wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Week 1 Lectures: Clinical decision making, perfusion/EKG

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the transference of responsibility and authority for an activity to a competent individual

(a)  

2.

After I delegate a task, I am no longer responsible for any consequences that follow.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Sometimes

3.

All of the following are the five rights of delegation except for:

-Right task

-Right time

-Right circumstance

-Right person

-Right medication

-Right assessment

-Right communication

-Right Supervision

a)

Right time

b)

Right task

c)

Right medication

d)

Right assessment

e)

Right communication

4.

Terrific Care Promotes Client Safety stands for...

a)

Delegation tasks to LPNs

b)

Rights of delegation

c)

Rights of medication administration

d)

Rights of nursing care

5.

Which of the following are rights of delegation?

a)

Right task

b)

Right circumstance

c)

Right person

d)

Right communication

e)

Right supervision

6.

Which of the following are delegable tasks to a qualified LPN?

a)

Teaching your patient ostomy care for the first time

b)

Administering medications

c)

Inserting a urinary catheter

d)

Tracheostomy care and suctioning

e)

Completing a head to toe assessment on your new admit

7.

Which of the following are delegable tasks to a qualified UAP?

a)

Assisting a post-op patient to the restroom

b)

Obtaining vital signs on an unstable patient

c)

Measuring urine output from a catheter

d)

Feeding a patient

e)

Recording what an oncology patient ate for lunch

8.

Tasks can be delegated if the client is unstable as long as it is supervised.

a)
Supervision is not required for task delegation.
b)

Tasks should never be delegated for an unstable client.

c)
Tasks can be assigned without supervision.
9.

Never delegate what you can...

a)

Evaluate

b)

Assess

c)

Teach

d)

Administer

e)

Document

10.

The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is

Appropriate for the RN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

A. Evaluate patient’s ability to cough effectively.

B. Assist patient to sitting position on the side of the bed.

C. Listen to breath sounds every 4-hours

D. Instruct the patient on use incentive spirometer.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

The nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and has had multiple episodes of sticky black stool and hematemesis. Client reports nausea, weakness, and dizziness. Extremities are cool to touch and capillary refill is sluggish. Vital signs: T 94.l F, HR 126, RR 28, BP 84/44, SpO2 88% on room air.

Which of the following actions are appropriate to delegate?

a)

Ask the licensed practical nurse (LPN) to check the client’s mental status.

b)

Instruct the Health Unit Coordinator (HUC) to

activate the hospital emergency response team.

c)

Instruct the unlicensed assistive personnel

(UAP) to retrieve 1-unit of packed red blood

cells (RBCs) from the blood bank.

d)

Ask the charge nurse to insert a peripheral

intravenous (PIV) access device.

e)

Instruct another registered nurse to initiate

oxygen therapy

12.

Can the following tasks be delegated or must they be carried out by the RN?

-Administer IV push medication

-Review glucose results for patients needing insulin

-Give preop report to the operating room

-Administer packed red blood cell transfusion

a)
These tasks can be delegated to LPNs.
b)
Only the glucose review can be delegated.
c)
All tasks can be performed by unlicensed staff.
d)
The RN can supervise these tasks remotely.
e)
These tasks must be carried out by the RN.
13.

Can the following tasks be delegated or must they be carried out by the RN?

-Administer oral meds to stable patients

-Reinforce education that was previously taught

a)

Both tasks can be delegated to an LPN.

b)
Reinforcing education cannot be delegated.
c)
Both tasks must be performed by the RN.
d)

Both tasks can be delegated to the UAP.

14.

Can the following tasks be delegated or must they be carried out by the RN?

-Pass meal trays to stable patients

-Collect intake and output data

-Assist patients with toileting and hygiene

-Obtain vital signs on stable patients

a)
No, these tasks must be done by the RN.
b)
Only some tasks can be delegated.
c)
Yes, these tasks can be delegated.
d)
These tasks require a physician's approval.
15.

A documentation that outlines the individualized care and interventions required for each patient.

(a)  

16.

