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Unit 3 and 4

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Coat color in a dog breed is determined by incomplete dominance where three colors are produced (Brown, tan and white), and the brown coat allele (B) has incomplete dominance over the white coat allele (b). Which offspring ratio would be expected from a cross between a tan dog and a white dog?

a)

A. 2 BB: 2 Bb

b)

B. 4 Bb

c)

C. 1 BB: 2 Bb: 1 bb

d)

D. 2 Bb: 2bb

2.

Which principle best explains why the gametes only each contain a single allele?

a)

A. Mendel's Law of Dominance states that dominant alleles must separate from recessive alleles in gamete formation.

b)

B. Mendel's Law of Inheritance states that only one allele is inherited from each parent and the dominant allele is inherited first.

c)

C. Mendel's Law of Segregation states that alleles must segregate during gamete formation in order to create haploid sex cells need for reproduction.

d)

D. Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment states that each trait is inherited separately and the resulting gametes each only contain the DNA for a single trait.

3.
AB blood type is an example of what type of inheritance?
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
codominance
d)
polygenic inheritance
4.

Where do adaptations come from?

a)

The individual organism decides to adapt

b)

Mutations that give an organism an advantage in its environment

c)

Genetic recombination during meiosis

d)

Both mutations and genetic recombination are sources of adaptation

5.
A biological ____________ is a group of interbreeding populations that is reproductively isolated from other groups.
a)
species
b)
family
c)
phylogeny
d)
hybrid
6.
______ _________ explains how two or more organisms could evolve similar traits even though they are not related to each other.
a)
convergent evolution
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
derived characters
d)
hybrid vigor
7.
A __________ is a branching diagram that shows evolutionary relationships.
a)
cladogram
b)
table
c)
derived character
d)
relationship tree
8.

_________ characters have similar structure but different function indicating they developed from a common ancestor.

a)
homologous
b)
analogous
c)
cladistic
d)
phylogenic
9.
The remnant of an organ that had a function in an early ancestor is known as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
d)
fossil structure
10.

Mechanism of evolution responsible for a random change in a population is known as:

a)

Speciation

b)

Selection

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Variation

11.

Situation in which allele frequencies change as aresult of the migration of small subgroup of a population is known as:

a)

founder effect

b)

genetic bottleneck

c)

random mating

d)

natural selection

12.
Which of the following is an example of the bottle neck effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
13.

Which of the following is an example of natural selection?

a)

Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.

b)

Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.

c)

Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.

d)

Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year. This results in larger apples from year to year.

14.

A bubble guppy with a yellow tail has offspring with a bubble guppy with a red tail. The offspring have orange tails. What is this an example of?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Triats

15.

Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder. Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for haemophilia?

a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
16.

What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?

a)

IBIB

b)

IAIB

c)

IBi

17.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

18.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

19.

Spindle fibers attach, centrioles line chromosomes in the center of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

20.

Centrioles pull the chromosomes apart towards the opposite sides of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

21.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
22.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
23.

In which phase does crossing-over happen?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

24.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

25.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

26.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
27.

How are DNA and RNA different? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Only DNA can leave the nucleus

b)

RNA contains Thymine; DNA contains Uracil

c)

DNA is double stranded, RNA is a single stranded

d)

DNA contains Thymine, RNA contains Uracil

28.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

29.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
30.
Which of the following organisms are MOST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share an order  
31.

The table describes many of characteristics used to classify most organisms in the plant, animal, bacteria and protist kingdoms.

Which statement describes a characteristic used to separate the bacteria kingdom from the other kingdoms shown?

a)

the number of cells in the organism

b)

the mechanism the organism uses to obtain energy

c)

the presence of a nucleus surrounded by a membrane

d)

the way the organism transfers genetic information to its offspring

32.

Which community has a greater species RICHNESS?

a)

Community A

b)

Community B

c)

They both have EQUAL species richness

d)

NEITHER

33.

Which community has a greater species EVENESS?

a)

Community A

b)

Community B

c)

They BOTH have EQUAL species eveness

d)

NEITHER

34.

