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WorksheetsAstronomy Review
Total questions: 128
Worksheet time: 32hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a light-year?
a)
The distance light travels in 1 year about 9.46 times 10^12 kilometers
b)
Hundreds of billions
c)
Continuous and repeated observing, modeling, predicting and testing
d)
4.3 light-years
2.
About how many stars are in our Galaxy (The Milky Way Galaxy)?
a)
The distance light travels in 1 year about 9.46 times 10^12 kilometers
b)
Hundreds of billions
c)
Continuous and repeated observing, modeling, predicting and testing
d)
4.3 light-years
3.
Which of the following best describes the scientific method?
a)
The distance light travels in 1 year about 9.46 times 10^12 kilometers
b)
Hundreds of billions
c)
Continuous and repeated observing, modeling, predicting and testing
d)
4.3 light-years
4.
About how far is it to the nearest star beyond the Sun?
a)
The distance light travels in 1 year about 9.46 times 10^12 kilometers
b)
Hundreds of billions
c)
Continuous and repeated observing, modeling, predicting and testing
d)
4.3 light-years
5.
In powers of ten (scientific notation), what is the distance to the Sun from Earth?
a)
1.5 x 10^8 km
b)
A little over 2 million years ago
c)
8 minutes
d)
Universe, Local Group, Milky Way, Solar System
6.
The Andromeda galaxy is the closest spiral galaxy a little more than 2 million light-years away. The light we see today from the Andromeda galaxy was emitted how long ago?
a)
1.5 x 10^8 km
b)
A little over 2 million years ago
c)
8 minutes
d)
Universe, Local Group, Milky Way, Solar System
7.
About how long does it take light to reach Earth from the Sun?
a)
1.5 x 10^8 km
b)
A little over 2 million years ago
c)
8 minutes
d)
Universe, Local Group, Milky Way, Solar System
8.
Which of the choices below correctly lists things in order from LARGEST to SMALLEST?
a)
1.5 x 10^8 km
b)
A little over 2 million years ago
c)
8 minutes
d)
Universe, Local Group, Milky Way, Solar System
9.
What is the name for the smallest particle of an element?
a)
Atom
b)
An atom
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Helium
10.
Nearly 100 different kinds of elements exist in nature. What is the name for the smallest possible piece of an element?
a)
Atom
b)
An atom
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Helium
11.
What is the most abundant element in the cosmos?
a)
Atom
b)
An atom
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Helium
12.
What is the second most abundant element in the cosmos?
a)
Atom
b)
An atom
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Helium
13.
What is the name of the element that has 6 protons?
a)
Carbon
b)
The farther out in space we look the longer light has taken to get here
c)
100,000 light years
d)
Helium
14.
What is the approximate distance of the Earth from the Sun? One astronomical unit, about 8 light-minutes, AND about 150 million kilometers.
a)
One astronomical unit
b)
About 8 light-minutes
c)
150 million kilometers
d)
All of the above
15.
Which of the following is NOT part of the scientific method? Modifying your experiment to fit the known facts/Observing something/Coming up with an explanation/Making a prediction Modifying your experiment to fit the known facts.
a)
Modifying your experiment to fit the known facts
b)
Observing something
c)
Coming up with an explanation
d)
Making a prediction Modifying your experiment to fit the known facts
e)
All of the above
16.
Which of the following objects is the largest? A galaxy cluster/A star like the Sun/A galaxy/A planet A galaxy cluster
a)
A galaxy cluster
b)
A star like the Sun
c)
A galaxy
d)
A planet
17.
What is the consequence of light travel time?
a)
Carbon
b)
The farther out in space we look the longer light has taken to get here
c)
100,000 light years
d)
Helium
18.
About how big across is a typical galaxy?
a)
Carbon
b)
The farther out in space we look the longer light has taken to get here
c)
100,000 light years
d)
Helium
19.
What is the fundamental difference between one element and another?
a)
The number of protons in the nucleus
b)
100,000 light-years
c)
The study of objects beyond planet Earth and how these objects interact
d)
Be continuously tested
20.
What is the approximate diameter of the Milky Way Galaxy?
a)
The number of protons in the nucleus
b)
100,000 light-years
c)
The study of objects beyond planet Earth and how these objects interact
d)
Be continuously tested
21.
What is astronomy?
a)
The number of protons in the nucleus
b)
100,000 light-years
c)
The study of objects beyond planet Earth and how these objects interact
d)
Be continuously tested
22.
An effective theory must…
a)
The number of protons in the nucleus
b)
100,000 light-years
c)
The study of objects beyond planet Earth and how these objects interact
d)
Be continuously tested
23.
When first proposed, what is a new model in science sometimes called?
a)
A hypothesis
b)
The distance light travels in one year
c)
They describe the rules of the game that nature plays and are the same everywhere in the universe
d)
Molecule
24.
What is a "light-year"?
a)
A hypothesis
b)
The distance light travels in one year
c)
They describe the rules of the game that nature plays and are the same everywhere in the universe
d)
Molecule
25.
What is important about scientific laws?
a)
A hypothesis
b)
The distance light travels in one year
c)
They describe the rules of the game that nature plays and are the same everywhere in the universe
d)
Molecule
26.
What is the name for the smallest unit of a substance that still has the chemical properties of the substance?
a)
A hypothesis
b)
The distance light travels in one year
c)
They describe the rules of the game that nature plays and are the same everywhere in the universe
d)
Molecule
27.
What is the zenith?
a)
The point in the sky directly above your head
b)
88
c)
The apparent backwards motion of a planet in a direction opposite to its normal progress against the fixed stars
d)
26,000 years
28.
How many constellations are there?
a)
The point in the sky directly above your head
b)
88
c)
The apparent backwards motion of a planet in a direction opposite to its normal progress against the fixed stars
d)
26,000 years
29.
What is retrograde motion?
a)
The point in the sky directly above your head
b)
88
c)
The apparent backwards motion of a planet in a direction opposite to its normal progress against the fixed stars
d)
26,000 years
30.
How long is the precession cycle?
a)
The point in the sky directly above your head
b)
88
c)
The apparent backwards motion of a planet in a direction opposite to its normal progress against the fixed stars
d)
26,000 years
31.
What is an epicycle?
a)
A small circular orbit around a planet's deferent proposed by Ptolemy to explain retrograde motion
b)
That the orbits of planets were perfect circles
c)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
d)
None. Astrology fails to statistical predict reenlistment as a Marine
32.
What is an example of a traditional prejudice that Copernicus could not free himself from in his proposal for the solar system?
a)
A small circular orbit around a planet's deferent proposed by Ptolemy to explain retrograde motion
b)
That the orbits of planets were perfect circles
c)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
d)
None. Astrology fails to statistical predict reenlistment as a Marine
33.
Seasons on Earth are primarily caused by what?
a)
A small circular orbit around a planet's deferent proposed by Ptolemy to explain retrograde motion
b)
That the orbits of planets were perfect circles
c)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
d)
None. Astrology fails to statistical predict reenlistment as a Marine
34.
When astrology is tested statistically what is the astrologic sign that is found to be the best predictor of being in the US Marine Corp?
a)
A small circular orbit around a planet's deferent proposed by Ptolemy to explain retrograde motion
b)
That the orbits of planets were perfect circles
c)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
d)
None. Astrology fails to statistical predict reenlistment as a Marine
35.
Which ancient Greek astronomer discovered the precession of the Earth?
a)
Hipparchus
b)
The motions of the planets
c)
Stonehenge
d)
The path the Sun appears to trace around the celestial sphere each year
36.
During the birth of modern astronomy, what were astronomers trying to predict?
a)
Hipparchus
b)
The motions of the planets
c)
Stonehenge
d)
The path the Sun appears to trace around the celestial sphere each year
37.
What is the name of the ancient observatory found in southern England?
a)
Hipparchus
b)
The motions of the planets
c)
Stonehenge
d)
The path the Sun appears to trace around the celestial sphere each year
38.
What is the ecliptic?
a)
Hipparchus
b)
The motions of the planets
c)
Stonehenge
d)
The path the Sun appears to trace around the celestial sphere each year
39.
Has Polaris always been the "North Star"?
a)
No, because the Earth's axis slowly precesses every 26,000 years
b)
By comparing the lengths of shadows at noon on the same date in two cities at different latitudes
c)
As Earth overtakes another planet in its orbit, the other planet appears to change its direction of motion and move backward with respect to the distant background stars
d)
North Pole
40.
Which of the following never goes in retrograde motion?
a)
The Sun
b)
Pluto
c)
Saturn
d)
Jupiter
e)
Mars
41.
How did Eratosthenes estimate the size of Earth in 240 B.C.?
a)
No, because the Earth's axis slowly precesses every 26,000 years
b)
By comparing the lengths of shadows at noon on the same date in two cities at different latitudes
c)
As Earth overtakes another planet in its orbit, the other planet appears to change its direction of motion and move backward with respect to the distant background stars
d)
North Pole
42.
What causes the apparent retrograde motion of the planets?
a)
No, because the Earth's axis slowly precesses every 26,000 years
b)
By comparing the lengths of shadows at noon on the same date in two cities at different latitudes
c)
As Earth overtakes another planet in its orbit, the other planet appears to change its direction of motion and move backward with respect to the distant background stars
d)
North Pole
43.
Where on Earth would you be if Polaris was at your zenith?
a)
No, because the Earth's axis slowly precesses every 26,000 years
b)
By comparing the lengths of shadows at noon on the same date in two cities at different latitudes
c)
As Earth overtakes another planet in its orbit, the other planet appears to change its direction of motion and move backward with respect to the distant background stars
d)
North Pole
44.
What makes the North Star, Polaris, special?
a)
It is the star closest to the north celestial pole
b)
Retrograde motion
c)
The Earth
d)
Ptolemy
45.
When a planet appears to move in a "zig-zag" loop on the sky, it is called…
a)
It is the star closest to the north celestial pole
b)
Retrograde motion
c)
The Earth
d)
Ptolemy
46.
According to the geocentric model of the Solar System, what object is at the center of the Solar System?
a)
It is the star closest to the north celestial pole
b)
Retrograde motion
c)
The Earth
d)
Ptolemy
47.
Which ancient Greek astronomer constructed the most complete geocentric model of the solar system of all time?
a)
It is the star closest to the north celestial pole
b)
Retrograde motion
c)
The Earth
d)
Ptolemy
48.
The constellations of the zodiac fall along… the ecliptic
a)
The ecliptic
b)
88
c)
Copernicus
d)
Most constellations will be unrecognizable hundreds of years from now
49.
Into how many constellations is the celestial sphere divided?
a)
The ecliptic
b)
88
c)
Copernicus
d)
Most constellations will be unrecognizable hundreds of years from now
50.
Who became famous for rediscovering and promoting the heliocentric model of the Solar System?
a)
The ecliptic
b)
88
c)
Copernicus
d)
Most constellations will be unrecognizable hundreds of years from now
51.
Which of the following statements about constellations is false?
a)
The ecliptic
b)
88
c)
Copernicus
d)
Most constellations will be unrecognizable hundreds of years from now
52.
Which of the following statements about the celestial equator is true at all latitudes?
a)
It represents an extension of Earth's equator onto the celestial sphere
b)
p^2=a^3
c)
In an ellipse, half the widest diameter
d)
Earth's closest approach to the Sun
53.
What is Kepler's Third Law?
a)
It represents an extension of Earth's equator onto the celestial sphere
b)
p^2=a^3
c)
In an ellipse, half the widest diameter
d)
Earth's closest approach to the Sun
54.
What is the semimajor axis?
a)
It represents an extension of Earth's equator onto the celestial sphere
b)
p^2=a^3
c)
In an ellipse, half the widest diameter
d)
Earth's closest approach to the Sun
55.
What is the perihelion?
a)
It represents an extension of Earth's equator onto the celestial sphere
b)
p^2=a^3
c)
In an ellipse, half the widest diameter
d)
Earth's closest approach to the Sun
56.
Who was the 17th century astronomer who compiled roughly 20 years of continuous observations of the positions of the Sun, Moon, and planets?
a)
Tycho Brahe
b)
An ellipse
c)
Force
d)
Inertia
57.
Kepler showed that the orbit of a stable planet around a star like the Sun is always in the shape of....
a)
Tycho Brahe
b)
An ellipse
c)
Force
d)
Inertia
58.
Newton showed that to change the direction in which an object is moving, one needs to apply a…
a)
Tycho Brahe
b)
An ellipse
c)
Force
d)
Inertia
59.
The property that keeps objects (in the absence of an outside force) moving in a straight line is called…
a)
Tycho Brahe
b)
An ellipse
c)
Force
d)
Inertia
60.
An ice skater doing a spin with arms extended will speed up when they pull in their arms because…
a)
Angular momentum is conserved
b)
The Station is also falling around the Earth (and everything aboard is in free fall)
c)
Far from the Sun
d)
Full Moon
61.
Why do astronauts (and cans of soft drink) float around in the International Space Station instead of falling to the floor?
a)
Angular momentum is conserved
b)
The Station is also falling around the Earth (and everything aboard is in free fall)
c)
Far from the Sun
d)
Full Moon
62.
According to Kepler's 2nd Law, comets (which have eccentric orbits) should spend a lot more of their time…
a)
Angular momentum is conserved
b)
The Station is also falling around the Earth (and everything aboard is in free fall)
c)
Far from the Sun
d)
Full Moon
63.
What is the phase of the moon during a lunar eclipse?
a)
Angular momentum is conserved
b)
The Station is also falling around the Earth (and everything aboard is in free fall)
c)
Far from the Sun
d)
Full Moon
64.
What is the cause of the seasons?
a)
A hemisphere experiences summer when it is tilted towards the Sun and winter when tilted away.
b)
New moon
c)
The Earth's northern hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun
d)
Eclipses are rare events
65.
The Moon is rising at 6 AM (about sunrise). What must the phase be?
a)
A hemisphere experiences summer when it is tilted towards the Sun and winter when tilted away.
b)
New moon
c)
The Earth's northern hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun
d)
Eclipses are rare events
66.
Which of the following is the main reason it is hotter in summer in North America than in winter?
a)
A hemisphere experiences summer when it is tilted towards the Sun and winter when tilted away.
b)
New moon
c)
The Earth's northern hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun
d)
Eclipses are rare events
67.
The orbit of the Moon is tilted with respect to the Earth's orbit around the Sun. Because of this…
a)
A hemisphere experiences summer when it is tilted towards the Sun and winter when tilted away.
b)
New moon
c)
The Earth's northern hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun
d)
Eclipses are rare events
68.
The Moon is rising at noon. What must the phase be?
a)
First Quarter
b)
Full moon
c)
The Moon's orbit is tilted 5 degrees to the Sun Earth's solar orbit
d)
New moon
69.
A lunar eclipse can only happen during a…
a)
First Quarter
b)
Full moon
c)
The Moon's orbit is tilted 5 degrees to the Sun Earth's solar orbit
d)
New moon
70.
Why is there not a solar eclipse at every new moon?
a)
First Quarter
b)
Full moon
c)
The Moon's orbit is tilted 5 degrees to the Sun Earth's solar orbit
d)
New moon
71.
A solar eclipse can only happen during a…
a)
First Quarter
b)
Full moon
c)
The Moon's orbit is tilted 5 degrees to the Sun Earth's solar orbit
d)
New moon
72.
When the Moon is directly opposite the Sun in the sky, its phase is…
a)
Full
b)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
c)
The 23.5 degree tilt of the Earth's axis
d)
When the Earth's axis is parallel to its orbit and there is equal amounts of day and night everywhere
73.
Seasons on Earth are primarily caused by…
a)
Full
b)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
c)
The 23.5 degree tilt of the Earth's axis
d)
When the Earth's axis is parallel to its orbit and there is equal amounts of day and night everywhere
74.
What causes it to be winter in Australia when it is summer in North America?
a)
Full
b)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
c)
The 23.5 degree tilt of the Earth's axis
d)
When the Earth's axis is parallel to its orbit and there is equal amounts of day and night everywhere
75.
What is the equinox?
a)
Full
b)
The tilt of the Earth's rotational axis
c)
The 23.5 degree tilt of the Earth's axis
d)
When the Earth's axis is parallel to its orbit and there is equal amounts of day and night everywhere
76.
