs attached to the sternum or breastbone.
b)
5 pairs of ribs attached to cartilage.
c)
2 pairs of ribs that do not attach.
d)
All the ribs
27.
What position do you put the patient in for a CT scan?
a)
Supine position
b)
Fowler's position
c)
Prone position
d)
Sims' position
28.
How many pairs of false ribs are there?
a)
12 pairs
b)
3 pairs
c)
2 pair
d)
none, they are all true ribs
29.
Describe a synovial joint.
a)
Joints that contain a membrane that acts as lubrication.
b)
Freely movable joints.
c)
Slightly movable joints.
d)
Unmovable joints.
30.
What does sutures mean?
a)
Is the soft spots between the cranial bones
b)
The cranial bones that attach to each other at joints.
c)
Another word for stitches
d)
A bone in the skull
31.
How may bones make up the appendicular skeleton?
a)
126.0
b)
145.0
c)
26.0
d)
59.0
32.
What are the soft spots between the cranial bones where cranial bones are not completely joined; usually found in newborns.
a)
Fontanels
b)
Sutures
c)
Fissures
d)
Sulcus
33.
What does Osteomalacia mean
a)
Softness of the bone
b)
Hunchback
c)
Deformity of the spine
d)
Inwards curve of the spine
34.
What is the Epiphyseal plate made out of?
a)
New, strong bone
b)
An area of cartilage (growth plate)
c)
Joints
35.
What does the term Lordosis mean?
a)
When the spine is hunchback
b)
When the spine is shaped like an S
c)
When the spine is swayback
d)
Part of the spinal cord
36.
Where is the periosteum located?
a)
Around the diaphysis
b)
In the medullary cavity
c)
At the articular cavity
d)
At the epiphysis
37.
What do the occipital bones form?
a)
Part of the base of the skull, and the floor, and the sides of the eye sockets.
b)
The forehead
c)
The posterior floor and walls of the cranium
d)
The roof and upper sides of the cranium
38.
These bones are located on your arm. One of the bone is longer than the other one.
a)
femur bones
b)
carpal bones
c)
metacarpal bones
d)
radius and ulna bones
39.
What is the correct term for, shallow pit or cavity for a bone?
a)
Fossa
b)
Foramen
c)
Fissures
d)
Sulcus
40.
What type of bone is the sternum?
a)
long bone
b)
short bone
c)
irregular bone
d)
flat bone
41.
The cortical bone is...
a)
The area in between vertebrae
b)
Strong and compact bone found on the outer layer of the long bones
c)
area at the end of the bone that builds up cartilage over time
d)
the porous or spongey part of the bone
42.
Which of the following is an example of a flat bone
a)
sternum
b)
femur
c)
patella
d)
vertebrae
43.
What is the meaning of the term "gout"
a)
a fever
b)
a painful form of arthritis
c)
an eye disease
d)
inflammation in the mouth
44.
What are the three parts of the pelvic girdle?
a)
humerus, clavicle, sternum
b)
femur, patella, tibia
c)
illium, ishium, pubis
d)
tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges
45.
What is 1 one example of a Seasmoid bone
a)
Patella
b)
Sternum
c)
carpals
d)
femur
46.
How many vertebrae make up the cervical segment of the spinal column?
a)
5
b)
12
c)
7
d)
1
47.
What is an example of a flat bone?
a)
sternum
b)
femur
c)
carpals
d)
patella
48.
How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine?
a)
12.0
b)
5.0
c)
20.0
d)
10.0
49.
Which one of these bones is an irregular bone?
a)
carpals
b)
sternum
c)
femur
d)
vertebrae
50.
What is the area of cartilage that is always being renewed
a)
cortical
b)
cancellous
c)
epiphyseal plate
d)
epiphysis
51.
What is the xiphoid process?
a)
The most inferior end of the sternum
b)
The superior end of the sternum
c)
The distal end of the scapula
d)
The proximal end of the scapula
52.