Which of the following are purposes of the nursing care plan?

a)

Conveys essential clinical information about each patient's diagnosis, treatment, and outcomes

b)

Serves as a communication tool between clinicians, other providers, and payers

c)

Provides a systematic approach to care delivery

d)

Allows patients to view their personal health information

17.

Which of the following are some disadvantages of standardized care plans?

a)

Reduced flexibility

b)
Improved adherence to treatment protocols
c)

Lack of personalization

d)

Potential oversight of individual patient needs

18.

Types of care plans include:

a)

Column plan

b)

Concept map

c)

Standardized plan

d)

Clinical pathway

e)

Physician-centered plan

19.

The process nurses' use in the clinical setting to evaluate and select the best actions to meet desired goals.

(a)  

20.

Case Study: Afternoon in the E.R. An accidental poisoning at a local warehouse has resulted in several patients being admitted with a range of symptoms. In which order should the nurse see the following clients?

Client 1: LOC is diminished and Gurgling heard when auscultating Lung sounds

Client 2: Having SOB, difficulty speaking and Intercostal retractions seen on assessment.

Client 3: Skin cool and clammy, and client is tachycardic

a)
Client 1, Client 3, Client 2
b)
Client 3, Client 2, Client 1
c)
Client 2, Client 1, Client 3
d)
Client 1, Client 2, Client 3
21.

Which level of prioritizing care levels is described below?

-airway, breathing, circulation, VS changes/concerns

a)

Level 2

b)

Level 1

c)

Level 3

d)
Emergency response prioritization
22.

Which level of prioritizing care levels is described below?

Mental Status Changes, Acute Pain, Acute Urinary Elimination Problems, Untreated Medical Problem Requiring Immediate Attention, Abnormal Lab Values, Risks of Infection, Safety or Security

a)
Low Priority Care Level
b)

Level 2

c)

Level 3

d)

Level 1

23.

Which prioritizing care level is described below?

Lack of Knowledge, Coping, Family Coping, Activity, Rest

a)
Knowledge Overload and Stress Level
b)

Level 2

c)

Level 1

d)

Level 3

24.

For each scenario, determine whether the following conditions would be considered critical, urgent, or non-urgent.

Chronic pain, Radiating chest pain, Deformed fracture with edema

a)

3, 1, 2

b)

2, 1, 3

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

3, 2, 1

25.

For each scenario, determine whether the following conditions would be considered critical, urgent, or non-urgent.

Minor cut-needs stiches, sudden headache-blurry vision, severe allergic reaction

a)

3, 2, 1

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

2, 1, 3

26.

For each scenario, determine whether the following conditions would be considered critical, urgent, or non-urgent.

-Unconscious, pulseless

-Nondisplaced fracture

-Change in LOC

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

3, 2, 1

c)

2, 1, 3

27.

When considering only one patient, a useful prioritization strategy includes

a)
Delaying care for administrative tasks.
b)
Ignoring patient preferences entirely.
c)
Focusing on long-term treatment plans.
d)

Rank activities (Urgent, important, nice to do)

28.

The following is which level of priority for your client?

-SOB, uncontrolled pain, altered LOC, anxiety

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

29.

Which level of prioritization is described?

-it has a high probability of harm (infection risk, falls)

a)

P1

b)

P2

c)

P3

30.

Which level of prioritization is described?

-Keeps patient from moving to the next phase of wellness, it delays a patient's discharge

a)

P3

b)


P2

c)

P1

31.

Mrs. Right is an 87-y/o with a 3-day history of GI disturbance. She presented to the emergency department with dehydration, flank pain, and a fever related to urosepsis. IV access was obtained and she has now been admitted to your floor. Cognition is reportedly baseline.

You are the nurse assigned to Mrs. Right, and you receive the following orders:

• Acetaminophen 650 mg po, every 6 hours as needed for pain or fever

• Ceftriaxone 1 g IVPB, administer after blood and urine cultures obtained

• Morphine 2 mg IV push every 2 hours PRN for moderate to severe pain

• Collect and send aerobic and anaerobic blood cultures

• Collect urine for culture and urinalysis

• 0.9% NS bolus, 1000 mL administered over 4 hours

Which of these orders should be implemented first? What is your rationale?

a)
Administer morphine 2 mg IV push for pain relief.
b)
Give acetaminophen 650 mg for fever immediately.
c)

Give bolus.

d)

Collect and send aerobic and anaerobic blood cultures and Collect urine for culture and urinalysis first..