Why is it hotter in the summer compared to the winter?
a)
The Earth's tilt results in more daylight at a more direct angle in the summer
b)
At the equinox (both spring and fall)
c)
When the hemisphere has maximum tilt towards the Sun
d)
There would be no seasons
77.
When does every place on Earth have the same length of day and night?
a)
The Earth's tilt results in more daylight at a more direct angle in the summer
b)
At the equinox (both spring and fall)
c)
When the hemisphere has maximum tilt towards the Sun
d)
There would be no seasons
78.
What is the summer solstice?
a)
The Earth's tilt results in more daylight at a more direct angle in the summer
b)
At the equinox (both spring and fall)
c)
When the hemisphere has maximum tilt towards the Sun
d)
There would be no seasons
79.
What would be different if the Earth's axis was not tilted to its orbital plane?
a)
The Earth's tilt results in more daylight at a more direct angle in the summer
b)
At the equinox (both spring and fall)
c)
When the hemisphere has maximum tilt towards the Sun
d)
There would be no seasons
80.
A year is defined as…
a)
The time it takes for Earth to complete an orbit around the Sun
b)
Increases with the masses of the bodies, but decreases with the square of the distances between them
c)
The dust particle will continue in the same orbit as the Earth did, orbiting the Sun in 1 year
d)
A planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun
81.
The force of gravity between two objects…
a)
The time it takes for Earth to complete an orbit around the Sun
b)
Increases with the masses of the bodies, but decreases with the square of the distances between them
c)
The dust particle will continue in the same orbit as the Earth did, orbiting the Sun in 1 year
d)
A planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun
82.
The Earth is instantly replaced in its orbit by a speck of dust. Which statement best describes the subsequent orbital motion of that piece of dust?
a)
The time it takes for Earth to complete an orbit around the Sun
b)
Increases with the masses of the bodies, but decreases with the square of the distances between them
c)
The dust particle will continue in the same orbit as the Earth did, orbiting the Sun in 1 year
d)
A planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun
83.
Kepler's second law, which states that as a planet moves around its orbit it sweeps out equal areas in equal times, means that…
a)
The time it takes for Earth to complete an orbit around the Sun
b)
Increases with the masses of the bodies, but decreases with the square of the distances between them
c)
The dust particle will continue in the same orbit as the Earth did, orbiting the Sun in 1 year
d)
A planet travels faster when it is nearer to the Sun and slower when it is farther from the Sun
84.
Jupiter lies about 5 A.U. from the Sun, so at its distance…
a)
The Sun's gravity is 25 times weaker than its pull on the Earth
b)
A deviation between observed and model values that was much larger than the observation uncertainties
c)
The size of the A.U. and length of the year
d)
Be one fourth as great
85.
What led Kepler to abandon circular orbits and his discovery that planetary orbits are ellipses?
a)
The Sun's gravity is 25 times weaker than its pull on the Earth
b)
A deviation between observed and model values that was much larger than the observation uncertainties
c)
The size of the A.U. and length of the year
d)
Be one fourth as great
86.
Which of these was a contribution of Newton to astronomy?
a)
The Moon pulls as strongly on us as we do on it
b)
Artificial satellites could be put into orbit about the Earth
c)
The Sun's gravity is greatest on a planet at perihelion, so the planet must speed up
d)
His differential calculus lets us calculate planetary motions more accurately
e)
All of these were due to Newton's work
87.
Combining Newton's and Kepler's laws, we can determine the mass of the Sun, provided we know…
a)
The Sun's gravity is 25 times weaker than its pull on the Earth
b)
A deviation between observed and model values that was much larger than the observation uncertainties
c)
The size of the A.U. and length of the year
d)
Be one fourth as great
88.
If the distance between two asteroids is doubled, the gravitational force they exert on each other will…
a)
The Sun's gravity is 25 times weaker than its pull on the Earth
b)
A deviation between observed and model values that was much larger than the observation uncertainties
c)
The size of the A.U. and length of the year
d)
Be one fourth as great
89.
