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Biology Final

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 28hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which sequence correctly lists that the hierarchy from least inclusive to most inclusive?

a)

molecule, cell, organism, organ system, tissue, population, organ, organelle, community, ecosystem

b)

cell, molecule, organ system, organ, organelle, population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, community

c)

molecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem

d)

ecosystem, population, organ system, cell, community, molecule, organ, organism, organelle, tissue

2.

Which of the following is a group within the domain Eukarya?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Fungi

3.

You notice over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweashirt style. This is an example of what?

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Experiment

c)

Experimental question

d)

Type of observation

4.

The role of a control in an experiment is to:

a)

prove that a hypothesis is correct

b)

ensure repeatability

c)

provide a basis of comparison to the exerimental group

5.

Which statement about the properties of life is false?

a)

Organisms have the ability to respond to stimuli from the environment

b)

Organisms have an unchanging, constant internal environment

c)

Organisms have the ability to take in energy and use it

d)

Organisms have the ability to reproduce

6.

Members of the kingdom Animalia:

a)

make their own food through photosynthesis

b)

can obtain their food either by absorption or by photosynthesis

c)

can obtain their food by eating other organisms

7.

Organisms belonging to the kingdom Plantae:

a)

obtain food by decomposing the remains of dead organisms

b)

are unicellular

c)

are photosynthetic

8.

An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria to:

a)

die out due to the drastic decrease in population size

b)

be just as susceptible to that antibiotic as was the previous generation

c)

be more resistant to that antibiotic

d)

be more contagious than the prior generation

9.

The four most common elements in living organisms are:

a)

C, H, O, N.

b)

C, H, O, Fe.

c)

C, H, O, Na.

d)

C, N, O, Na.

10.

which of the following particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

protons and electrons

c)

neutrons, electrons, and protons

d)

neutrons and electrons

11.

What is the atomic mass of an atom that has 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

12

d)

18

12.

An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic mass of 5 and an atomic mass of 11. How many electrons does boron have?

a)

15

b)

2

c)

11

d)

5

13.

The sodium atom contains 11 electrons, 11 protons, and 12 neutrons. What is the mass number of sodium?

a)

15

b)

11

c)

23

d)

22

14.

Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could

a)

have more protons than the usual nitrogen atom

b)

be negatively charged

c)

have more neutrons than the usual nitrogen atom

d)

be positively charged

15.

In the equation 2 H2 + O2 --> 2 H20, the H2 molecules are ___ and the H20 molecules are ___.

a)

reactants, products

b)

used, stored

c)

created, destroyed

d)

productsm reactants

16.

The tendency of water molecules to stick together is referred to as:

a)

cohesion

b)

transpiration

c)

adhesion

d)

polarity

17.

Which of the following statements about water is false?

a)

floating ice on a pond insulates the liquid water below, slowing its rate of freezing.

b)

ice is denser than liquid water.

c)

water naturally exists in all three physical states on earth.

d)

if ice sank, the oceans would eventually freeze solid.

18.

Compared to a solution of pH3, a solution of pH1 is:

a)

10 times more basic

b)

10 times more acidic

c)

100 times more acidic

d)

100 times more basic

19.

Household ammonia has a pH of 12; household bleach has a pH of 13. Which of the following statements about these substances is true?

a)

a solution that could buffer the bleach and ammonia would remove excess OH- ions.

b)

the ammonia has 10 times as many OH- ions as the bleach

c)

the ammonia has 10 times as many H+ ions as the bleach

d)

borh of these substances are strong acids

20.

organic compounds:

a)

always contain oxygen

b)

are synthesized

c)

always contain nitrogen

d)

always contain carbon

21.

the molecular formula of most monosaccharides represents a multipule of:

a)

CHO2

b)

CH3O

c)

CH2O

d)

CHO

22.

a molecule with the formula c55H110O55 is probably a(n)

a)

steriod

b)

protein

c)

polysaccharide

d)

oil

23.

Many names for sugars end in the suffix:

a)

-hyde

b)

-acid

c)

-ose

d)

-ase

24.

which of the following lists contain only polysaccharides?

a)

starch, amino acids, and glycogen

b)

fructose, cellulose, and glucose

c)

sucrose, starch, and cellulose

d)

cellulose, starch, and glycoden

25.

fatty acids are..?

a)

composed of four linked rings

b)

composed of hydrocarbon chains and a carboxyl group

c)

composed of carbon, hydrogen glycerol, and a phosphate group

d)

composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio

26.

fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be..?

a)

completely hydrogenated

b)

monoglycerides

c)

unsaturated

d)

saturated

27.

which of the following substances is made of lipids?

a)

cellulose

b)

steriods

c)

enzymes

d)

DNA

28.

a major type of lipid found in cell membranes is..?

a)

unsaturated fats

b)

phospholipids

c)

glycerol

d)

saturated fats

29.

peptide bonds

a)

are used to form amino acids

b)

form between fatty acids

c)

link amino acids

d)

are formed by a hydrolysis reaction

30.