Allopatric speciation can be described as

a)

two subpopulations of a species becoming isolated from each other, which prevents genetic

exchange.

b)

two subpopulations of a species evolving reproductive isolation while continuing genetic exchange.

c)

new species evolving from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the same geographic region.

d)

new species forming from an isolated peripheral population.

35.

Within the nitrogen cycle, the transformation of nitrates into nitrogen gas is called

a)

nitrification.

b)

denitrification.

c)

ammonification.

d)

nitrogen fixation.

36.

Which of the following processes would result in aneuploidy?

a)

The exchange of genetic material that occurs during crossing over.

b)

The failure of a homologous pair to separate during meiosis I.

c)

The failure of chromosomes to correctly align at prophase II.

d)

The separation of homologous pairs during metaphase.

37.

A clade is a group of organisms

a)

of one or more populations that form a unit.

b)

living in a particular geographical area that can interbreed.

c)

that consists of a common ancestor and all its lineal descendants.

d)

consisting of similar individuals capable of exchanging genes or interbreeding.

38.

The non-coding regions at the end of chromosomes that provide protection during DNA replication are

a)

centromeres.

b)

telomeres.

c)

introns.

d)

tRNA.

39.

Microevolution is the small-scale variation of allele frequencies

a)

within a population in which the descendant is of the same taxonomic group as the ancestor.

b)

that causes a change in the genetic composition of a population during successive generations.

c)

that increases taxonomic diversity or morphological disparity, due to adaptive changes in species.

d)

above the level of species, in which the descendant is in a different taxonomic group to the ancestor.

40.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
41.

In the diagram, which of the processes labelled A to D transfers the largest mass of carbon pr year in a woodland ecosystem?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.

Which organism is best described as a saprotroph?

a)

A fungus that digests its food externally and absorbs the products of digestion

b)

A beetle that feeds by ingesting the dung of other animal species and digesting its food internally

c)

A single-celled eukaryote that is able to photosynthesize and consumes smaller organisms by endocytosis

d)

A giraffe that feeds by ingesting leaves from an acacia tree

43.

The diagram shows interactions between food chains in an ecosystem in the African savannah.

Which arrows indicate the flow of chemical energy?

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

44.

Animals in the highest trophic level of a food chain will often be the largest in body size but will be few in numbers. What accounts for the small numbers?

a)

Food eaten by animals at the highest trophic level has a lower energy content per gram

b)

Energy losses through the food chain

c)

Conversion of heat energy into chemical energy

d)

Biomass of producers is small

45.

Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

a)

Chromosomes are long, thread-like structures

b)

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of all cells in the human body

c)

Chromosomes contain DNA

d)

All of the above

46.

Variations of the same gene are known as...

a)

gametes

b)

chromosomes

c)

alleles

d)

characteristic

47.

Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells?

a)

circular chromosome

b)

linear DNA

c)

diploid nuclei

d)

homologous chromosomes

48.

What information can be deduced from this karyotype?

a)

Male

b)

Human

c)

Female

d)

Haploid

49.

Which of the following is true for an organism with 18 chromosomes in a normal diploid cell?

a)

Mitosis produces cells with 9 chromosomes and meiosis produces cells with 18 chromosomes

b)

Mitosis produces cells with 18 chromosomes and meiosis produces cells with 9 chromosomes

c)

Mitosis produces cells with 36 chromosomes and meiosis produces cells with 18 chromosomes

d)

Mitosis produces cells with 18 chromosomes and meiosis produces cells with 18 chromosomes

50.

When an organism has two different alleles at a particular locus, they are _________for that trait

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous

c)

Dominant

d)

Recessive

51.

Non-disjunction typically occurs during which phase of meiosis?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Metaphase II

52.

Downs syndrome is the result of trisomy in chromosome _______?

a)

12

b)

13

c)

21

d)

X

53.

In some prokaryotes there are segments of DNA independent of the chromosome, what are these called?

a)

Platelets

b)

Plasmids

c)

Plastids

d)

Prototypes

54.