32.

____ Check MAR for medication administration times for all of your patients

____ Take bedside report from night shift between 0700-0730.

____ Perform Safety Checks and introduce yourself to patients.

____ Hang four IV medications that are all due at 0900.

____ Give 0845 pre-op report on patient who’s going to surgery at 0900.

____ Pass the 0830 breakfast trays.

____ In-depth review of charts for the patients who are new to you.

____ Check 0600 glucose results for patients who need 0730 insulin

____ Administer 0900 pre-operative antibiotic to surgery patient

Prioritize the following list of tasks that will need to be accomplished as you begin your shift. Use a “1” for the first thing you will do, and a “10” for the last.

a)
Check MAR for patient allergies before administration
b)

5, 7, 8, 4, 3, 2, 9, 1, D

c)

2, 5, 8, 7, 4, 9, 1, D, 3

d)

3, 1, 2, 7, 5, D, 8, 4, 6

33.

An essential function of the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems providing a continuous supply of oxygenated blood to every cell in the body

(a)  

34.

Perfusion happens at the level of the

(a)  

35.

Perfusion depends on proper function of the cardiovascular system.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The nurse is reviewing the concept of perfusion. Which circulatory systems does the nurse know to be crucial to tissue perfusion?

Select all that apply.

A. Coronary Circulation

B. Cerebral Circulation

C. Systemic Circulation

D. Peripheral Circulation

E. Pulmonary Circulation

F. Renal Circulation

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

37.

The nurse is assessing a patient’s heart sounds and recognizes that the S1 sound occurs at the beginning of ___1___ , defined as ___2___ of the ventricles. S1 is heard due to the closing of the ____3____ valves.

Blank #1 : Systole or Diastole?

Blank #2 : Filling or Contraction?

Blank #3 : Atrioventricular or Semilunar?

a)
systole, contraction, atrioventricular
b)
diastole, filling, semilunar
c)
systole, filling, semilunar
d)
diastole, contraction, semilunar
38.

Heart rate X stroke volume=

(a)  

39.

Which of the following manifestations of decreased cardiac output will consider your pt unstable?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Chest pain

c)

LOC

d)

Restlessness

40.

Which of the following are manifestations of decreased cardiac output?

a)

Dizziness

b)

Cool, clammy, pale skin

c)

Fatigue

d)

Dysrhythmias

e)

Hypertension

41.

WHAT ARE SOME FACTORS THAT AFFECT HEART RATE?

a)

BMI

b)

Age

c)

Fitness level

d)

Hormones

42.

Stroke volume is affected by three main factors:

a)
Vascular resistance, blood volume, and heart rate
b)
Heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen levels
c)
Preload, afterload, and contractility
d)
Cardiac output, blood viscosity, and heart rhythm
43.

Blood volume in ventricles at end of diastole

a)
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
b)
Cardiac output (CO)
c)
Stroke volume (SV)
d)

Preload

44.

A stronger contraction gets better output

a)

Contractility

b)

Preload

c)

Afterload

45.

Resistance the ventricle must overcome

a)
Preload
b)
Stroke Volume
c)
Cardiac Output
d)
Afterload
46.

The greater the afterload, the greater the cardiac workload

a)
Afterload has no effect
b)
Only in certain conditions
c)
False
d)
True
47.

Perfusion is affected by:

a)

Factors affecting heart rate

b)

Factors affecting stroke volume

c)

Factors affecting BMI

d)

Factors affecting pt LOC

48.

Factors affecting stroke volume:

a)

Age

b)

Heart size

c)

Gender

d)

Contractility

e)

Preload and Afterload

49.

Factors affecting heart rate:

a)

Autonomic innervation

b)

Hormones

c)

Fitness level

d)

Age

e)

Heart size

50.

The exchange of water, oxygen, electrolytes, nutrients, wastes, small proteins, and hormones are all completed at the...

a)
lymphatic vessels
b)
veins
c)
arteries
d)
capillaries
51.

