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HPP Exam #1 Review

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cells are organized into tissues that are classified according to the following. Select all that apply:

a)

Function of the cells

b)

Shapes of the cells

c)

Characteristics of the matrix

d)

Relative volumes occupied by matrices versus cells

2.

Choose the false statement about the matrix:

a)

If the matrix is destroyed, a tissue cannot heal or regenerate

b)

The matrix is as important as the cell

c)

Matrix functions in waste removal and nutrient delivery

d)

Matrix is composed of cells, fibers, and fluids

3.

Choose the false statement about epithelial tissues:

a)

Epithelial tissue has blood vessels

b)

Epithelial tissue plays a role in filtration

c)

Epithelial cells are found in glands

d)

Epithelial tissue plays a role in sensation

4.

These are the functional roles of basement membrane. Select all that apply:

a)

The basement membrane forms a point of attachment for epithelial cells

b)

The basement membrane blocks diffusion of nutrients and wastes

c)

The basement membrane partly contains collagen and laminin

d)

The basement membrane plays a role in tissue renewal

5.

In GERD, the following changes may occur in the patient’s esophagus:

a)

A change in simple columnar to gastric squamous

b)

A change from simple squamous to simple columnar

c)

A change from stratified squamous to simple columnar

d)

A change from pseudostratified columnar to stratified

6.

This part of the neuron collects incoming signals and has a large surface area, like branches of a tree:

a)

Cell body

b)

Dendrites

c)

Axon

d)

Axon terminal

7.

The following features describe the structure and function of cartilage. SATA:

a)

There are dense blood vessels in cartilage

b)

Cartilage is built by matrix that is secreted by chondrocytes

c)

Cartilage matrix contains chondroitin and collagen

d)

Chondrocytes are trapped in cavities known as lacunae

e)

Cartilage tissue is known to heal quickly

8.

Which of the following statements about scurvy are true? SATA

a)

It is caused by dietary deficiency in vitamin C

b)

It is caused by inherited mutation collagen

c)

It causes a weakening of the strength of the matrix

d)

It increases the cross linking of collagen fibers

9.

Part of your patient's glandular tissue is removed due to formation of a malignant tumor. The remaining gland shows evidence of an increase in cell size as well as in cell number. These two types of physiological responses are known as:

a)

Metaplasia and atrophy

b)

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia

c)

Hypertrophy and metaplasia

d)

Hyperplasia and atrophy

10.

After death of a spouse, your widower patient becomes malnourished and has insufficient intake of macronutrients (proteins, carbs, lipids) and micronutrients (vitamins and minerals). His tissues may respond to this stressor in the following ways. Choose the best answers (SATA):

a)

Atrophy of skeletal muscle and adipose tissue

b)

Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cardiocytes in cardiac muscle

c)

Loss of collagen cross-linking and loss of connective tissue strength

d)

Increased protein synthesis and nmyofiber cell division and proliferation

e)

Irreversible metaplastic changes within lung epithelial tissues

11.

Apoptosis is characterized by the following features (SATA):

a)

Low levels of ATP

b)

Inflammation

c)

Loss of membrane integrity

d)

Cell shrinkage

e)

DNA cleavage

12.

Necrosis is characterized by the following features (SATA):

a)

Low levels of ATP

b)

Inflammation

c)

Loss of membrane integrity

d)

Leakage of cytosolic contents

e)

DNA cleavage

13.

If p53 were mutated and lost its normal function, what do you expect could happen?

a)

The cell would undergo apoptosis

b)

The cell would undergo shrinkage

c)

DNA damaged cells would survive

d)

Bax and Bak would dimerize

e)

Caspases would be activated

14.

If the function of BcL-2 is activated in a tumor cell, what would the end result be?

a)

DNA cleavage

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Cytoskeletal breakdown

d)

Bac and Bak inhibition

e)

Cytochrome C leakage

15.

Which of the following would be able to (directly or indirectly) activate caspase cascade (SATA)?

a)

Inhibition of BcL2

b)

Activation of BcL-XL

c)

Inhibition of p53

d)

Cytochrome c leakage

e)

Bax and Bak dimerization

16.

Which of the following statements are true (SATA)?

a)

Apoptosis and necrosis can coexist in the same tissues

b)

p53 prevents apoptosis and necrosis by blocking Bax and Bak

c)

The prenumbra of an infarct zone undergoes reversible necrosis

d)

Blood clot-induced tissue infarction involves the loss of nutrients and oxygen

e)

BcL-XL encourages cellular survival by activating Bax and Bak

17.