Which concept was NOT a part of Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion?
a)
Epicycles are needed to explain the varying brightness of the planets
b)
Both the product of the masses and the inverse square of their distance
c)
More than 2 Earth years
d)
4 astronomical units
90.
The force of gravity between two objects of mass M1 and M2 varies with…
a)
Epicycles are needed to explain the varying brightness of the planets
b)
Both the product of the masses and the inverse square of their distance
c)
More than 2 Earth years
d)
4 astronomical units
91.
From Kepler's third law, a hypothetical planet that is twice as far from the Sun as Earth should have a period of…
a)
Epicycles are needed to explain the varying brightness of the planets
b)
Both the product of the masses and the inverse square of their distance
c)
More than 2 Earth years
d)
4 astronomical units
92.
From Kepler's third law, an asteroid with an orbital period of 8 years lies at an average distance from the Sun equal to…
a)
Epicycles are needed to explain the varying brightness of the planets
b)
Both the product of the masses and the inverse square of their distance
c)
More than 2 Earth years
d)
4 astronomical units
93.
A planet whose distance from the Sun is 3 A.U. would have an orbital period of how many Earth-years?
a)
√27
b)
The distance between two adjacent crests
c)
Gamma rays
d)
Wien's law
94.
What is the wavelength of a wave?
a)
√27
b)
The distance between two adjacent crests
c)
Gamma rays
d)
Wien's law
95.
What is the highest energy (shortest wavelength) type of electromagnetic radiation?
a)
√27
b)
The distance between two adjacent crests
c)
Gamma rays
d)
Wien's law
96.
What is the name of the law that describes how to find the temperature of an object by knowing the wavelength at which the maximum power light is emitted?
a)
√27
b)
The distance between two adjacent crests
c)
Gamma rays
d)
Wien's law
97.
Electromagnetic radiation…
a)
Can behave both as a wave and as a particle
b)
How temperature changes the amount of power emitted per area
c)
300K
d)
10,300K
98.
What does the Stefan-Boltzmann law describe?
a)
Can behave both as a wave and as a particle
b)
How temperature changes the amount of power emitted per area
c)
300K
d)
10,300K
99.
A pleasant summer day is about what temperature on the Kelvin scale?
a)
Can behave both as a wave and as a particle
b)
How temperature changes the amount of power emitted per area
c)
300K
d)
10,300K
100.
According to Wien's law, an object which has maximum power light output at 290 nanometers (ultraviolet light) would have what surface temperature? 10,300 K
a)
Can behave both as a wave and as a particle
b)
How temperature changes the amount of power emitted per area
c)
300K
d)
10,300K
101.
In the atom, which particles determines the type of element it is (atomic number)?
a)
Protons
b)
1
c)
The discrete colors of light emitted by atoms
d)
Electrons in "orbits" around the nucleus
102.
How many neutrons are in the hydrogen isotope called deuterium?
a)
Protons
b)
1
c)
The discrete colors of light emitted by atoms
d)
Electrons in "orbits" around the nucleus
103.
What is an emission spectrum?
a)
Protons
b)
1
c)
The discrete colors of light emitted by atoms
d)
Electrons in "orbits" around the nucleus
104.
What atomic structure is the cause of emission lines?
a)
Protons
b)
1
c)
The discrete colors of light emitted by atoms
d)
Electrons in "orbits" around the nucleus
105.
What is the Doppler effect?
a)
The change in frequency and wavelength due to motion of a source relative to the observer
b)
Moving away from us
c)
256 times brighter
d)
The shortest wavelength of maximum brightness
106.
If an object is being redshifted, then it is…
a)
The change in frequency and wavelength due to motion of a source relative to the observer
b)
Moving away from us
c)
256 times brighter
d)
The shortest wavelength of maximum brightness
107.
According to Stefan's Law, if you have stars which are identical, except that one is 4 times hotter than the other, how much more light is emitted by the hotter star?
a)
The change in frequency and wavelength due to motion of a source relative to the observer
b)
Moving away from us
c)
256 times brighter
d)
The shortest wavelength of maximum brightness
108.
According to Wien's Law, the hottest objects have…
a)
The change in frequency and wavelength due to motion of a source relative to the observer
b)
Moving away from us
c)
256 times brighter
d)
The shortest wavelength of maximum brightness
109.