Which of the following are NOT a sign of poor perfusion?

-pain, pallor, pulselessness, pneumonia, poor mobility, paraesthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia

a)

Pain

b)

Paraesthesia

c)

Poor mobility

d)

Pneumonia

52.

We must consider both the ____ and ________ when assessing perfusion.

a)
fluid balance and electrolyte levels
b)

heart and circulation

c)
heart rate and blood pressure
d)
nutrient absorption and waste removal
53.

Cardiac cells have the following characteristics:

a)
Cardiac cells have flexibility, stability, and elasticity.
b)
Cardiac cells have sensitivity, permeability, and regeneration.
c)

Cardiac cells have automaticity, conductivity, contractility excitability, refractoriness.

d)
Cardiac cells have mobility, durability, and conductivity.
54.

Cardiac cells ability to repeatedly initiate impulses without an outside stimulus

a)
Conductivity
b)
Refractoriness
c)
Contractility
d)
Automaticity
55.

Cardiac cells ability to respond to stimulus and initiate an impulse

a)
Refractoriness
b)
Conductivity
c)
Excitability
d)
Contractility
56.

Cardiac cells ability to transmit the impulse along cell membranes

a)
Cardiac cells generate impulses through synaptic connections.
b)

Automaticity

c)

Contractility

d)

Conductivity

57.

When muscle fiber in the cardiac cells shortens in response to a stimulus

a)

Refractoriness

b)

Contractility

c)

Conductivity

d)
The muscle fiber in cardiac cells relaxes, causing expansion.
58.

When the cardiac cells muscle fiber is unable to respond to another stimulus during an interval following contraction

a)
Excitation threshold
b)

Refractoriness

c)
Contraction phase
d)
Resting state
59.

What is the conduction pathway of the heart?

a)

Bundle of His paraesthesiaPurkinje fibers → Atrioventricular node → Right and Left Bundle Branches → Sinoatrial node.

b)

Sinoatrial node → Internodal Pathways → Atrioventricular node → Bundle of His → Right/left Bundle Branches → Purkinje Fibers

c)
Atrioventricular node → Sinoatrial node → Purkinje fibers → Bundle of His → Right and Left Bundle Branches.
d)
Purkinje fibers → Right and Left Bundle Branches → Sinoatrial node → Bundle of His → Atrioventricular node.
60.

Which is the normal pacemaker of the heart:

60-100 bpm

a)
Sinoatrial (SA) node
b)
Purkinje fibers
c)
Atrioventricular (AV) node
d)
Bundle of His
61.

Which of the following pacemakers is 40-60 bpm

a)
Sinoatrial (SA) node
b)
Ventricular pacemaker
c)
Bundle of His
d)
Atrioventricular (AV) node
62.

Which of the following pacemakers is 20-40 beats per minute

a)
Sinoatrial pacemaker
b)

Sinoatrial node

c)
Dual-chamber pacemaker
d)

Purkinkje Fibers

63.

An EKG has a ______ view from negative lead to positive lead

a)

directional

b)
signal
c)
path
d)
line
64.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.

Which of the following represents one cardiac cycle on an EKG?

a)
Q wave, T wave, U wave
b)
P wave, QRS interval, T interval
c)
P wave, QRS complex, T wave
d)
P wave, R wave, S wave
66.

Atrial depolarization (contraction)

a)
QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarization.
b)

T Wave

c)

QRS Complex

d)

P Wave

67.

Ventricular depolarization

a)

QRS Complex

b)

P Wave

c)

T Wave

d)
Ventricular depolarization is the relaxation of the ventricles in the heart.
68.

Ventricular repolarization (reset)

a)
QRS complex on an ECG
b)
ST segment on an ECG
c)
T wave on an ECG
d)
P wave on an ECG
69.

The extent to which a cell can respond to a stimulus

a)

Refractoriness

b)
Adaptability
c)
Responsiveness
d)
Reactivity
70.

Onset of QRS complex to approximately the peak of T wave

• Cardiac cells are fully depolarized and cannot be stimulated to conduct any additional electrical

impulse, no matter how strong the stimulus

a)
Systolic phase
b)
Absolute refractory period
c)
Relative refractory period
d)
Diastolic phase
71.