Which of the following statements are false (SATA)?

a)

Caspase activation is a hallmark of apoptosis

b)

Cellular swelling is a hallmark of necrosis

c)

The penumbra of the infarction is harder to treat than the core

d)

Necrosis occurs when there is catastrophic loss of ATP

e)

Necrosis is pathological or physicological

18.

Autophagy serves the following functions (SATA)?

a)

Removal of damaged organelles

b)

Remodeling of scar tissue

c)

Digestion and recycling of damaged proteins via protease actions

d)

Recycling fuel or energy capacities of the cells

e)

Long-term storage of indigestible, toxic materials

19.

Macroautophagy is characterized by:

a)

Transport of proteins through a channel pore

b)

Bulk digestion of large intracellular components

c)

Infolding of the lysosomal membrane

d)

High pH within the lysosome

e)

Net loss of fuel or bioenergetic resources

20.

The ubiquitin proteasome system is characterized by (SATA):

a)

Activation by nutrient deficiency such as starvation

b)

Chaperone-mediated recognition of damaged proteins

c)

Feeding of the linearized protein into the lysosomal vesicle

d)

Chewing up of proteins into peptides by the proteasome barrel

e)

Independence from ATP or any need for energy

21.

Cells in an organ are stressed and undergo a change to a new, mature, differentiated cell type. The patient undergoes a biopsy. The histologist report would say the cells are undergoing:

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Hypertrophy

d)

Atrophy

22.

A diabetic patient has necrosis in their extremities. From this information you judge that the following have occurred in the affected tissue of your patient (SATA):

a)

Inflammation and lose of membrane integrity

b)

Leakage of lysosomal enzymes and matrix damage

c)

Evidence of DNA cleavage and fragmentation

d)

Atrophic changes in necrotic cells

23.

Your patient is on proton pump inhibitors for their GERD. They tell you they have also developed a condition called Barrett’s esophagus. What can you tell them about the changes in their esophagus?

a)

I explain the change from normal columnar epithelium to newly stratified squamous epithelium

b)

I explain the change form stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium

c)

I tell them the cells have increased in number with no change in cell type

d)

I tell them metaplasia is irreversible

e)

I tell them their cells have failed to respond to acidic environment

24.

When cardiac muscle is severely damaged by loss of oxygen and nutrients, cardiocytes cannot easily regenerate. Thus, severely injured heart tissues might respond to injury by displaying:

a)

Metaplasia and atrophy

b)

Hyperplasia and atrophy

c)

Fibrosis or scarring

d)

Cell division and proliferation

25.

If Bcl-2 and BclXL overwhelm any activation of p53, the cell will show direct or indirect inhibition of the following (SATA):

a)

Caspase cascade activation

b)

Reversible DNA fragmentation

c)

Cytoskeletal construction and renewal

d)

Cytochrome C leakage into cytoplasm

e)

Bax and Bak dimerization

26.

If Bax and Bak fail to dimerize, what will happen?

a)

The cell is more likely to die by apoptosis

b)

Cytochrome C cannot leak through the mitochondrial pore

c)

The cascade cascade will be initiated

d)

The cytoskeleton will break down and necrosis will commence

27.

Choose the true statements about the matrix (SATA):

a)

Matrices contribute to scar tissue formation

b)

The matrix contributes to stem cell attachment and tissue renewal

c)

The matrix is filled with lots of fluid in dense regular connective tissue

d)

The matrix of epithelial tissue is thin and barely visible

e)

Without vitamin C to crosslink collagen, fibrosis is impeded, and woulds may not heal

28.

Inflammation serves the following roles (SATA):

a)

Clearance of necrotic debris

b)

Tenderness at the site of injury

c)

Removal of apoptotic cells

d)

DNA fragmentation and caspase activation

e)

Would healing and repair

29.

The following statement about acute inflammation is true:

a)

Lymphocytes and macrophages predominate in acute inflammation

b)

Acute inflammation typically involves vascular proliferation and vessel regrowth

c)

Acute inflammation is transient, such as after a skin cut, cold virus, or the flu

d)

Bronchitis, tendonitis, and rheumatoid arthritis are acute inflammatory conditions

30.

Which of the following describe junctional retraction and/or endothelial contraction?

a)

The junctions between cells are removed in endothelial contraction

b)

Junctional retraction is immediate and lasts 15-30 minutes

c)

Endothelial contraction is a slower process than junctional retraction

d)

Endothelial contraction leads to fluid extravasation and tissue swelling

31.