Located within the shaft of the long bones of the body
a)
Medullary cavity
b)
Cortical bone
c)
Periosteum
d)
Endosteum
53.
what is a comminuted fracture
a)
a total displacement of a bone from it joints
b)
a fracture that runs parallel to the long axis of the bone
c)
a bone that has splintered or has been crushed
d)
a break across the bone at an angle
54.
What is hematopoiesis?
a)
A blood condition where the blood has low iron levels.
b)
inflammation in the liver.
c)
The formation of blood cellular components.
d)
Curve of the spine.
55.
what is the correct word medical term for inflammation of the wrist
a)
carpitis
b)
arthritis
c)
osteitis
d)
tarsitis
56.
What does the term arthrocentesis mean?
a)
removal of a joint
b)
Incision into a joint
c)
Surgical puncture to remove fluid
d)
inflammation of the joint
57.
What refers to a bone that is broken in at least two places
a)
transverse fracture
b)
stress fracture
c)
oblique fracture
d)
comminuted fracture
58.
What is contained inside the medullary cavity?
a)
condyles
b)
bone marrow
c)
tuberosity
d)
muscle tissue
59.
How many bones does the lumbar segment of the vertebra spine have?
a)
12.0
b)
5.0
c)
7.0
d)
1.0
60.
What is a gout symptom?
a)
fever
b)
swelling
c)
vomiting
d)
heart pain
61.
What bones form the posterior floor and walls of the cranium?
a)
Occipital Bone
b)
Ethmoid Bone
c)
Frontal Bone
d)
Parietal Bone
62.
What are fontanels
a)
the space between the bones of the skull typically found in an infant or fetus
b)
passageway for blood vessels and verves
c)
small round process found on many bones
d)
shallow pit or cavity for a bone
63.
There are __ cervical vertebrae in the spine.
a)
5.0
b)
12.0
c)
4.0
d)
7.0
64.
What are examples of bone processes?
a)
Tubercle, Tuberosity, and Condyle
b)
Fossa, Foramen, Fissures, Sulcus, and Sinus
c)
Diaphysis, Epiphysis, and Medullary
d)
Flat bone, Long bone, Irregular bone, and Sesamoid
65.
How many floating ribs do you have?
a)
3 pair
b)
2 pair
c)
4 pair
d)
1 pair
66.
What is the medical name for the growth plate?
a)
Diaphysis
b)
Periosteum
c)
Articular cartilage
d)
Epiphyseal plate
67.
What are CT scans?
a)
Radigraphic images used to diagnose skeletal changes in the body.
b)
Process in which radigoraphic images of a specific section of the body are taken from multiple angles and then analyzed by a computer to identify bone injury or disease.
c)
A nuclear scanning test that identifies bone fractures, tumors, or infections.
d)
A noninvasive scanning test that involves use of an electromagnetic field and radio waves to visualize soft-tissue structures.
68.
There are 3 types what is one type of rib.
a)
False ribs
b)
Their is only one type of rib
c)
Upper ribs
d)
Middle ribs
69.
What medical term is an abnormal curvature of the spine?
a)
simple fx
b)
Arthritis
c)
Scoliosis
d)
Chondromalacia
70.
What does the axial skeleton consist of?
a)
pelvis and appendages
b)
the phalanges
c)
skull, veterbral column, and ribs
d)
None of the Above
71.
What is an area of cartilage that is consistently being replaced by new tissue as the bone grows?
a)
Fontanels
b)
Epiphyseal plate
c)
Cancellous bone
d)
sutures
72.
What is the periosteum?
a)
pertaining to around the bone
b)
pertaining to within the bone
c)
The medullary cavity
d)
Pertaining to around the head
73.
what are the types of bones, with examples
a)
long , irregular , short , and flat
b)
joint, irregular, flat
c)
irregular bone=vertebrae, flat bone=sternum, long bone=fibula, short bone=carpals
d)
vertebrae, nasal, fibula, calcaneus
74.
What are the most movable joints in the body?
a)
joint
b)
diarthrosis
c)
amphiarthrosis
d)
synovial joints
75.
Which of the following diagnostic tests uses an electromagnetic field and radio waves?
a)
MRI
b)
CT scan
c)
bone density test
d)
x-ray
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