If a light wave's frequency doubles, its wavelength…
a)
Is halved
b)
The blue star has a hotter surface temperature than the red star
c)
Decrease by a factor of 2
d)
It looks bluer than normal
110.
Suppose you see two stars: a blue star and a red star. Which of the following can you conclude about the two stars? Assume that no Doppler shifts are involved. (Hint: Think about the laws of thermal radiation.)
a)
Is halved
b)
The blue star has a hotter surface temperature than the red star
c)
Decrease by a factor of 2
d)
It looks bluer than normal
111.
According to Wien's Law, if the surface temperature is increased by a factor of 2, its peak wavelength will…
a)
Is halved
b)
The blue star has a hotter surface temperature than the red star
c)
Decrease by a factor of 2
d)
It looks bluer than normal
112.
The Doppler effect tells us that if an object is emitting light and moving very fast towards us, then…
a)
Is halved
b)
The blue star has a hotter surface temperature than the red star
c)
Decrease by a factor of 2
d)
It looks bluer than normal
113.
The total energy radiated by a blackbody depends on…
a)
The fourth power of its temperature
b)
5000K
c)
3,000 K temperature
d)
6,000,000 m/s away from us
114.
According to Wien's law, a star with maximum power light output at 600 nanometers (orange light) would have about what surface temperature?
a)
The fourth power of its temperature
b)
5000K
c)
3,000 K temperature
d)
6,000,000 m/s away from us
115.
Blackbody objects emit different amounts of different colors of light, depending on how hot they are. For which temperature listed below would a blackbody object look most red to the human eye?
a)
The fourth power of its temperature
b)
5000K
c)
3,000 K temperature
d)
6,000,000 m/s away from us
116.
We observe a star's spectral line at 510 nm which is normally at 500 nm. How fast is the star moving towards or away from us?
a)
The fourth power of its temperature
b)
5000K
c)
3,000 K temperature
d)
6,000,000 m/s away from us
117.
The frequency of a wave is…
a)
Equal to the speed of the wave divided by the wavelength of the wave
b)
Measured in hertz (Hz)
c)
Measured in cycles per second
d)
The number of peaks passing by any point each second
e)
All of the above
118.
What is a wavelength?
a)
The distance between two adjacent peaks (crests).
b)
Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet
c)
Visible
d)
Proton
119.
Which answer below correctly lists the colors of the visible light spectrum in order from longest wavelength to shortest wavelength?
a)
The distance between two adjacent peaks (crests).
b)
Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet
c)
Visible
d)
Proton
120.
Which type of radiation can be observed well from Earth's surface?
a)
The distance between two adjacent peaks (crests).
b)
Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet
c)
Visible
d)
Proton
121.
A hydrogen atom consists of an electron and a(n)... proton
a)
The distance between two adjacent peaks (crests).
b)
Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet
c)
Visible
d)
Proton
122.
The particle which adds mass but no charge to the atomic nucleus is the…
a)
Neutron
b)
Transmits light well
c)
A few bright emission lines, telling us the gas is neon
d)
Only make transitions between orbitals of specific energies
123.
If a material is transparent, then it…
a)
Neutron
b)
Transmits light well
c)
A few bright emission lines, telling us the gas is neon
d)
Only make transitions between orbitals of specific energies
124.
A neon light (thin hot neon gas in a sealed tube) gives us…
a)
Neutron
b)
Transmits light well
c)
A few bright emission lines, telling us the gas is neon
d)
Only make transitions between orbitals of specific energies
125.
In Bohr's model of the atom, electrons…
a)
Neutron
b)
Transmits light well
c)
A few bright emission lines, telling us the gas is neon
d)
Only make transitions between orbitals of specific energies
126.
When an atom loses an electron, it becomes…
a)
Ionized
b)
Atom
c)
Emits a photon of a specific frequency
127.
An emission spectrum can be used to identify a(n)…
a)
ionized
b)
Atom
c)
Emits a photon of a specific frequency
128.
When an electron in an atom goes from a higher energy state to a lower energy state, the atom…
a)
ionized
b)
Atom
c)
Emits a photon of a specific frequency
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