During leukocyte trafficking and chemotaxis, the following processes are observed (SATA):

a)

Leukocytes migrate to the site of injury in response to chemical cues

b)

Integrins switch from a high affinity to low affinity form

c)

Selectins are upregulated on the endothelial cells at the site of injury

d)

Integins are involved in rolling and selectins are involved in firm adhesion

32.

The metabolism of arachidonic acid by lipoxygenase leads to the following downstream products:

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Histamine

c)

Leukotrienes

d)

Thromboxanes

33.

If you wanted to block the action of phospholipase A2 to reduce arachidonic acid synthesis, you would apply the following:

a)

Zileuton

b)

Montelukast

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Steroids

e)

Aspirin

34.

If you wanted to reduce pain and fever by inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes, you would apply the following:

a)

Aspirin

b)

Zileuton

c)

Montelukast

d)

Lipoxins

e)

Thromboxanes

35.

The following describes the principles of chemical mediators

a)

They are activated far from the site of injury

b)

They are long-lived and decay slowly

c)

They have redundant or overlapping functions

d)

They work independently of their concentration

36.

You are told by your professor that a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) is activated by pilocarpine (a drug used to treat glaucoma). However, the professor fails to tell you what subtype of G-protein is activated. He only tells you that intercellular Ca+2 is increased following pilocarpine binding to the GPCR. Using this information, you deduce that the G-protein being activated by pilocarpine is________ 1 _______.

(a)  

37.

You are told by your professor that a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) is activated by pilocarpine (a drug used to treat glaucoma). However, the professor fails to tell you what subtype of G-protein is activated. He only tells you that intercellular Ca+2 is increased following pilocarpine binding to the GPCR. Using this information, you deduce that the G-protein being activated by pilocarpine is G alpha q. You also know the Ca+2 is increasing in the cytosol because ______ 1 _____ binds to _________ 2 _________ -gated ion channels on the _______ 3 ___________. (separate with commas (ex: 1, 2, 3))

(a)  

38.

You are told by your professor that a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) is activated by pilocarpine (a drug used to treat glaucoma). However, the professor fails to tell you what subtype of G-protein is activated. He only tells you that intercellular Ca+2 is increased following pilocarpine binding to the GPCR. Using this information, you deduce that the G-protein being activated by pilocarpine is G alpha q. You also know the Ca+2 is increasing in the cytosol because IP3 binds to ligand-gated ion channels on the smooth ER. When the channel is open, Ca+2 moves _________ 1 _______ (DOWN/UP) its concentration gradient via ___________ 2 _________ (PASSIVE/ACTIVE) transport. (separate with commas (ex: 1, 2))

(a)  

39.

An infolding of the lysosomal membrane and engulfment of small particles is known as

(a)  

40.

The proteins that guide the damaged proteins to the lysosome and the ubiquitin proteasome system are known as _

(a)  

41.

When tissues cannot adapt to injury and the cells begin to die, two remaining options are (___ or ___)

(a)  

42.

If the matrix is severely damaged, cells cannot regenerate easily and the preferred tissue response is

(a)  

43.

Identify two substances that are common in the matrix (separate with commas)

(a)  

44.

Which supplement is sometimes taken by athletes to fortify the stiffness of cartilage?

(a)  

45.

(a)   arthritis is believed to be caused by the body actively destroying its own joints and bones.

46.

Identify one key function of connective tissue (can be one word)

(a)  

47.

Identify one key function of epithelial tissue (can be one word)

(a)  

48.

List one principle of chemical mediators

(a)  

49.

Diphenhydramine is used to treat the symptom of

(a)  

50.

The professional phagocytes of the immune system are the

(a)  

51.

The factor (a)   encourages the regrowth of blood vessels

52.

The factor (a)   encourages the formation of fibers.

53.

The drug (a)   selectively inhibits inducible cyclooxygenase 2.

54.

The drug (a)   inhibits constitutive cyclooxygenase 1

55.

Name an endogenous anti-inflammatory molecule

(a)  

56.

(a)   are involved in weak adhesion/rolling

57.

(a)   are involved in firm adhesion

58.

The movement of white blood cells toward a chemoattractant stimulus is known as

(a)  

59.

The type of leukocyte that produces antibodies is known as the

(a)  

60.

The type of leukocyte that is the first responder is the

(a)  

61.

List three cardinal signs of inflammation:

(a)  

62.

What is homeostasis?

(a)  

63.

What are the two types of feedback loops? (separate with commas)

(a)  

64.

List the components of the feedback loops. (separate with commas)

(a)  

65.