Corresponds with the downslope of the T wave

• Cardiac cells are only partially full of electricity.

• Cells can be stimulated to depolarize if the electrical stimulus is strong enough

• Patient at high risk for lethal rhythms if another stimulus occurs

a)
Diastolic phase
b)
Relative refractory period
c)
Systolic phase
d)
Absolute refractory period
72.

What is the most dangerous part of the cardiac cycle

-heart is only partially reset, so it can malfunction if stimulated there

a)
The resting phase of the heart during diastole.
b)

Relative refractory period

c)

Absolute refractory period

d)
The phase of complete contraction in the cardiac cycle.
73.

EKG paper divided into small and big squares:

Small square = _._ seconds

Big square = __ seconds

a)
Small square = 0.05 seconds, Big square = 0.25 seconds
b)
Small square = 0.02 seconds, Big square = 0.1 seconds
c)
Small square = 0.1 seconds, Big square = 0.4 seconds
d)
Small square = 0.04 seconds, Big square = 0.2 seconds
74.

What are the five steps to interpreting EKG rhythm strips

a)
1. Determine heart rate; 2. Assess rhythm; 3. Analyze P waves; 4. Measure PR interval; 5. Evaluate QRS duration.
b)
1. Count pulse pressure; 2. Analyze blood flow; 3. Measure heart sounds; 4. Evaluate blood volume; 5. Assess body temperature.
c)
1. Identify patient history; 2. Review medication list; 3. Check for allergies; 4. Assess vital signs; 5. Measure blood glucose.
d)
1. Check blood pressure; 2. Measure heart sounds; 3. Evaluate respiratory rate; 4. Assess skin color; 5. Determine oxygen saturation.
75.

If the R-to-R intervals vary by less than 0.06 seconds (1.5 small boxes), the rhythm is considered

a)
irregular
b)
variable
c)
steady
d)
regular
76.

If the intervals vary by more than 0.06 seconds (1.5 small boxes), the rhythm is

a)
irregular
b)
regular
c)
steady
d)
consistent
77.

represents the SA node firing at regular intervals (referred to as a sinus rhythm)

• First deviation from the isoelectric line

• Should be rounded and upright

a)
QRS complex
b)
U wave
c)
T wave
d)
P wave
78.

Measures time from start of atrial contraction to start of ventricular contraction

• Measured from start of P wave to start of the QRS complex

a)
ST segment
b)
PR interval
c)
QT interval
d)
RR interval
79.

Normal PR interval is

a)

0.12-0.20 seconds (3-5 small squares)

b)

0.06-0.12 seconds (1.5-3 small boxes)

c)
200 to 300 milliseconds
d)
100 to 150 milliseconds
80.

Which of the following represents the PR interval

a)

b)

81.

complex represents depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles

a)

QRS Complex

b)

P Wave

c)

T Wave

d)
Repolarization of the atria
82.

First negative (downward) deflection of this large complex

a)
First upward deflection
b)

S Wave

c)

Q Wave

d)

R Wave

83.

First upward (positive) deflection after the P wave

a)

R Wave

b)
T wave
c)
P wave
d)
U wave
84.

The sharp, negative deflection that follows the R wave

a)
T wave
b)
S wave
c)
P wave
d)
Q wave
85.

Normal interval for QRS Complex is

a)

0.06 to 0.12 seconds (1.5-3 small boxes)

b)

0.10 to 0.12 seconds (5 small boxes)

c)

0.04 to 0.06 seconds (1.5-3 small boxes)

d)
0.12 to 0.15 seconds
86.

When interpreting EKG rhythm strips, what do we assess about the P-wave?

a)

Presence

b)

Occurring regularly before every QRS

c)

Smooth, rounded, upright

d)

Sharp, jagged, tall

87.

Produced by ventricular repolarization (relaxation or reset)

-Commonly seen as the first upward or positive deflection following the QRS complex

-Not part of the 5 steps, but can give us some information

a)

T Wave

b)

P Wave

c)

QRS Complex

d)

PR Interval

88.