What are the differences between Metaphase I and Metaphase II?

a)

Metaphase I: homologous chromosomes align at equator; Metaphase II: sister chromatids segregate to opposite poles

b)

Metaphase I: homologous chromosomes align at equator; Metaphase II: homologous chromosome segregate to opposite poles

c)

Metaphase I: homologous chromosomes align at equator; Metaphase II: sister chromatids align at equator

d)

Metaphase I: sister chromatids align at equator; Metaphase II: homologous chromosomes segregate to opposite poles

55.

HL

When a species is divided into several populations separated by a physical barrier they may be prevented from reproducing, even though they are potentially able to interbreed.

What is the name given to this situation?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Speciation

c)

Reproductive isolation

d)

Gene flow

56.

What effect does natural selection have on the frequences of individuals with better adapted phenotypes?

a)

It increases the frequency of better adapted phenotypes.

b)

It increases the frequency of the other phenotypes but not the best adapted one.

c)

It decreases the frequency of better adapted phenotypes.

d)

It does not change the frequency of better adapted phenotypes.

57.

What do DNA replication, transcription and translation have in common?

a)

Takes place in nucleus

b)

Requires free nucleotides

c)

Catalysed by polymerase

d)

Complementary base pairing

58.

A sequence of nucleotides reads GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of molecule could this sequence be found?

a)

DNA molecule only

b)

RNA molecule only

c)

DNA and RNA

d)

Neither DNA nor RNA

59.

HL

What are the functions of DNA primase and DNA polymerase 1 in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.

The pedigree chart shows a family affected by cystic fibrosis.

What is the genotype of the affected boy's father?

a)

AA only

b)

Either AA or Aa

c)

Aa only

d)

aa only

61.

Which of these structures is NOT homologous?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

Which pedigree is showing a RECESSIVE inheritance pattern?

a)
b)
63.

What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?

a)

Sex-Linked Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Recessive

c)

Autosomal Dominant

d)

Autosomal Recessive

64.

Which of the following graphs shows a population of organisms with a carrying capacity?

a)
b)
65.

Which of the following shows species population in an environment where there is no limiting factor?

a)
b)
66.

Define "carrying capacity"

a)

any factors in an environment that are limited

b)

when population increases slowly at first then grow at an accelerated rate

c)

minimum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support

d)

maximum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support

67.

The monkey would be a

a)

decomposer

b)

producer

c)

primary consumer

d)

secondary consumer

68.
What are examples of pioneer species in a primary succession?
a)
Bushes and Shrubs
b)
Oak trees
c)
Mossess and Lichens 
d)
A rose Bush
69.
Final illustration (#8) shows
a)
pioneer species
b)
climax community
c)
only biotic factors
d)
only abiotic factors
70.
What is the most important function of pioneer species?
a)
To create rocks
b)
To create soil and add nutrients to the environment 
c)
To look nice
d)
Food for animals 
71.

Which of the following best describes primary succession?

a)

Volcano wipes out ecosystem that gradually grows back from ash covered soil

b)

Volcano creates a new island of rock that must break down to form an ecosystem

c)

Forest fire burns down forest that must bounce back over time

d)

Tornado destroys a crop that must slowly grow back over time.

72.

What is the main difference between primary and secondary ecological succession?

a)

Primary begins WITHOUT soil; Secondary begins WITH soil

b)

Primary is the first state and secondary is the second stage

c)

Primary builds plant community; secondary builds animal community

d)

Primary begins WITH soil; Secondary begins WITHOUT soil

73.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
74.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
75.

Aphids are tiny insects that live on and eat the leaves of plants, removing vital nutrients from the plants.

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

76.

What type of sugar is present in the DNA strand?

a)

Glucose

b)

ribose

c)

deoxyribose

d)

dextrose

77.

What is the function of PCR?

a)

To cut DNA into smaller fragments

b)

To separate DNA fragments based on size

c)

To compare DNA from different species

d)

To amplify DNA

78.

Name the process used to synthesis mRNA

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Protein synthesis

79.

Name the process shown

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Meiosis

d)

Translation

80.

Name the process shown

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Amino acid synthesis

d)

mRNA synthesis