What role does the receptor play in feedback loops?

a)

to detect the change

b)

decides what actions to take

c)

carries out the actions to maintain homeostasis

66.

What role does the control center play in feedback loops?

a)

to detect the change

b)

decides what actions to take

c)

carries out the actions to maintain homeostasis

67.

What role does the effector play in feedback loops?

a)

to detect the change

b)

decides what actions to take

c)

carries out the actions to maintain homeostasis

68.

Is TSH positive or negative feedback?

(a)  

69.

Is this negative or positive feedback?

(a)  

70.

An athlete can run a marathon in 2 hours 15 minutes on a dry day in outside temperatures up to 35°C (95oF). If the air is dry, their body will not overheat. However, in humid conditions, if the outside temperature goes over 18°C (64.4oF) then their body will overheat. Tip: think of dry day vs. humid day

4 lines
71.

Would glucose be transported into a cell that has an intracellular sodium concentration of 100mM, an extracellular sodium concentration of 10mM, and no functioning sodium/potassium pumps in the plasma membrane?

(a)  

72.

A particular neurotransmitter is known to elicit six different responses in its target cell completely through the cyclic AMP system. A drug is found that eliminates one of these responses but not the other five. Which of the following, if any, could the dru be blocking: the neurotransmitter's receptor, Gs protein, adenylyl cyclase, or cyclic AMP?

Explain your answer.

(a)  

73.

A farmer's hand and forearm are badly crushed in a hay baler (meaning the cells in his hand and forearm are also crushed). When examined at the hospital, his blood (extracellular fluid) potassium level is found to be abnormal. Would you expect it to be higher or lower than normal?

(a)  

74.

Refer to figure. What would be the effect on S1 and P if negative feedback was removed?

(a)  

75.

Several hours after a meal, blood glucose levels begin to drop, prompting the pancreas to secrete glucagon. Glucagon causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, raising blood glucose levels. Is this negative or positive feedback?

(a)  

76.

During exercise, an increase in body temperature causes the body to produce sweat. As the sweat vaporizes, the body cools down due to evaporative cooling. Is this negative or positive feedback?

(a)  

77.

After eating, blood glucose levels rise, stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas. Insulin causes cells to uptake glucose from the blood, lowering blood glucose levels. Is this positive or negative feedback?

(a)  

78.

After childbirth, high levels of protein induce lactation in the mother. During nursing, infant suckling triggers the release of more prolactin, which further stimulates lactation. Is this positive or negative feedback?

(a)  

79.

Structure that can be observed with the naked eye is called

a)

Gross anatomy

b)

Ultrastructure

c)

Microscopic anatomy

d)

Histology

e)

Cytology

80.

A self-amplifying chain of physiological events is called

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Dynamic feedback

d)

Homeostasis

e)

Metabolism

81.

A difference in chemical concentration between one point and another is called a concentration (a)   .

82.

The tendency of the body to maintain stable internal conditions is called (a)   .

83.

Self-corrective mechanisms in physiology are called (a)   loops.

84.

What is wrong with this statement: We usually depend on positive feedback to restore homeostasis balance and have a beneficial effect on the body.

(a)  

85.

What is wrong with this statement: There are far more cells than organelles in the body.

(a)  

86.

What is wrong with this statement: Matter doesn’t generally move down a gradient in the body unless the body expends metabolic energy to move it.

(a)  

87.

What is wrong with this statement: Negative feedback usually has a negative (harmful) effect on the body.

(a)  

88.

What is the biological purpose of inflammation?

a)

To remove the cause of injury

b)

To remove necrotic cells and tissues resulting from the original insult

c)

The infection is severe

d)

The eliciting agent resists eradication

89.

When can inflammation become injurious?

a)

To remove the cause of injury

b)

Directed at self-antigens in autoimmune diseases or directed at harmless antigens

c)

The infection is severe

d)

The eliciting agent resists eradication

e)

To remove necrotic cells and tissues resulting from the original insult

90.

Which of the following are included in the five signs of inflammation?

a)

Heat production

b)

Redness

c)

Swelling

d)

Pain/suffering

e)

Function loss

91.

Which of the following are included in the five signs of inflammation?

a)

Calor

b)

Rubor

c)

Tumor

d)

Dolor

e)

Functio laesa

92.

Diabetic gangrene teaches us that vasodilation is good. Explain.

a)

Brings blood to the damaged region

b)

More white blood cells to the damaged region

c)

Involves collagen remodeling

d)

Removal of dead cells

93.

What are the main types of leukocytes in the blood?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Basophil

e)

Neutrophil

94.