ECG waveforms from sources outside the heart Interference is seen on the monitor or ECG strip

Causes:

-Patient movement (most common)

-Loose or defective electrodes (fuzzy baseline)

-Improper grounding (60 cycle interference)

-Faulty ECG apparatus

a)

Sinus Rhythms

b)

EKG Artifact

c)

Accurate EKG Reading

d)

Irregular rhythm

89.

Rhythms that originate in the SA node

a)
Junctional rhythms
b)
Ventricular rhythms
c)
Sinus rhythms
d)
Atrial rhythms
90.

Common variations of a sinus rhythm include:

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Sinus bradycardia

c)

Sinus flutter

d)

Sinus arrhythmia

e)

Sinus block

91.

Normal cardiac impulses start at sinoatrial node and are transmitted through the atria and down to the ventricles.

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Sinus Bradycardia

c)

Sinus Tachycardia

d)

Sinus Arrhythmia

92.

Starts at the SA node but is unusually slow (less than 60 bpm).

a)
Normal Sinus Rhythm
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Tachycardia
93.

Sinus bradycardia is a normal variation in:

a)
Patients with fever and during stress
b)
Children and during exercise
c)
Athletes and during sleep
d)

Adolescent patients who are awake and calm

94.

Which of the following are possible causes of bradycardia?

a)

Dehydration due to exercise, Excessive caffeine intake, High blood pressure

b)

Fever, stress, excess alcohol

c)

Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, hyperthyroidism, high stress, dehydration

d)

Hypoglycemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, previous cardiac history, medications, toxic exposure

95.

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of sinus bradycardia?

a)

Syncope

b)

Dizziness

c)

Shortness of breath

d)

Cool, clammy skin

e)

Dehydration

96.

Which of the following are risks of sinus bradycardia?

a)

Headache

b)

Improved circulation

c)

Enhanced stamina

d)

Reduced cardiac output

e)

Decreased perfusion

97.

Which of the following are nursing interventions for sinus bradycardia?

a)

Assess patient

b)

Monitor oxygen saturation and give oxygen if needed

c)

Monitor blood pressure and heart rate

d)

Notify HCP

e)

Call a code and begin CPR

98.

What are the medical treatments of sinus bradycardia?

a)

Temporary pacing if patient is symptomatic and unstable

b)
Surgery, long-term pacing, dietary adjustments.
c)

Atropine (anticholinergic) if patient is symptomatic and stable

d)

Based on if patient is symptomatic and stable/unstable

99.

faster than normal heartbeat related to a rapid firing of the sinoatrial (SA) node

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Sinus Arrhythmia

c)

Sinus Tachycardia

d)

Sinus Palpitations

100.

Which of the following are causes of sinus tachycardia?

a)
Dehydration, sleep deprivation, high altitude
b)

Hypotension, dehydration, anemia, stress, fever, hyperthyroidism, electrolyte imbalance, certain medications.

c)

Hypothyroidism, hypoglycemia, hypothermia, toxic exposure, myocardia infarction

d)
Low blood pressure, heart failure, obesity
101.

Which of the following are risks of sinus tachycardia?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Decreased perfusion

c)

Increased cardiac output

d)

Reduced Cardiac output

102.

Which of the following are nursing interventions for sinus tachycardia?

a)

Call a code

b)

Assess patient for symptoms and stability

c)

Monitor BP and HR

d)

Start an IV if not already established

e)

Disregard O2 saturation and only give oxygen if ordered by HCP

103.

What is the treatment of tachycardia?

4 lines
104.

Which of the following are possible treatments for sinus tachycardia?

a)

Giving acetaminophen or ibuprofen for fever

b)

Giving pain medication/nonpharm management for pain

c)

Stop use of caffeine, OTC meds, herbs, illicit drugs

d)
Surgical intervention and antibiotics
e)

Give reassurance or anti-anxiety medication

105.

irregular impulse from the sinoatrial node.

• The rate usually increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration

a)

Sinus Atrophy

b)

Sinus Arrhythmia

c)

Sinus Bradycardia

d)

Sinus Tachycardia

106.

