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Worksheets

nine weeks exam review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 3hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the single most effective way to break the chain of infection?
a)
handwashing
b)
sterilization
c)
cleaning surfaces
d)
nutrition
2.
Diseases caused by mites, fleas, and ticks are?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
staphlococcus
d)
ricksettsiae
3.

Exogenous is

a)

inside the body

b)

outside the body

4.
An infection that begins in a healthcare facility is a
a)
endogenous
b)
nosocomial
c)
exogenous
d)
opportunistic
5.

Athletes foot are examples of this type of pathogen

a)

bacteria

b)

rickettsiae

c)

protozoa

d)

fungi

6.

When should gloves be changed

a)

Between Patients

b)

if they rip

c)

if the are soiled

d)

all of these

7.

What is reverse isolation

a)

protecting you

b)

protecting the patient

c)

facing the patient backwards

d)

none of these

8.

anaerobic

a)

with oxygen

b)

antibodies

c)

disease

d)

without oxygen

9.
how many links are in the chain of infection?
a)
10
b)
5
c)
12
d)
6
10.

A Pandemic affects

a)

a family

b)

a certain area

c)

multiple countries

d)

a single person

11.
All are ways to break the chain of infection except?
a)
handwashing
b)
sterilization
c)
disinfection
d)
reusing gloves
12.
what is the purpose of OSHA
a)
Make safety standards
b)
Inspect facilities
c)
enforce safety standards
d)
all of these
13.
all are part of PPE except
a)
gowns
b)
paper towels
c)
mask
d)
gloves
14.
person who gets a disease because of weak defenses
a)
causative agent
b)
susceptible host
c)
reservoir
d)
portal of entry
15.
thrush and vaginitis are examples of this type of pathogen
a)
bacteria
b)
rickettsiae
c)
protozoa
d)
fungi
16.
organisms that can only live inside another living cell?
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
protozoa
d)
fungi
17.
Lyme disease is caused by bacilli 
a)
True
b)
False
18.

Which of the following terms means "beginning outside" the body?

a)

endogenous

b)

nosocomial

c)

exogenous

d)

sepsis

19.

One link in the chain of infection is a susceptible host. Which of the following is also a link in the chain of infection?

a)

Portal of exit

b)

Reservoir

c)

Causative agent

d)

All the above

20.
Jana is diagnosed with Rocky Mountain spotted fever which is caused by a rickettsiae that is transmitted by the bite of a:
a)
Dog.
b)
Bear.
c)
Mosquito.
d)
Tick.
21.
When washing your hands, you should use soap, warm water, and friction, and keep your fingertips:
a)
Pointed up.
b)
Pointed down.
c)
Held tightly together.
d)
Dry.
22.
Yeasts and molds are examples of what plantlike microorganism?
a)
Fungi
b)
Bacteria
c)
Rickettsiae
d)
Protozoa
23.
What type of environment is best for the growth of most microorganisms?
a)
Hot and dry
b)
Sunny, cold and dry
c)
Warm, dark and moist
d)
Cold and wet
24.
Aerobic bacteria require what to live?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Acid
c)
Plants
d)
Sunlight
25.
What microorganism causes the common cold?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Protozoa
c)
Fungi
d)
Virus
26.
which is correct order for chain of infection?
a)
portal of entry- causitive agent-portal of exit- suseptible host-mode of transmission
b)
causative agent-reservoir-portal of exit-mode of transmission-portal of entry-suseptible host
c)
mode of transmission-portal of exit-portal of entry-causitive agent- suseptible host
27.

Which of the following is NOT one of the diseases you are protected from when you get a DTaP Vaccine?

a)

Diptheria

b)

Influenza

c)

Tetanus

d)

Whooping Cough

28.

Which vaccine do people get every year? (CDC cannot make it until they know the pathogens around that year)

a)

hepatitis B

b)

polio vaccine

c)

small pox vaccine

d)

Influenza vaccine

29.
Cocci that occur in clusters or groups are what?
a)
diplococci
b)
streptococci
c)
staphylococci
d)
micrococci
30.
Threadlike projections that are similar to tails and allow an organism to move are what?
a)
spores
b)
spirochetes
c)
flagella
d)
cilia
31.
Under standard precautions, what personal protective equipment should be worn during the delivery of a baby?
a)
gloves, mask, gown
b)
gloves and mask
c)
gown, mask ,protective eyewear
d)
gloves, gown, mask, protective eyewear
32.
True/False
Many microorganisms are part of the normal flora of the body?
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Who Cares
d)
Dunno
33.
True/False
All patients must be considered as a potential source of infection.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
dunno
d)
don't care
34.
The killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, is called:
a)
Disinfection
b)
Cleaning
c)
Sterilization
d)
Wiping
35.

What is the first link of the chain of infection?

a)

Pathogenic microorganism

b)

Route of entry

c)

Portal of exit

d)

Route of transmission

36.

Which is NOT an example of a high risk patient of a susceptible host?

a)

Cancer Patient

b)

AIDS patient

c)

Teens

d)

Infants

37.

What is a way to break the 3rd link of the chain of infection?

a)

Hygiene and Aspesis.

b)

Identify the Pathogen and apply proper treatment.

c)

Make sure health care professionals practice standard health precautions such as: hand washing and control body secretions.

d)

Be aware that they are susceptible.

38.

An organism that is to small to be seen by the naked eye is known as:

a)

Pathogen

b)

Microorganism

c)

Aspesis

d)

Hygiene

39.

What is defined as a disease causing microorganism?

a)

Microorganism

b)

Bacteria

c)

Pathogen

d)

Virus

40.

What link of the chain of infection is where the infectious agent resides?

a)

Route of entry

b)

Portal of exit

c)

Reservoir

d)

Pathogenic microorganism

41.

If you need to protect your respiratory tract from airborne infectious agents, you'd wear a:

a)

Surgical mask

b)

N95 respirator

c)

A handkerchief

d)

Just hold your breath

42.

A disinfectant:

a)

Is a strong chemical, such as bleach, that destroys pathogens on objects, not on skin

b)

Is an agent that is applied directly to the skin with the purpose of killing pathogens

c)

Uses pressure and steam to sterilize objects and instruments

d)

Is a really tasty, refreshing beverage

43.

This a solution that is applied directly to the skin and prevents the growth of pathogens:

a)

Antiseptic

b)

Disinfectant

c)

Sterilizer

d)

Septicizer

44.

Asepsis is:

a)

A microbe that requires oxygen to survive

b)

Absence of disease-producing microorganisms

c)

One of the ways pathogens cause infection

d)

The presence of all of the germs, everywhere, all the time

45.

Which of the following is NOT utilized in airborne precautions

a)

Face shield

b)

N95 Respirator

c)

Handwashing

d)

Disinfect all surfaces

46.

Tuberculosis is a type of:

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungus

c)

Virus

d)

Prion

47.

An intestinal roundworm is a type of:

a)

Bacteria

b)

Helminth

c)

Virus

d)

Protozoa

48.

Cocci are bacteria that are __________.

a)

round-shaped

b)

rod-shaped

c)

corkscrew-shaped

d)

spore-shaped

49.

Which type of bacteria can cause strep throat or blood poisoning?

a)

diplococci

b)

Spirilla

c)

Bacilli

d)

Streptococci

50.

Bacteria that grow in pairs and cause pneumonia are _________.

a)

Diplococci

b)

Bacilli

c)

Staphylococci

d)

Streptococci

51.

Lyme Disease and Syphilis are caused by spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria called ___________.

a)

Diplococci

b)

Bacilli

c)

Spirilla

d)

Cocci

52.

A chemical process that destroys most, but not necessarily all, harmful organisms on environmental surfaces is ____________.

a)

disinfecting

b)

sanitizing

c)

cleaning

d)

sterilizing

53.

Antiseptics are intended for __________.

a)

disinfecting instruments

b)

reducing microbes on the skin

c)

disinfecting equipment

d)

sterilizing equipment

54.

Standard Precautions require employers and employees to assume that all human blood and body fluids are potentially ___________.

a)

infectious

b)

harmless

c)

dangerous

d)

toxic

55.

Fungal Infections are much more common on the ___________ than on the hands.

a)

face

b)

feet

c)

elbows

d)

knees

56.

____________ include guidelines for the use of gloves, masks, and eyewear when contact with blood or body secretions containing blood or blood elements is a possibility.

a)

Standard Preconditions

b)

Universal provisions

c)

Standard Precautions

d)

Universal Preparations

57.

COCCI THAT OCCUR IN CLUSTERS OF GROUPS ARE _________.

a)

DIPLOCOCCI

b)

STREPTOCOCCI

c)

STAPHYLOCOCCI

d)

MICROCOCCI

58.

HOW MUCH OF THE BORDER AROUND THE OUTSIDE OF A STERILE FIELD IS CONSIDERED CONTAMINATED?

a)

1 INCH

b)

2 INCHES

c)

3 INCHES

d)

4 INCHES

59.

THE BEST TRANSFER METHOD TO USE WHEN PLACING A STERILE BOWL ON A STERILE FIELD IS THE ____________.

a)

MITTEN TECHNIQUE

b)

DROP TECHNIQUE

c)

FORCEPS TECHNIQUE

d)

GRASP TECHNIQUE

60.
Operate a piece of equipment only when:
a)
you have been instructed how to use it
b)
you see other students using it
c)
you think you know how to handle it
d)
you have similar equipment in other classes
61.
Solutions that will be used in the laboratory:
a)
can be mixed together in most cases
b)
can be injurious, so avoid eye and skin contact
c)
do not always need a label
d)
are all safe for your use
62.
when the instructor is out of the room:
a)
equipment should not be operated
b)
it is all right to operate equipment
c)
it is a good time to experiment with equipment
d)
be extra careful using equipment
63.
If you find a piece of damaged equipment:
a)
repair it yourself before you use it
b)
use it but be very careful
c)
report it to the instructor
d)
dispose of it immediately
64.

If a particle gets in your eye, you should:

a)

rub your eye

b)

use cotton to remove it

c)

flush your eye for 20 minutes and report it

d)

flush your eye with water for 10 minutes to remove it

65.
If your personal safety is in danger because of fire:
a)
get the fire extinguisher and put it out
b)
run out of the area as fast as you can
c)
leave the area quietly and in an orderly fashion
d)
open all windows and doors
66.
Wearing safety glasses in a laboratory:
a)
is never necessary
b)
should be done if you think it's necessary
c)
is a requirement at all times
d)
is required for certain procedures
67.
The major cause of fires is:
a)
smoking and matches
b)
defects in heating systems
c)
improper rubbish disposal
d)
misuse of electricity
68.
Three things needed for a fire are:
a)
air, oxygen and fuel
b)
fuel, heat, and oxygen
c)
fuel, carbon dioxide and heat
d)
air, carbon dioxide and fuel
69.
All injuries occurring in the lab:
a)
should be treated by fellow student
b)
can be ignored if minor
c)
should be washed with soap and water
d)
should be reported to the instructor
70.
When handling electrical equipment, be sure to:
a)
wash your hands immediately before handling
b)
check first for damaged cords or improper grounds
c)
plug equipment carefully into any socket
d)
ask for written instructions on how to use it
71.
If any solution comes in contact with skin or eyes, flush immediately with water and call the instructor
a)
true
b)
false
72.
the purpose of the third prong on an electrical wire is important for grounding equipment
a)
true
b)
false
73.
The three sides to the fire triangle are;
a)
Petrol, Spark, Oxygen
b)
Heat, Fuel, Oxygen
c)
Heat, Paper, Air
d)
Match, Paper, Air
74.

What class of fire extinguisher should be used on a wood fire?

a)

B

b)

E

c)

F

d)

A

75.
How many different types of fire extinguisher are there?
a)
5
b)
4
c)
3
d)
I don't know
76.
Which of these isn't in the fire triangle?
a)
Fuel
b)
Heat
c)
Oxygen
d)
Carbon dioxide
77.
Which of the following is NOT a class A material?
a)
Paper
b)
Plastic
c)
Petrol
d)
Wood
78.
P in the PASS acronym stands for
a)
Push
b)
Practice
c)
Pull
d)
Poke 
79.
Where should you aim at the fire? 
a)
Base
b)
Top
c)
Middle 
d)
Side 
80.
The first S in the PASS acronym stands for
a)
Squirt 
b)
Shower
c)
Squeeze 
d)
Sweep
81.
Which direction should you sweep while using the fire extinguisher? 
a)
Up and down
b)
Side to side 
82.
Fires where wood, paper, and cloth are burning are considered to be which class of fire? 
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
83.
Fires where electrical items are burning are considered to be which class of fire? 
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
84.
Fires where metal is burning are considered to be which class of fire? 
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
85.
Fires where flammable liquids are burning are considered to be which class of fire? 
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
86.
Which of the following is the most common type fire extinguisher and can be used on most fires? 
a)
Water (APW)
b)
BC
c)
ABC
d)
Carbon Dioxide 
87.
What is the study of designing and arranging a work space to increase productivity and safety?
a)
Body Mechanics
b)
Ergonomics
c)
Posture
d)
Physiology
88.
How should your feet be positioned when lifting?
a)
as far apart as possible
b)
together
c)
shoulder width
d)
4 feet apart
89.
Is it safer to push or pull an object?
a)
push
b)
pull
90.
When carrying an object you should keep the object _________________________.
a)
close to your body
b)
above your head
c)
away from your body
91.
You maintain a broad base of support by keeping feet ___________ apart.
a)
8-10 inches
b)
10-12 inches
c)
6-8 inches
92.

all manufacturers must provide this with any hazardous products they sell.

a)

OSHA

b)

HIPAA

c)

MSDS

93.
mandates to protect health care providers from diseases caused by exposure to body fluids:
a)
Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
b)
Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals Standard
c)
Safety Standards
94.
bend from the ________ and ___________ to get close to an object
a)
back and hips
b)
back and knees
c)
hips and knees
95.
mandates to protect healthcare workers from diseases caused by exposure to body fluids
a)
safety standard
b)
Hazardous Chemical Standard
c)
OSHA
d)
Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
96.
fire extinguisher that is used on electrical fires
a)
Class A
b)
Class B
c)
Class C
d)
Class D
97.
establishes and enforces safety standards for the work place
a)
OSHA
b)
FDA
c)
body mechanics
d)
standards
98.
How many times should you read the labels on solution bottles
a)
1 time
b)
2 times
c)
3 times
d)
4 times
99.
 If you wear gloves while handling PIMs(possible infectious material), it is not necessary to wash your hands afterwards.
a)
true
b)
false
100.
You have just removed your gloves after cleaning up some blood. What should you immediately do next?
a)
continue working
b)
hand hygiene with alcohol based rub
c)
hand hygiene with antimicrobial soap and water
d)
hand hygiene with warm water
101.
Hazards associated with specific chemicals are described in the
a)
Material Safety Data Sheets
b)
Hazard Communication Standard
c)
OSHA Pathogen Standard
d)
OPIM Guidelines
102.
The government agency that is responsible for enforcing safety regulations in the workplace is
a)
CDC
b)
OSHA
c)
DOT
d)
FAA
103.
Which is an example of PPE?
a)
Mask
b)
Gloves
c)
Gown
d)
All choices are correct
104.
What safety symbol is this? 
a)
corrosive
b)
toxic
c)
radiation
d)
biohazard
105.

What color is a biohazard bag?

a)

Yellow

b)

Blue

c)

White

d)

Red

106.

People with oxygen should avoid___________.

a)

candles

b)

smoking

c)

nail polish

d)

all of the above

107.

Who can safely mix medications?

a)

Nurses

b)

Lab Techs

c)

Pharmacists

d)

ER doctors

108.

What is a legal document that allows people to state what medical treatment they want or do not want in the event they are unable to make decisions or communicate?

a)

battery

b)

advance directive

c)

slander

d)

Code of Ethics

109.

________ are rules of conduct among people.

a)

liability

b)

laws

c)

ethics

d)

tort

110.

________ is intentionally touching without permission.

a)

slander

b)

disclosure

c)

tort

d)

battery

111.

A person harmed because of another person's actions or failure to act is called a ________________.

a)

tort

b)

law

c)

liability

d)

malpractice

112.

What are rules of conduct, enforced by the government

a)

laws

b)

torts

c)

ethics

d)

ethics

113.

__________ is a voluntary agreement between two or more people, examples include implied or expressed.

a)

disclosure

b)

Code of Ethics

c)

contract

d)

law

114.

What is the proper procedure for documentation error correction?

a)

white out incorrect information, initial and date

b)

add corrected information below error, initial and date

c)

draw a line through the error, add correct information, initial and date

d)

black out incorrect information, initial and date

115.

A conflict of moral beliefs is also known as an ______________. An example is euthanasia.

a)

conduct

b)

ethics

c)

ethical dilemma

d)

tort

116.

A list of written statements describing proper conduct for a group of people is ________________.

a)

Code of Ethics

b)

torts

c)

laws

d)

advance directive

117.

Jim asked Sue to be his spokesperson in determining treatment measures that should be taken if he is unable to make his own health care decisions. After signing a legal document, Sue is Jim’s:

a)

advanced director

b)

power of attorney

c)

ombudswoman

d)

organ director.

118.

A celebrity’s medical records were viewed by unauthorized personnel. Which tort was committed?

a)

False imprisonment

b)

Invasion of privacy

c)

malpractice

d)

Negligence

119.

Meagan began working high school football practice as the new Certified Athletic Trainer. She has not yet passed the national certification exam. Meagan is guilty of which offense?

a)

Malpractice

b)

Physical abuse

c)

Practicing without a license

d)

Negligence

120.

A nursing assistant was accused of negligence. What did he/she most likelydo?

a)

Ambulated the patient down the hall as ordered

b)

Assisted the patient with bathing

c)

Failed to put up the side rails of the bed

d)

Fed the patient his/her dinner late

121.

Jack stole a patient’s ring and another patient’s medication. These were violations of:

a)

civil law

b)

criminal law

c)

ethics

d)

invasion of patient privacy.

122.

What do ethics and laws in health care have in common?

a)

Both are determined by a person’s conduct.

b)

Both always involve doing the right thing for patients

c)

Both have requirements that may change depending on the health care profession

d)

Both are regulated through patient rights legislation

123.

Which document details end-of-life care requests of a patient who has a terminal illness?

a)

Power of attorney

b)

Living will

c)

Patient self-determination clause

d)

Right-to-die declaration

124.

Daniel was admitted to the intensive care unit. He is not sure of his prognosis and insists on signing a statement to express end-of-life wishes. Which document will he sign?

a)

Confidential treatment

b)

Ethical treatment

c)

Informed consent

d)

Living will

125.

A medical assistant was fired from a medical practice and has been making negative, untrue statements about one of the physicians. The assistant could be charged with:

a)

defamation

b)

immorality

c)

invasion of privacy

d)

negligence

126.

A student nurse told his roommate about a patient at the nursing home. Which patient rights legislation was violated?

a)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

b)

Nursing Home Reform Act (NHRA)

c)

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)

d)

Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)

127.

Tommy called Mr. Adams an “old geezer.” Mr. Adams is suing Tommy for:

a)

malpractice

b)

negligence

c)

physical abuse

d)

verbal abuse

128.

Dr. Michael left two sponges and a pair of scissors in the patient during surgery. Dr. Michael may be charged with which civil tort?

a)

Invasion of privacy

b)

malpractice

c)

sexual abuse

d)

verbal abuse

129.

A medication is ordered to be mixed in 1000 cc of IV fluid for administration. If a nurse injects the medication directly into a patient’s vein in error, he/she could be guilty of:

a)

Malpractice.

b)

Assault.

c)

Negligence.

d)

Physical abuse.

130.

Mr. Jones goes to a medical office with chest pain. The physician orders an antacid and does not do an EKG. That night, Mr. Jones dies from a heart attack. The doctor could be charged with:

a)

Slander.

b)

Defamation.

c)

Negligence.

d)

Battery.

131.

A dental assistant tells her friends that a hygienist she works with has a drinking problem. If this is not true, the assistant could be guilty of:

a)

Slander.

b)

Malpractice.

c)

Battery.

d)

Libel.

132.

An EMT is charged with battery. What did the EMT do?

a)

Informed the news media of a victim’s condition.

b)

Treated a victim, even though the victim refused treatment.

c)

Failed to splint a broken leg and then moved the victim.

d)

Used inappropriate words to describe a victim’s nationality.

133.

An angry patient writes a letter to the newspaper editor about a local psychologist. The allegations in the letter are clearly untrue and damaging to the psychologist’s practice. The letter writer could be guilty of:

a)

Assault

b)

Battery.

c)

Slander.

d)

Libel.

134.

A physician writes a DNR order on a patient’s chart. DNR is the medical abbreviation for:

a)

Do not resuscitate.

b)

Designated nurse responder.

c)

Durable negotiated rights.

d)

Doctor’s normal request.

135.

A tort is a civil wrong in the sense that is committed against an individual (include companies).

a)

True

b)

False

136.
FAILURE TO GIVE CARE THAT IS NORMALLY EXPECTED OF A PERSON IN A PARTICULAR POSITION, RESULTING IN INJURY TO ANOTHER PERSON IS ___________.
a)
MALPRACTICE
b)
NEGLIGENCE
c)
ABUSE
d)
DEFAMATION
137.
IF A HEALTHCARE WORKER SENDS INFORMATION TO AN INSURANCE COMPANY WITHOUT THE PATIENTS WRITTEN CONSENT, THIS CAN BE ___________.
a)
INVASION OF PRIVACY
b)
DEFAMATION
c)
SLANDER
d)
LIBEL
138.
IF A PHYSICIAN FAILS TO USE A DEGREE OF SKILL AND LEARNING COMMONLY EXPECTED AND THE PERSON RECEIVING CARE IS INJURED, THE PHYSICIAN CAN BE SUED FOR ______________________.
a)
NEGLIGENCE
b)
DEFAMATION
c)
MALPRACTICE
d)
ASSAULT AND BATTERY
139.
IF A PATIENT IS PHYSICALLY RESTRAINED WITHOUT PROPER AUTHORIZATION OR JUSTIFICATION, THIS CAN LEAD TO A CHARGE OF ____________.
a)
INVASION OF PRIVACY
b)
DEFAMATION
c)
FALSE IMPRISONMENT
d)
ASSAULT AND BATTERY
140.
ANY CARE THAT RESULTS IN PHYSICAL HARM, PAIN, OR MENTAL ANGUISH CAN LEAD TO A CHARGE OF ________________.
a)
INVASION OF PRIVACY
b)
DEFAMATION
c)
FALSE IMPRISONMENT
d)
ABUSE
141.
A SET OF PRINCIPLES RELATING TO WHAT IS MORALLY RIGHT OR WRONG ARE KNOWN AS _______________.
a)
TORTS
b)
CONTRACTS
c)
ETHICS
d)
PATIENTS' RIGHTS
142.
legally binding agreement between 2 or more people or agencies
a)
contract
b)
tort
c)
law suit
d)
none of the above
143.

Cheil-

a)

hernia

b)

lip

c)

abdomen

d)

slow

144.

-emesis

a)

expansion

b)

emergency

c)

vomiting

d)

abdomen

145.

The patient is told to make an appointment with a hematologist, this provider will specialize in care of

a)

Blood

b)

Urine

c)

Chest

d)

Cancer

146.

ovar-

a)

puncture

b)

ear

c)

egg (female reproductive gland)

d)

scale

147.

-centesis

a)

spot

b)

puncture

c)

coil

d)

milk

148.

oto-

a)

mass, tumor or swelling

b)

mouth

c)

ear

d)

bile

149.
BRADYCARDIA
a)
SLOW HEARTBEAT
b)
FAST HEARTBEAT
c)
SLUGGISH REACTION
150.
THE BRANCH OF MEDICINE DEALING WITH THE BRING ABOUT LOSS OF SENSATION
a)
OPTESTHESIA
b)
ANESTHESIOLOGY
c)
LEUKESTHESIA
151.
VOMITING OF BLOOD
a)
HEMATEMESIS
b)
CHOLEMESIS
c)
EMETICOLOGY
d)
EMETIC
152.

The surgical removal of part of the bone from the skull to expose the brain.

a)

leukocyte

b)

craniotomoy

c)

hemotoxic

153.
A patient diagnosed with hypothermia is said to have what type of body temperature?
a)
excessively high
b)
excessively low
c)
abnormal
d)
no temperature at all
154.
In the medical term hypertension, the prefix refers to what level of blood pressure?
a)
excessively low
b)
excessively high
c)
normal
d)
deficient
155.
What is the definition for the prefix a-/an- ?
a)
within
b)
without
c)
upon
d)
below
156.

enlargement of liver

a)

nephrectomy

b)

nephromegaly

c)

hepatomegaly

d)

hepatectomy

157.

Tympanotomy

a)

surgical incision into the ear

b)

surgical incision into the eardrum

c)

surgical created opening into the ear

d)

surgical created opening into the eardrum

158.

Dx

a)

neck

b)

treatment

c)

diagnosis

d)

history

159.

Inflammation of urinary bladder

a)

cystitis

b)

nephritis

c)

gastritis

d)

otitis

160.

brain

a)

physch/o

b)

encephal/o

c)

cerebr/o

d)

cephal/o

161.

spinal cord

a)

myo

b)

myel

c)

nephr

d)

or

162.

orchi

a)

testi

b)

bone

c)

ovary

d)

foot

163.
UTERINE (FALLOPIAN) TUBE, AUDITORY (EUSTACHIAN) TUBE
a)
SALPING/O
b)
PHARYNG/O
c)
MYRING/O
d)
SARC/O
164.
PUS
a)
PY/O
b)
ONC/O
c)
PYR/O
d)
MYC/O
165.

Physio?

a)

development

b)

cheek

c)

nature

d)

ear

166.

Bucco?

a)

cheek

b)

eyelid

c)

ear

d)

hearing

167.

Palpebr?

a)

mouth

b)

ear

c)

eyelid

d)

eyes

168.

plasia?

a)

development

b)

kidney

c)

smoth

d)

sound

169.

rug?

a)

wrinkle, crease

b)

hearing

c)

suture

d)

cheek

170.

aur?

a)

ear

b)

mouth

c)

kidney

d)

testis

171.

acousti?

a)

heart

b)

brain

c)

ear

d)

hearing

172.

colpo?

a)

phon, opening

b)

hollow, vagina

c)

blind passageway

d)

brain

173.

leio?

a)

smooth

b)

kidney

c)

brain

d)

vein

174.

cor?

a)

heart

b)

itis

c)

cardi

d)

hair

175.

ren?

a)

smooth

b)

tree

c)

vein

d)

kidney

176.

thalam?

a)

inner chamber

b)

head

c)

hearing

d)

ears

177.

plexus?

a)

heart

b)

tissue

c)

braid

d)

head

178.

dendr?

a)

tree, branching

b)

hollow

c)

mouth

d)

navel

179.

phleb?

a)

vein

b)

tube

c)

eye lash

d)

head

180.

pilo?

a)

hair

b)

head

c)

vein

d)

navel

181.

histo?

a)

tissue

b)

mouth

c)

braid

d)

tube

182.

stoma?

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

inner chamber

d)

heart

183.

the area of the body where you take a carotid pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the groin area

c)

the wrist

d)

the inside of your elbow

184.

the area of the body where you take a radial pulse is

a)

the neck

b)

the wrist

c)

the groin

d)

the inside of the elbow

185.

the following are routes to take a temperature EXCEPT ...

a)

oral

b)

temporal

c)

axillary

d)

femoral

186.

you can use a thermometer with a red indicator for oral temperature measuring...

a)

true

b)

false

187.

Average temperature is ...

a)

100.4

b)

96.8

c)

98.6

d)

97.0

188.

The most accurate mode of taking temperature is...

a)

oral

b)

axillary

c)

rectal

d)

tympanic

189.

You check a babies pulse in the ______ artery.

a)

radial

b)

carotid

c)

brachial

d)

femoral

190.

Normal respirations are .....

a)

12-20 per minute

b)

10-25 per minute

c)

11-22 per minute

d)

5-30 per minute

191.

What is a "normal" blood pressure

a)

120/110 mmHg

b)

120/80 mmHg

c)

100/80 mmHg

d)

140/80 mmHg

192.
An axillary temperature is the least accurate method of taking a temperature
a)
True
b)
False
193.

What are vital signs?

a)

measurements of the body basic functions.

b)

Number of heartbeats per minute.

c)

Breaths per minute.

194.

Where is radial (wrist) pulse measured?

a)

On the pinky finger side of the patient's wrist

b)

Only on the left wrist

c)

In the middle of the wrist

d)

On the thumb side of the patient's wrist

195.

Which of the following is the normal range for pulse?

a)

60-100

b)

80-100

c)

12-20

d)

60-80

196.

Which of the of the following measurements would you immediately report to the nurse?

a)

Blood Pressure: 112/36

b)

Pulse: 98

c)

Respirations: 18

d)

Pulse Ox: 100%

197.

While ambulating Mr. Stokes, he tells you that he is feeling faint. After sitting him in a chair, the nurse aide should check his:

a)

Temperature

b)

Blood Pressure

c)

Pulse

d)

Respirations

198.

What is the normal range for SPO2?

a)

90%-100%

b)

100%-110%

c)

95%-100%

d)

80%-100%

199.
blue skin caused by low oxygen in blood
a)
cyanosis
b)
epistaxis
c)
rales
d)
cyanuecstasis
200.
hypo-
a)
less than normal
b)
Large
c)
Below
d)
Swallow

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