What are the functions of a lymphocyte?

a)

Chronic inflammation and immune memory

b)

2nd responders

c)

(Bcell) antibody producers and (Tcell) kills infected host cells

d)

Produce cytokines (cell movers)

95.

What are the functions of a monocyte?

a)

Chronic inflammation and immune memory

b)

2nd responders

c)

Phagocytoses (big eaters) and cleaners of the battlefield

d)

Produce cytokines (cell movers)

96.

What are the functions of an eosinophil?

a)

Produces reactive oxygen species

b)

2nd responders

c)

Phagocytoses (big eaters) and cleaners of the battlefield

d)

Produce cytokines (cell movers)

97.

What are the functions of a basophil?

a)

Produces reactive oxygen species

b)

Release histamine and heparin to help reduce clotting

c)

Phagocytoses (big eaters) and cleaners of the battlefield

d)

Common with allergies and parasitic infections

98.

What are the functions of a neutrophil?

a)

Most common white blood cell

b)

Has multiple nuclei

c)

1st responders

d)

Shorted lived phagocyte that releases disinfectants

99.

Which cell type in blood responds to inflammation first?

(a)  

100.

Which cell type in blood responds to inflammation second?

(a)  

101.

What are leukocytes “chasing” when they undergo chemotaxis and infiltrate tissue?

a)

Cytokines

b)

Chemokines

c)

Chemical mediators

d)

Integrins

102.

What statements about acute inflammation are true?

a)

Examples are a skin cut, cold, and flu

b)

Involves collagen remodeling and removing dead cells

c)

Lasts days to years

d)

Resolves, repairs, regenerates

e)

Lasts minutes to days

103.

What statements about chronic inflammation are true?

a)

Examples are tuberculosis, bronchitis, rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Involves collagen remodeling and removing dead cells

c)

Lasts days to years

d)

Involves vascular proliferation

e)

Lasts minutes to days

104.

What is contraction of endothelial cells?

a)

Intercellular gaps in blood vessels elicited by chemical mediators histamine, bradykinin, and leuktrienes

b)

Leads to gaps in blood vessels from changes in the cytoskeleton.

c)

Lasts 15-30 minutes

d)

Elicited by chemical mediators such as tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and interleukins (IL)

e)

Takes 4-6hrs to develop and lasts 24hrs or longer

105.

What is junctional retraction of endothelial cells?

a)

Intercellular gaps in blood vessels elicited by chemical mediators histamine, bradykinin, and leuktrienes

b)

Leads to gaps in blood vessels from changes in the cytoskeleton.

c)

Lasts 15-30 minutes

d)

Elicited by chemical mediators such as tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and interleukins (IL)

e)

Takes 4-6hrs to develop and lasts 24hrs or longer

106.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Squamous

b)

Columnar

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Discoid

107.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Squamous

b)

Columnar

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Discoid

108.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Squamous

b)

Columnar

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Discoid

109.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Squamous

b)

Columnar

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Discoid

110.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Spheroidal

b)

Stellate

c)

Cuboidal

d)

Discoid

111.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Spheroidal

b)

Stellate

c)

Fibrous

d)

Fusiform

112.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Spheroidal

b)

Stellate

c)

Fibrous

d)

Fusiform

113.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Spheroidal

b)

Polygonal

c)

Fibrous

d)

Fusiform

114.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Spheroidal

b)

Polygonal

c)

Fibrous

d)

Fusiform

115.

What are the functions of the cytoskeleton?

a)

Helps with cell movement

b)

Helps with cell division

c)

Helps with cell organization

d)

Helps with cell shape

116.

What are the functions of microfilaments?

a)

Helps with cell division

b)

The target of chemotherapy

c)

Helps with structure

d)

Helps with function

117.

What organelles have two membranes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Mitochondria

c)

ER

d)

Nucleus

e)

Ribosomes

118.

What organelles have one membranes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosomes

c)

ER

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Peroxisomes

119.

What organelles have no membranes?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Centrosomes

c)

Inclusions

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Proteasomes

120.

What organelles have one membrane?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosomes

c)

ER

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Peroxisomes

121.

What is anatomy?

a)

The study of the structure/body

b)

The study of the functions in the body

c)

The study of the causes and effects of diseases

122.

What is physiology?

a)

The study of the structure/body

b)

The study of the functions in the body

c)

The study of the causes and effects of diseases

123.

What is pathology?

a)

The study of the structure/body

b)

The study of the functions in the body

c)

The study of the causes and effects of diseases

124.

What is a down gradient?

a)

Going from a high concentration to a low concentration

b)

Going from a low concentration to a high concentration

125.