Which of the following options correctly pairs a polymer and its monomer?

a)

cellulose, amino acids

b)

collage, nucleic acids

c)

DNA, nucleotides

d)

RNA, ribose

31.

amino acids can be distinguished from one another by..?

a)

the type of bond between the R group and the rest of amino acid molecule

b)

the chemical properites of their R groups

c)

the chemical properties of thei amino and carboxyl groups

d)

the number of R groups found on the amino acid molecule

32.

proteins differ from one another because?

a)

the sequence of amino acids the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein

b)

each potein contains its own unique sequence of sugar molecules

c)

the number of nucleotides found in each protein varies from molecule to molecule

d)

the peptide bonds linking amino aids differ from protein to protein

33.

cell theory states..?

a)

all living things are composed of cells and that all cells came from other cells

b)

cells can be created from molecules spontaneously

c)

all living things are made of many cekks

d)

cells make up living and nonliving substances

34.

in the plasma membrane, the phospholipid heads

a)

are hydrophobic and face inward, shielded from water

b)

are hydrophilic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the membrane

c)

are hydrophobic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the membrane

d)

are hydrophilic and face inward, shielded from water

35.

which of the following structures is exclusively associated with prokaryotic cells?

a)

membrane-bound nucleus

b)

nucleiod

c)

ribosomes

d)

chromosome

36.

unlike animal cells, plant cells have ___ and ____. Unlike plant cells, animal cells have ____.

a)

centrioles; cell walls; large central vacuoles

b)

chloroplasts; cell walls; a nucleus

c)

centrioles; chloroplasts; cell walls

d)

chloroplasts; cell walls; centrioles

37.

the endosymbiosis hypothesis proposes that..?

a)

two separate cells worked cooperatively and one benefited from the other

b)

a small cell lived inside a larger cell to benefit of both cells

c)

two cells merged into one cell, improving the enzyme function of the new cell

d)

a large cell engulfed and digested a smaller cell, exposing its enzyme for use by the larger cell.

38.

the light reactions occur in the ____, while the Calvin cycle occurs in the ____.

a)

cytoplasm; thylakoid membrane

b)

stroma; nucleus

c)

thylakoid membranes; stroma

d)

stroma; thylakiod membranes

39.

the full range of electromagnetic energy is called the ____ spectrum.

a)

energy

b)

visible

c)

electromagnetic

d)

ultraviolet

40.

why are most plants green?

a)

chlorophyll b primarily uses green light as a sourse of energy for photosynthesis

b)

chlorophyll a reflects green light

c)

chlorophyll a absorbs green light

d)

green helps plants blend into their environment as a sort of camouflage

41.

which of the following colors contributes the least energy to photosynthesis?

a)

blue

b)

red

c)

green

d)

orange

42.

the ultimate source of all the food we eat and the oxygen we breathe is..?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

glycolysis

d)

anaerobic metabolism

43.

plant cells..

a)

lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts

b)

have mitochondria and chloroplasts

c)

lack mitochondria and chloroplasts

d)

have mitochondria but do not have chloroplasts

44.

plasma membranes are selectively permeable. this means that..?

a)

anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy

b)

plasma membranes must be very thick

c)

the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter & leave a cell more easily than others

d)

glucose cannot enter the cell

45.

the creation of genetically identical offspring by a single parent, without the participation of sperm & egg, is called?

a)

spontaneous generation

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

regeneration

d)

sexual reproduction

46.

asexual reproduction requires ___ individual(s), whereas sexual reproduction requires ___ individual(s).

a)

2;1

b)

1;2

c)

2;2

d)

1;1

47.

eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they

a)

are simpler

b)

are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus

c)

include fewer proteins

d)

are circular in structure

48.

eukaryotic cells spend most of their cycle in what phase?

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

interphase

d)

prophase

49.

sister chromatids are..?

a)

made only of DNA

b)

joined together at a centromere

c)

found immediately after a cell divides

d)

unique to prokaryotes

50.

both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by..

a)

telophase

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

prometaphase

51.

independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase 1 results in an increase in the number of..?

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

homologous chromosomes

c)

gametes

d)

possible combinations of characteristics

52.

which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?

a)

cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes

b)

cell division can reproduce an entire organism

c)

cell division is necessary for development to occur

d)

cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction

53.

with the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not identical, to each other because they have..?

a)

identical genes but different chromosomes

b)

the same combination of traits but different genes

c)

a similar but not identical combination of genes

d)

identical chromosomes but different genes

54.

what is the basic difference betweeen exergonic and endergonic reactions?

a)

exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it

b)

exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; energonic reactions involve covalent bonds

c)

exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds

d)

in exergonic reactions, the reactants have leaa chemical energy than the products, in endergonic reactions, the opposite is true.

55.

how do oxygen molecules travel through a cell membrane?

a)

endocytosis

b)

carrier proteins

c)

active transport

d)

diffusion

56.

diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. therefore, diffusion is considered a type of..?

a)

active transport

b)

endocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

passive transport

57.

facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ___ and moves a substance ___ its concentration gradient.

a)

energy and transport proteins; down

b)

energy and transport proteins; against

c)

transport proteins;down

d)

transport protein; against

58.

the process pf a white blood cell engulfing a bacteruim is

a)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

osmsis

d)

exocytosis

59.

the active site of an enzyme is..?

a)

the region of an enzyme that attches to a substance

b)

the region of a product that detaches from its enzyme

c)

the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions

d)

the region of a substance that is changed by an enyme

60.

most of the functions of a cell membrane, including transport and enzymatic function, are preformed by?

a)

phosopholipids

b)

glycolipids

c)

cholesterol

d)

proteins

61.

which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true?

a)

photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts, and cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria

b)

photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria and in chloroplasts

c)

cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria and in chloroplasts

d)

photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria, and cellular respiration occurs in chloroplasts

62.

which of the following are products of cellular respiration?

a)

energy to make ATP and carbon dioxide and water

b)

oxygen and energy to make ATP

c)

oxygen and glucose

d)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

63.

humans use the calories they obtain from ___ as their source of energy.

a)

food

b)

minerals

c)

sunlight

d)

water

64.

during redox reactions,

a)

protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule

b)

the loss of electrons from one molecule is called reduction

c)

electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance

65.

during cellular respiratiom energy in glucose..?

a)

is used to manufacture glucose

b)

becomes stored in molecules of ammonia

c)

is carried by electrons

d)

is released all at once

66.

oxidation is the __, and reduction is the ___.

a)

loss of electrons; gain of electrons

b)

gain of protons; loss of protons

c)

gain of oxygen; loss of oxygen

d)

gain of electrons; loss of electrons

67.

as a result of glycolysis, there is a net gain of ___ ATP(s)

a)

2

b)

36

c)

0

d)

1

68.

which of the following metabolic pathways is common in aerobic and anaerobic metabolism?

a)

glycolysis

b)

oxidative phosphorylation

c)

electron transport chain

d)

the citric acid cycle

69.

in the electron transport chain, the final electron acceptor is...?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

ADP

70.

which of the following processes produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized?

a)

lactic acid fermentation

b)

aerobic respiration

c)

alcoholic fermentation

71.

in yeast cells..

a)

alcoholic is produced after glycolysis

b)

lactic acid is produced during glycolysis

c)

alcohol is produced during the citric acid cycle

d)

lactic acid is produced during anaerobic respiration

72.

what is the name given to organisms that can make their own food and thus sustain themselves without consuming organic molecules derived from other organisms?

a)

autotrophs

b)

chemotrophs

c)

heterotrophs

73.

CO2 enters and O2 escapes from a leaf via what?

a)

stomata

b)

grana

c)

stroma

d)

thylakiods

74.

in the chloroplast, sugars are made in a compartment that is filled with a thick fluid called the ?

a)

matrix

b)

stroma

c)

stomata

d)

thylaoid

75.

thylakoids are arranged in stacks called?

a)

vacuoles

b)

stomata

c)

cristae

d)

grana

76.

what is the source of energy that provides the boost for electrons during photosythesis?

a)

ATP

b)

cellular respiration

c)

NADPH

d)

light

77.

if a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnoramlity is called a(n)?

a)

deletion

b)

reciprocal translocation

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

78.

which of the following statements regarding down syndrome is false?

a)

people with down syndrome usually have a shorter life span than normal

b)

down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the united states

c)

trisomy 21 is the cause of down syndrome

d)

down syndrome is least likely to be seen in the infants of mothers over 40

79.

mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on what?

a)

roses

b)

fruit flies

c)

guinea pigs

d)

peas

80.

which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false?

a)

an organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be homozygous for that trait

b)

the expressed physical traits of an organism is called a phenotype

c)

the genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype

d)

alleles are alternate forms of a gene

81.

the phenotypic ratio resulting from a dihybrid cross of two heterozygote individuals showing independent assortment is expected to be what?

a)

1:2:1

b)

9:3:3:1

c)

3:1

d)

9:1:1:3

82.

a testcross is what?

a)

a mating between two individuals of unknown genotype

b)

a mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest

c)

a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest

d)

a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of interest

83.

a carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ____ to transmit it to offspring.

a)

homozygous for the trait and able

b)

homozygous for the trait and unable

c)

heterozygous for the trait and unable

d)

heterozygous and able

84.

most genetic disorders of humans are caused by what?

a)

recessive alleles

b)

dominant alleles

c)

a mutation that occurs in the egg, sperm, or zygote

d)

multiple alleles

85.

all the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. this means that the allele for red flowers is ____ to the allele for white flowers.