What are the causes of sinus arrhythmia?

a)

Causes of sinus arrhythmia include heart disease, stress, consumption of alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, and medications.

b)
Causes of sinus arrhythmia involve excessive caffeine intake and dehydration.
c)
Causes of sinus arrhythmia are primarily genetic factors and age.
d)
Causes of sinus arrhythmia include high blood pressure and diabetes.
107.

Signs and symptoms of sinus arrhythmia?

a)

Chest pain

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Anxiety

d)

Patients are usually asymptomatic

108.

What is the treatment of sinus arrhythmia?

a)

Placement of temporary pacemaker

b)

If patient is symptomatic, find and treat the cause!

c)

Electrolyte supplements

d)

Beta Blockers

109.

Ventricular standstill

• No electrical activity

• No cardiac output

• No perfusion

a)

Apnea

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Asystole

110.

Which of the following are causes of asystole?

a)

Cardiac Tamponade

b)

Myocardial damage secondary to acute myocardial infarction

c)

Failure of all higher pacemakers

d)

Prolonged V-fib

e)

Pulmonary embolism

111.

What are signs and symptoms of asystole?

a)

Loss of consciousness, no measurable BP, no palpable pulse

b)
Dizziness, rapid heartbeat, sweating, nausea, headache.
c)
Fever, rash, joint pain, fatigue, cough.
d)
Chest pain, shortness of breath, confusion, palpitations, vomiting.
112.

Your patient suddenly becomes asystolic. You enter their room and note that they do not have a DNR. What is your next step?

a)
Administer epinephrine immediately.
b)
Wait for the family to arrive.
c)
Check for a pulse for 5 minutes.
d)
Initiate CPR and call for help.
113.

Your patient just received an EKG. Based on the image, how do you interpret the rhythm?

a)
Sinus bradycardia
b)
Ventricular tachycardia
c)
Atrial fibrillation
d)
Normal sinus rhythm
114.

Your patient's EKG is displayed. How would you interpret this rhythm?

a)
Atrial fibrillation
b)
Ventricular tachycardia
c)

Sinus arrhythmia tachycardic

d)

Sinus arrhythmia bradycardic

115.

Your pt EKG is displayed. How will you treat this pt?

a)
Monitor and wait for spontaneous resolution.
b)

Assess and treat if symptomatic.

c)
Administer beta-blockers regardless of stability.
d)
Immediate defibrillation for all cases.
116.

Your pt's EKG is displayed. What is their rhythm interpretation?

a)

Sinus arrythmia

b)
Sinus Bradycardia
c)
Ventricular Tachycardia
d)
Atrial Fibrillation
117.

The nurse is aware that stroke volume can be affected by which factors?

a)

Heart size

b)

Hormones

c)

Contractility

d)

Autonomic innervation

e)

Preload

118.

The nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment on a patient and is aware that which factor can affect heart rate?

a)

Contractility

b)

Preload

c)

Age

d)

Afterload

119.

The nurse is assessing a patient's perfusion status and recognizes that cardiac output has a direct effect on perfusion. Which manifestations would be present in a patient with decreased cardiac output?

a)

Cool, clammy skin

b)

Capillary refill <3 sec.

c)

Flushing

d)

Hypotension

e)

Restlessness

120.

The nurse is aware that the T wave on the EKG represents what?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Ventricular repolarization

d)

Ventricular depolarization

121.

The nurse is aware that an electrocardiogram measures what?

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Electrical activity of the heart

c)

Blood pressure

d)

A view of the heart between three heart points

122.

The nurse is interpreting the EKG rhythm for a patient and is aware that the most important next step is what?

a)

Determining if the rhythm is new

b)

Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms related to the rhythm

c)

Checking the MAR for any medications indicated for that rhythm

d)

Calling the cardiologist to report an abnormal rhythm

123.

The nurse is assessing the perfusion status of a patient and is aware that which manifestations indicate altered perfusion?

a)

Pink skin

b)

Palpable pulses

c)

Pallor

d)

Pain

e)

Parasthesia

124.

The nurse is aware that the QRS complex on an ECG represents what?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Ventricular repolarization

d)

Ventricular depolarization

125.

The nurse is aware that the P wave on an EKG represents

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular repolarization

c)

Ventricular depolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization