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ap2 mock exam 1

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Atrial natriuretic peptide

a)

produced by the heart; promotes sodium ion loss in the kidneys and vasodilation

b)

produced by the kidneys; regulates red blood cell production

c)

produced by the pineal gland; regulates the sleep/wake cycle

d)

responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

2.

B lymphocyte

a)

produced by the kidneys; regulates red blood cell production

b)

destroys bacteria; directly phagocytosis bacteria

c)

Agranulocyte that secretes antibodies

d)

secretes inflammatory mediators

3.

Basophil

a)

agranulocyte that matures into macrophage

b)

produced by adipose tissue; promotes satiety

c)

produced by the testes; promotes androgenic and anabolic actions

d)

secretes inflammatory mediators

4.

Eosinophil

a)

responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

b)

produced by adipose tissue; promotes satiety

c)

activates all parts of the immune response; directly kills cancer or virally infected cells

d)

secretes inflammatory mediators

5.

Erythropoietin

a)

produced by the pineal gland; regulates the sleep/wake cycle

b)

Produced by the kidneys; regulates red blood cell production

c)

Agranulocyte that matures into macrophage

d)

produced by adipose tissue; promotes satiety

6.

Estrogens

a)

Agranulocyte that secretes antibodies

b)

Produced by adipose tissue; promotes satiety

c)

Produced by the ovaries; regulate the menstrual cycle and the development of secondary sex characteristics

d)

Responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

7.

Leptin

a)

Agranulocyte that matures into macrophage

b)

Responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

c)

secretes inflammatory mediators

d)

Produced by adipose tissue; promotes satiety

8.

Melatonin

a)

Produced by the pineal gland; regulates the sleep/wake cycle

b)

secretes inflammatory mediators

c)

Agranulocyte that matures into macrophage

d)

Produced by the heart; promotes sodium ion loss in the kidneys and vasodilation

9.

Monocyte

a)

Agranulocyte that secretes antibodies

b)

Agranulocyte that matures into macrophage

c)

Produced by the testes; promotes androgenic and anabolic actions

d)

Produced by the kidneys; regulates red blood cell production

10.

Neutrophil

a)

Responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

b)

Agranulocyte that secretes antibodies

c)

Destroys bacteria; directly phagocytosis bacteria

d)

Activates all parts of the immune response; directly kills cancer or virally infected cells

11.

T lymphocyte

a)

Destroys bacteria; directly phagocytosis bacteria

b)

Produced by the pineal gland; regulates the sleep/wake cycle

c)

Activates all parts of the immune response; directly kills cancer or virally infected cells

d)

Secretes inflammatory mediators

12.

Testosterone

a)

Responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

b)

Agranulocyte that matures into macrophage

c)

Responds to parasitic worm infection and mediates the allergic response

d)

Produced by the testes; promotes androgenic and anabolic actions

13.

Chemical messengers released by endocrine glands to regulate some functions of other cells are known as _____.

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

antibodies

c)

electrolytes

d)

hormones

14.

What type of hormone can cross the plasma membrane to bind to a receptor in the cytosol or nucleus?

a)

amine hormones

b)

protein hormones

c)

hydrophobic hormones

d)

hydrophilic hormones

15.

With which gland does the hypothalamus have a close anatomical and physiological relationship?

a)

thyroid gland

b)

pituitary gland

c)

pineal gland

d)

adrenal gland

16.

What is delivered over the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system?

a)

releasing and inhibiting hormones

b)

stimulating hormones

c)

tropic hormones

d)

trophic hormones

17.

What is the primary effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin)?

a)

increases urine production by the kidneys

b)

water retention by the kidneys

c)

sodium retention by the kidneys

d)

blood glucose regulation

18.

What does thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) target?

a)

posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)

b)

anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)

c)

thyroid gland

d)

hypothalamus

19.

What hormone is made by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?

a)

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

b)

triiodothyronine (T3)

c)

thyroxine (T4)

d)

calcitonin

20.

What element is necessary for the production of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4)?

a)

calcium

b)

magnesium

c)

potassium

d)

iodine

21.

What is NOT an effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

a)

increased absorption of calcium ions by the small intestine

b)

increased osteoblast activity

c)

increased release of calcium ions from bone

d)

increased reabsorption of calcium ions from fluid in the kidneys

22.

Aldosterone regulates __________.

a)

blood calcium ion levels

b)

extracellular sodium and potassium ion levels

c)

blood glucose levels

d)

blood iodide ion levels

23.

What is NOT a primary target tissue of cortisol?

a)

nervous tissue

b)

adipose tissue

c)

muscle tissue

d)

liver tissue

24.

Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?

a)

growth hormone

b)

cortisol

c)

insulin

d)

glucagon

25.

Harrie has recurring kidney stones. Which hormone should be checked for normal levels?

a)

thyroxine (T4)

b)

calcitonin

c)

triiodothyronine (T3)

d)

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

26.

Avery has high blood pressure and hypernatremia (excess blood sodium ion concentration). The hypersecretion of which hormone could lead to his condition?

a)

insulin

b)

calcitonin

c)

aldosterone

d)

glucagon

27.

Nina is researching hormones that can stimulate and inhibit the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary. Predict the type of stimulation that regulates the secretion of growth hormone.

a)

humoral stimulation

b)

humoral stimulation

c)

cellular stimulation

d)

hormonal stimulation

28.

What forms the majority of blood?

a)

plasma

b)

leukocytes

c)

platelets

d)

buffy coat

29.

What plasma protein is most important for the blood's colloid osmotic pressure?

a)

transport proteins

b)

albumin

c)

antibodies

d)

collagen

30.

What is the oxygen-binding protein found in erythrocytes?

a)

gamma globulin

b)

albumin

c)

beta globulin

d)

hemoglobin

31.

What cell gives rise to all formed elements?

a)

erythroblast

b)

hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

c)

proerythroblast

d)

Reticulocyte

32.

The process of red blood cell production is known as __________.

a)

polycythemia

b)

erythrocytosis

c)

erythropoiesis

d)

erythropenia

33.

What is the most common type of leukocyte in a healthy adult?

a)

neutrophil

b)

basophil

c)

lymphocyte

d)

eosinophil

34.

Which type of leukocyte may produce antibodies?

a)

eosinophil

b)

monocyte

c)

lymphocyte

d)

neutrophil

35.

The stoppage of bleeding is known as __________.

a)

hemostasis

b)

coagulation

c)

platelet plug formation

d)

thrombolysis

36.

What ions are necessary for both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways to the coagulation cascade?

a)

calcium ions

b)

iron ions

c)

potassium ions

d)

magnesium ions

37.

Carbohydrate groups on the surfaces of erythrocytes determine blood type and are known as __________.

a)

antibodies

b)

tissue factors

c)

antigens

d)

agglutinins

38.

Which blood type is compatible with B– during a transfusion?

a)

B+

b)

O–

c)

AB–

d)

O+

39.

Which of the following blood types would agglutinate if donated to a person with blood type A+?

a)

O+

b)

B–

c)

O–

d)

A–

40.

Nora was exposed to radiation that caused her red bone marrow to make less red blood cells.

This condition is known as __________.

a)

sickle cell anemia

b)

hemolytic anemia

c)

aplastic anemia

d)

iron-deficiency anemia

41.

Some rat poisons contain a toxin that block's the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would have problems with __________.

a)

erythropoiesis

b)

thrombolysis

c)

coagulation

d)

agglutination

42.

A centrifuged sample of blood shows 53% plasma, 1% buffy coat, and 46% erythrocytes. What percent of the blood is composed of leukocytes and platelets?

a)

1%

b)

46%

c)

47%

d)

53%

43.

Which of the following is not a potential effect that a hormone could have on its target cell?

a)

Activating genes in the DNA

b)

Stimulating cellular division

c)

Altering the permeability of the plasma membrane

d)

All of the above are potential effects of a hormone on its target cell.

44.

Which of the following hormones is/are produced by the posterior pituitary?

a)

Antidiuretic hormone

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Both a and b

d)

Neither a nor b

45.

The thyroid gland consists of:

a)

Follicle cells that secrete calcitonin.

b)

Spherical thyroid follicles that contain iodine-containing colloid.

c)

Parafollicular cells that produce thyroid hormones.

d)

Spherical thyroid follicles that surround parathyroid hormone-secreting cells.

46.

Which of the following is not an effect of thyroid hormones?

a)

Regulation of the metabolic rate

b)

Promotion of growth and development

c)

Thermoregulation

d)

Synergism with the parasympathetic nervous system

47.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the role of parathyroid hormone?

a)

Parathyroid hormone regulates the metabolic rate.

b)

Parathyroid hormone increases the blood calcium ion concentration.

c)

Parathyroid hormone decreases the blood sodium ion concentration.

d)

Parathyroid hormone causes water retention by the kidneys.

48.

Which of the following is not an effect of aldosterone?

a)

Increased excretion of hydrogen ions from the fluid in the kidneys.

b)

Increased retention of sodium ions from the fluid in the kidneys.

c)

Increased retention of potassium ions from the fluid in the kidneys.

d)

Increased retention of water from the fluid in the kidneys.

49.

Cortisol is:

a)

A potent inhibitor of the inflammatory response.

b)

An important part of the stress response.

c)

Both a and b are correct.

d)

Neither a nor b is correct.

50.

Which of the following hormones is not an integral part of the stress response?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Cortisol

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

51.

Which of the following statements about the adrenal medulla is false?

a)

Secretion from the adrenal medulla is triggered by ACTH and the sympathetic nervous system.

b)

The adrenal medulla consists of glandular epithelial cells.

c)

The adrenal medulla is a modified postsynaptic sympathetic ganglion.

d)

The products of the adrenal medulla prolong the effects of the sympathetic response.

52.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by__________, and type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by__________.

a)

Hypoglycemia; destruction of the pancreatic B cells

b)

Destruction of the pancreatic B cells; destruction of the pancreatic A cells

c)

Insulin resistance; destruction of the pancreatic B cells

d)

Destruction of the pancreatic B cells; insulin resistance

53.

Which of the following is not a formed element of blood?

a)

Erythrocyte

b)

Leukocyte

c)

Mast cell

d)

Platelet

54.

Which of the following plasma proteins is responsible for osmotic pressure?

a)

Y-globulins

b)

Albumin

c)

A-globulin

d)

Clotting protein

55.

Erythropoiesis requires stimulation from the hormone:

a)

Thrombin

b)

Thrombopoietin

c)

Thymosin

d)

Erythropoietin

56.

Anemia is defined as:

a)

A decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

b)

A decreased iron content of the blood.

c)

Decreased bone marrow function.

d)

Abnormalities in hemoglobin.

57.

Leukocytes are:

a)

Nucleated cells that function in blood clotting.

b)

Nucleated cells that function in immunity.

c)

Anucleate cells that function in blood clotting.

d)

Anucleate cells that function in immunity.

58.

Platelets are derived from cells called:

a)

Thromboblasts

b)

Leukoblasts

c)

Megakaryocytes

d)

Thrombokaryocytes

59.

Which of the following is not an anticlotting agent produced by endothelial cells?

a)

Prostacyclin

b)

Protein c

c)

Antithrombin-III

d)

Warfarin

60.

Tissue plasminogen activator, urokinase, and plasmin are important components of:

a)

Coagulation

b)

Fibrinolysis

c)

Platelet plug formation

d)

Hemostasis

61.

Which antigens does a person with blood type A- have on the surface of his or hererythrocytes?

a)

A antigens

b)

B antigens

c)

Rh antigens

d)

Both a and c are correct

e)

All of the above

62.

Which of the following antibodies does a person with type O+ blood have in his or her plasma?

a)

Anti-A antibodies

b)

Anti-B antibodies

c)

Anti-Rh antibodies

d)

Both a and b are correct

e)

All of the above

63.

Mr. Reczkiewiez has blood type AB-. Which of the following blood types could be safely donatedto Mr. Reczkiewiez, assuming he has had prior exposure to Rh+ blood? (circle all that apply)

a)

Type O+

b)

Type A-

c)

Type B-

d)

Type AB+

e)

Type O-

64.

During the platelet phase of hemostasis, platelet aggregation is followed by platelet adhesion, forming the platelet plug.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following is FALSE?

a)

Viral infections cause lymphocytosis

b)

Basophils are more common than eosinophils in the peripheral blood

c)

Eosinophils provide anti-parasitic defenses

d)

Neutrophils are the primary defense against bacteria

e)

Macrophages are phagocytic

66.

Which of the following is TRUE, regarding the clotting cascade?

a)

The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways are usually activated together

b)

The intrinsic pathway is slower than the extrinsic pathway

c)

The extrinsic pathway begins with the release of tissue factor

d)

all of the choices are true

e)

The common pathway begins with the activation of factor X

67.

(a)   converts fibrinogen into fibrin.

68.

A person whose red cells are positive with (agglutinate in the presence of) anti-B, but are negative with anti-A will have antibody specific for A antigen in their plasma.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Band neutrophils are slightly immature cells that are released in elevated numbers during a "shift to the left".

a)

Ture

b)

False

70.

Agranulocytes contain no cytoplasmic granules of any kind.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Heparin is NOT

a)

released by basophils and mast cells

b)

an anticoagulant

c)

a vasoconstrictor

d)

an activator of Antithrombin III

72.

Lymphocytes

a)

are responsible for the nonspecific immune response

b)

none of the choices are true about lymphocytes

c)

have a small nucleus with abundant cytoplasm

d)

are the most common WBC in the peripheral blood

e)

always remain in the blood stream

73.

Activation of platelets in the blood stream will typically cause thrombus formation.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Gamma globulins are made by the liver.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Bacteria in the intestine convert (a)   into urobilinogen and then into stercobilin, which is excreted in the feces.

76.

Each molecule of adult hemoglobin consists of four globin chains and one heme group, which can bind a molecule of oxygen via the iron component of the heme.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Erythropoietin, which is made by the kidneys, stimulates the production of RBCs by the bone marrow, thys increasing the number of cells in the bloodstream, and improving oxygen delivery to the tissues.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Hemosiderin is the transport protein for iron in the blood stream.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

There are more red blood cells than platelets, and more platelets than white blood cells in normal blood.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding red blood cells?

a)

The shape of a rbc is important because it improves the ability of the cell to exchange gases, and to pass through small vessels.

b)

the developing red cells lose any organelle not necessary for their primary function

c)

biconcave discs have a thick central region surrounded by a thinner outer margin

d)

men have more rbcs than women because testosterone stimulates rbc production

e)

a normal hematocrit should be approximately 45%

81.

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

a)

The stabilization of body temperature

b)

The regulation of the pH andion composition of interstitial fluids

c)

Regulation of growth and development

d)

Transportation of dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones and wastes

82.

(a)   counts are used clinically as an index of bone marrow red blood cell production.

83.

Calcitonin inhibits the activity of (a)   cells in bone, decreasing the release of calcium into the extracellular fluid.

84.

Gonadotropin releasing hormone site of secretion

a)

hypothalamus

b)

adenohypophysis

c)

neurohypophysis

85.

ACTH site of secretion

a)

hypothalamus

b)

adenohypophysis

c)

neurohypophysis

86.

Oxytocin site of secretion

a)

hypothalamus

b)

adenohypophysis

c)

neurohypophysis

87.

TSH site of secretion

a)

hypothalamus

b)

neurohypophysis

c)

adenohypophysis

88.

ADH site of secretion

a)

hypothalamus

b)

neurohypophysis

c)

adenohypophysis

89.

TRH site of secretion

a)

hypothalamus

b)

neurohypophysis

c)

adenohypophysis

90.

Calcitonin is released from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland when calcium levels in the blood fall below normal.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclasts, and increases reabsorption of calcium ions in the kidneys, thus increasing blood calcium levels.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Active Vitamin D, known as calcitriol, promotes the absorption of dietary calcium from the small intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

LH primary function

a)

ovulation

b)

breast growth and development

c)

increased basal metabolic rate

d)

water conservation

94.

Prolactin primary function

a)

development of ova and spermatozoa

b)

breast growth and development

c)

increased basal metabolic rate

d)

water conservation

95.

T3 primary function

a)

development of ova and spermatozoa

b)

breast growth and development

c)

increased basal metabolic rate

d)

water conservation

96.

ADH primary function

a)

development of ova spermatozoa

b)

breast growth and development

c)

increased basal metabolic rate

d)

water conservation

97.

hGH stimulates the release of insulin-like growth factors and raises blood glucose levels.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

RAAS in the proper order

a)

decreased blood volume, pressure or sodium; release of renin from kidneys; production of angiotensin I; production of angiotensin II; release of aldosterone

b)

decreased blood volume, pressure or sodium; release of renin from kidneys; production of angiotensin I; release of aldosterone; production of angiotensin II

99.

Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis and lipogenesis

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Insulin release is stimulated by increased levels of glucose in the blood stream following a meal.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Choose the CORRECT statement:

a)

Glucagon is referred to as the "starvation or fasting" hormone

b)

Most cells do not require insulin in order to obtain glucose from the blood

c)

Most of the pancreatic tissue volume is endocrine

d)

Alpha cells of the pancreas produce insulin

e)

All of the choices are true

102.

Human growth hormone and Cortisol stimulate glycogenolysis and lipolysis in order to increase blood glucose levels and provide alternate fuels.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Testosterone

a)

decreases red blood cell production

b)

is hydrophilic

c)

increases muscle mass

d)

decreases bone growth

104.

Which of the following is FALSE?

a)

endocrine cells secrete their products onto epithelial surfaces through ducts

b)

a single endocrine hormone can alter the activities of multiple tissues at one time

c)

paracrine and autocrine factors are locally acting

d)

hormones are used to coordinate relatively slow, long term activities

105.

How is the mechanism of action of peptide hormones different from the mechanism of action of steroid hormones?

a)

Steroid hormones require second messengers for their action, whereas peptide hormones diffuse into the cell through the membrane and directly produce their effect.

b)

Peptide hormones require second messengers for their action, whereas steroid hormones diffuse into the cell through the membrane and directly produce their effect.

c)

There is no difference in mechanism.

d)

None of the choices are true.

106.

Hormone secretion is regulated by signals from the nervous system, from other hormones, and from (a)   changes in the blood.

107.

Steroid hormones do not require a carrier protein for transport in the blood stream, because they are water soluble.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

The hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus to the (a)   pituitary.