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

recessive

c)

codominant

d)

dominant

86.

the presence of AB blood type illustrates the principle of what?

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

pleiotropy

d)

dominant

87.

sickle-cell disease is an example of what?

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

a trait with more than two alleles

c)

pleiotropy

88.

sickle-cell disease is an example of what?

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

a trait with more than two alleles

c)

pleiotropy

89.

genes located close together on the same chromosomes are referred to as ____ genes and generally ___.

a)

codependent; do not sort independently during meiosis

b)

homologous; are inherited together

c)

linked; do not sort independently during meiosis

d)

linked; sort independently during meiosis

90.

what is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male?

a)

two X chromosomes and one Y chromosomes

b)

two Y chromosomes and zero X chromosomes

c)

one X chromosomes and one Y chromosome

d)

one Y chromosome and zero X chromosome

91.

the sex chromosome complement of a normal human female is what?

a)

XX

b)

XO

c)

XY

d)

YY

92.

recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because of what?

a)

the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations

b)

the male phenotype results entirely from his single X- linked gene

c)

the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome

93.

the monomers of DNA and RNA are what?

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

monosaccharides

d)

nucleotides

94.

which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?

a)

DNA contains the nitrogenous base uracil

b)

DNA molecules have sugar-phosphate backbone

c)

DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose

d)

one DNA molecule can include four different nucleotides in its structure

95.

how would the shape of a DNA molecule change if adenine paired with guanine and cytosine paired with thymine?

a)

the DNA molecule would be circular

b)

the DNA molecule would be longer

c)

the DNA molecule would be shorter

d)

the DNA molecule would have irregular widths along its length

96.

which of the following statements regarding a DNA double helix is true?

a)

the amount of adenine is equal to the amount of uracil, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine

b)

the amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine

c)

the amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine

d)

the amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine

97.

DNA replication..

a)

results in the formation of four new DNA strands

b)

begins when two DNA molecules join together to exchange segments

c)

uses each strand of DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand

d)

occurs through the addition of nucleotides to the end of the parental DNA molecule

98.

if one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, then the complementary strand would be what?

a)

GCCAUC

b)

GCCATG

c)

GCCTAG

d)

TAACGT

99.

which of the following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?

a)

DNA ---> RNA ---> protein

b)

RNA ---> DNA ---> RNA ---> protein

c)

DNA ---> tRNA ---> mRNA ---> protein

d)

protein ---> RNA ---> DNA

100.

the transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called what?

a)

translation

b)

elongation

c)

initation

d)

transcription

101.

the directions for each amino acid in the polypeptide are indicated by a condon that consists of ____ nucleotides in an RNA molecule

a)

five

b)

three

c)

two

d)

four

102.

any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a what?

a)

base substitution

b)

mutation

c)

frameshift

103.

the term gene expression refers to the... ?

a)

process by which genetic information flows from genes to proteins

b)

flow of information from parent to offspring

c)

fact that each individual of a species has a unique set of genes

d)

fact that individuals of the same species has different phenotypes

104.

the coding regions of a gene are called what?

a)

exons

b)

enhancers

c)

introns

d)

promoters

105.

if tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d), and two homozygous varieties DD and dd are crossed, what would F1 generation look like?

a)

all tall

b)

all intermediate height

c)

1/2 tall, 1/2 dwarf

d)

3/4 tall, 1/4 dwarf

106.

short hair (L) is dominate to long hair (l), animals LL and Ll have the same what?

a)

phenotypes

b)

genotypes

c)

genes

d)

parents

107.

according to Mendel, what kind of genes "disappear" in F1 pea plants?

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

sex-linked

d)

lethal

108.

an individual with a genetic makeup of aaBB is said to be what?

a)

pure-breeding

b)

recessive

c)

hybrid

d)

heterozygous

109.

if all offspring of a cross have the genotype Aa, the parents of the cross are most likely what?

a)

AA x aa

b)

Aa x Aa

c)

Aa x aa

d)

AA x Aa

110.

the genetic code is made up of units consisting of how many nucleotides?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

111.

all mRNA transcriptions begin with what?

a)

a ribosome

b)

AUG

c)

the P site

d)

an anticodon

112.

sickle cell anemia has been traced to what type of mutation?

a)

frameshift

b)

transposon

c)

mutagenic

d)

base- pair subsitution