What is an up gradient?

a)

Going from a high concentration to a low concentration

b)

Going from a low concentration to a high concentration

126.

What is an example of a pressure gradient?

a)

Blood flow from the heart

b)

Glucose into the cells

c)

Na+ into cells

d)

Heat loss from blood circulation

127.

What is an example of a chemical gradient?

a)

Blood flow from the heart

b)

Glucose into the cells

c)

Na+ into cells

d)

Heat loss from blood circulation

128.

What is an example of an electrical gradient?

a)

Blood flow from the heart

b)

Glucose into the cells

c)

Na+ into cells

d)

Heat loss from blood circulation

129.

What is an example of a thermal gradient?

a)

Blood flow from the heart

b)

Glucose into the cells

c)

Na+ into cells

d)

Heat loss from blood circulation

130.

What is exocytosis?

a)

Transport through the cell membrane

b)

Solvent is moving; tonicity (hypo, hyper, iso)

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Form a fusion pore where the vesicle contents is released

131.

What is transcytosis?

a)

Transport through the cell membrane crossing through the cell

b)

Solvent is moving; tonicity (hypo, hyper, iso)

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Form a fusion pore where the vesicle contents is released

132.

What is endocytosis?

a)

Receptor-mediated

b)

Solvent is moving; tonicity (hypo, hyper, iso)

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Absorptive

133.

What is Glycocalyx?

a)

Unique in everyone except identical twins

b)

Protects the cell

c)

Provides immunity and cell adhesion

d)

Helps with fertilization and transplant compatibility

134.

What is the central dogma for Pathophysiology?

(a)  

135.

What is hypertonic tissue?

a)

Increase in cell size, no change in cell number

Tissues that cannot divide easily

b)

Decrease in cell size, no change in cell number

Shrinkage/adipose tissue after dieting or malnutrition

c)

Increase in cell number, increase in cell division, increase in proliferation, no change in size

d)

Decrease in cell number, no change in size

Often together with shrinkage

e)

Change in new, mature tissue type

Big 3-D change in structure

136.

What is atrophy tissue?

a)

Increase in cell size, no change in cell number

Tissues that cannot divide easily

b)

Decrease in cell size, no change in cell number

Shrinkage/adipose tissue after dieting or malnutrition

c)

Increase in cell number, increase in cell division, increase in proliferation, no change in size

d)

Decrease in cell number, no change in size

Often together with shrinkage

e)

Change in new, mature tissue type

Big 3-D change in structure

137.

What is hyperplasia tissue?

a)

Increase in cell size, no change in cell number

Tissues that cannot divide easily

b)

Decrease in cell size, no change in cell number

Shrinkage/adipose tissue after dieting or malnutrition

c)

Increase in cell number, increase in cell division, increase in proliferation, no change in size

d)

Decrease in cell number, no change in size

Often together with shrinkage

e)

Change in new, mature tissue type

Big 3-D change in structure

138.

What is cell death?

a)

Increase in cell size, no change in cell number

Tissues that cannot divide easily

b)

Decrease in cell size, no change in cell number

Shrinkage/adipose tissue after dieting or malnutrition

c)

Increase in cell number, increase in cell division, increase in proliferation, no change in size

d)

Decrease in cell number, no change in size

Often together with shrinkage

e)

Change in new, mature tissue type

Big 3-D change in structure

139.

What is metaplasia?

a)

Increase in cell size, no change in cell number

Tissues that cannot divide easily

b)

Decrease in cell size, no change in cell number

Shrinkage/adipose tissue after dieting or malnutrition

c)

Increase in cell number, increase in cell division, increase in proliferation, no change in size

d)

Decrease in cell number, no change in size

Often together with shrinkage

e)

Change in new, mature tissue type

Big 3-D change in structure

140.

What statements about necrosis are true?

a)

Accidental and very difficult to treat due to severe types of injury

b)

Cells swell and there is a loss of membrane integrity

c)

Loss of energy

d)

Shrink in size and have membrane apoptotic blebs. The membrane is intact

e)

Leakage of intracellular contents into extracellular matrix leads to activation of inflammatory cascades

141.

What statements about apoptosis are true?

a)

The cell can self-destruct and it is easier to interfere with drugs due to the milder types of injury

b)

Cells swell and there is a loss of membrane integrity

c)

Cellular suicide

d)

Shrink in size and have membrane apoptotic blebs. The membrane is intact

e)

Leakage of intracellular contents into extracellular matrix leads to activation of inflammatory cascades

142.

What statements about regeneration are true?

a)

Replacement with new cells

b)

Scarring

c)

If matrix is severely damaged and cannot return to normalcy

d)

Matrix MUST be okay to allow a return to normalcy

e)

Examples are skin and liver

143.

What statements about fibrosis are true?

a)

Still a stable structure but last resort when you cannot renew cells

b)

Scarring

c)

If matrix is severely damaged and cannot return to normalcy

d)

Matrix MUST be okay to allow a return to normalcy

e)

Examples are heart and lung

144.

What two determinants dictate whether the cells will choose the necrotic route?

a)

Loss of ATP

b)

DNA cleavage

c)

Loss of membrane integrity

d)

Achieve new equilibrium

145.

Why might apoptosis be adaptive?

a)

Rid of dysfunctional cells

b)

Loss of ATP

c)

Save on fuel

d)

Achieve new equilibrium

146.

Explain the main differences between apoptosis and necrosis?

a)

Inflammation

b)

DNA cleavage

c)

Lack of DNA cleavage

d)

When the matrix is damaged

147.

What are the pro-apoptotic proteins in the intrinsic apoptotic cascade?

a)

Bak

b)

BcL-2

c)

BcL-XL

d)

Bax

148.

What are the pro-survival proteins in the intrinsic apoptotic cascade?

a)

Bak

b)

BcL-2

c)

BcL-XL

d)

Bax

149.

What are examples of when hypertrophy will occur?

a)

Exercising muscle

b)

Increase in blood pressure

c)

Starvation

d)

Disuse of muscle

150.

What are examples of when atrophy will occur?

a)

Exercising muscle

b)

Increase in blood pressure

c)

Starvation

d)

Disuse of muscle

151.

Explain how cell death and atrophy cause a change in organ size.

(a)  

152.

What might be the benefit of a larger cell volume?

(a)  

153.

What might be the benefit of a smaller cell volume?

(a)  

154.

How is hyperplasia different from cancer?

a)

Hyperplasia is functional. Cancer is nonfunctional.

b)

Cancer is functional. Hyperplasia is nonfunctional.

c)

Cancer is not abate when sitmulus recedes.

d)

Hyperplasia is not abate when stimulus recedes.

155.

What are some examples of hyperplasia?

a)

A skin callus

b)

GERD

c)

Kidney control

d)

Barrett's esphagus

156.

What are some examples of metaplasia?

a)

A skin callus

b)

GERD

c)

Kidney control

d)

Barrett's esphagus

157.

What is autophagy?

a)

Lysosomal digestions of cells own components and is dependent on energy

b)

Lysosome invaginates and engulfs aggregated proteins. Proteins are degraded by acidic lysosomal hydrolases/proteases

c)

Bulk enclosure of protein aggregates in vesicles called autophagosomes. Autophagosomes fuses with lysosomes to form autophagolysosomes

d)

Misfolded proteins are shuttled to lysosomes by chaperones. They are then unfolded and translocated across membrane into lysosomes for degradation

158.

What is microautophagy?

a)

Lysosomal digestions of cells own components and is dependent on energy

b)

Lysosome invaginates and engulfs aggregated proteins. Proteins are degraded by acidic lysosomal hydrolases/proteases

c)

Bulk enclosure of protein aggregates in vesicles called autophagosomes. Autophagosomes fuses with lysosomes to form autophagolysosomes

d)

Misfolded proteins are shuttled to lysosomes by chaperones. They are then unfolded and translocated across membrane into lysosomes for degradation

159.

What is macroautophagy?

a)

Lysosomal digestions of cells own components and is dependent on energy

b)

Lysosome invaginates and engulfs aggregated proteins. Proteins are degraded by acidic lysosomal hydrolases/proteases

c)

Bulk enclosure of protein aggregates in vesicles called autophagosomes. Autophagosomes fuses with lysosomes to form autophagolysosomes

d)

Misfolded proteins are shuttled to lysosomes by chaperones. They are then unfolded and translocated across membrane into lysosomes for degradation

160.

What is chaperone-mediated autophagy?

a)

Lysosomal digestions of cells own components and is dependent on energy

b)

Lysosome invaginates and engulfs aggregated proteins. Proteins are degraded by acidic lysosomal hydrolases/proteases

c)

Bulk enclosure of protein aggregates in vesicles called autophagosomes. Autophagosomes fuses with lysosomes to form autophagolysosomes

d)

Misfolded proteins are shuttled to lysosomes by chaperones. They are then unfolded and translocated across membrane into lysosomes for degradation

161.

How does the proteasome degrade misfolded proteins?

a)

Dependent on energy

b)

Activated by nutrient deficiency

c)

Free amino acids are recycled to new proteins

d)

Misfolded proteins are recognized by chaperone-proteins and attached to ubiquitin molecules

e)

Peptides are chewed up by cytoplasmic peptidases into free amino acids

162.

How do the four primary tissues differ from each other?

a)

Differ in matrix vs cells volumes

b)

Differ in structure and functions

c)

Don't all contain matrices

d)

Don't all contain a basement membrane

163.

What are the primary tissues?

a)

Epithelial tissues

b)

Connective tissues

c)

Fibrous tissues

d)

Muscular tissues

e)

Nervous tissues

164.

What are the functions of the extracellular matrix?

a)

Carry water, waste, nutrients, and hormones in and out

b)

Provide mechanical support. Known as the cell anchorage

c)

Allow tissues to heal and regenerate and control the growth and differentiation

d)

Contains one layer of of cells

e)

Named by shaped of cell

165.

What are the major types of epithelial tissues?

a)

Simple tissue

b)

Stomach tissues

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Stratified tissue

166.

Why are pseudostratified columnar epithelium not actually layered?

(a)  

167.

What is the difference between simple epithelial tissues and stratified epithelial tissues?

a)

Simple tissue contains one layer of cells, where stratified contains more than one layer

b)

Simple are named for its shape of apical, where stratified are named for its shape of cell

c)

Simple tissue contains multiple layers of cells, where stratified tissue contains one layer of cells

d)

Simple tissue is named for its shape of its cells, where stratified tissue are named for its shape of apical

168.

What is the basement membrane?

a)

It is the layer between epithelium and underlying connective tissue

b)

Contains collagen, laminin, fibronectin, and heparin sulfate

c)

Contains globet cells with mucus

d)

Anchors the epithelium to the connective tissue below it

169.

How are the stomach and esophageal epithelia different?

a)

The stomach has cilia

b)

The esophagus has cilia

c)

The stomach has microvilli

d)

The esophageal has microvilli

170.

How is the stomach and esophageal adaptive?

(a)  

171.

What function does goblet cells have?

(a)  

172.

What functions do connective tissues have?

a)

Binding organs and providing physical support and protection

b)

Assist in movement and transport

c)

Secrete mucus

d)

Provide an immune defense, heat production, and storage

173.

What is the name of the disease of connective tissue that is caused by a vitamin C deficiency?

(a)  

174.

Does dense connective tissue heal slowly or quickly?

(a)  

175.

What are the primary functions of neurons?

a)

Detect stimuli

b)

Respond quickly and transmit coded information to other cells

c)

Contains more fluids

d)

Decreases vitamin C

176.

What is the neurosoma?

a)

Cell center of genetic control and protein synthesis

b)

Receives signals from other cells

c)

Sends outgoing signals to other cells

177.

What are dendrites?

a)

Cell center of genetic control and protein synthesis

b)

Receives signals from other cells

c)

Sends outgoing signals to other cells

178.

What are axons?

a)

Cell center of genetic control and protein synthesis

b)

Receives signals from other cells

c)

Sends outgoing signals to other cells

179.

What are the primary functions of glia?

a)

Detect stimuli

b)

Respond quickly and transmit coded information to other cells

c)

Protect and assist neurons

d)

Decreases vitamin C

180.

What do all types of muscles have in common with neurons?

(a)  

181.

What are skeletal muscles?

a)

Voluntary control, attached to bone, contains myofibers

b)

Involuntary, limited to heart. Intercalated discs join cardiocytes end to end

c)

Involuntary, propel contents through organ, blood vessels

182.

What are cardiac muscles?

a)

Voluntary control, attached to bone, contains myofibers

b)

Involuntary, limited to heart. Intercalated discs join cardiocytes end to end

c)

Involuntary, propel contents through organ, blood vessels

183.

What are smooth muscles?

a)

Voluntary control, attached to bone, contains myofibers

b)

Involuntary, limited to heart. Intercalated discs join cardiocytes end to end

c)

Involuntary, propel contents through organ, blood vessels

184.

What are the types of muscle?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Rough

d)

Smooth

185.

What are different about the types of muscle?

a)

Skeletal muscle moves bones

b)

Skeletal muscle is found in sphincter muscle and tongue muscle

c)

Cardiocytes are only located in heart muscle

d)

Smooth muscle is involuntary and found in visceral muscle which is important in blood vessels

e)

Cardiocytes provide mechanical and chemical communication. Intercalated discs join cardiocytes end to end