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HSC Biology Module 5

Total questions: 124

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

While observing a litter of guinea pigs, Jack and Jill noticed that they had a variety of brown and white coats. They knew the guinea pigs had the same parents and that they were all from the same litter. Which best explains why they had different coat colors?

a)

they received an exact copy of both parents' DNA

b)

they randomly received DNA from only one parent

c)

the coat color is random and not influenced by parents

d)

they received different combinations of DNA from both parents

2.

Which of the following correctly states the genotype probabilities for the offspring of the parents shown in this punnett square?

a)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous dominant

b)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous recessive

c)

50% heterozygous 25% homozygous recessive 25% homozygous dominant

d)

100% heterozygous

3.

Which of the following correctly states the genotype probabilities for the offspring of the parents shown in this punnett square?

a)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous dominant

b)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous recessive

c)

50% heterozygous 25% homozygous recessive 25% homozygous dominant

d)

100% heterozygous

4.

Which of the following correctly states the genotype probabilities for the offspring of the parents shown in this punnett square?

a)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous dominant

b)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous recessive

c)

50% heterozygous 25% homozygous recessive 25% homozygous dominant

d)

100% heterozygous

5.

The pedigree is tracing the expression of a recessive trait for generations I and II. Both parents carry the trait but only one parent presents the trait.

Based on the information in the pedigree what is the genotype for individual I-1?

a)

hetyerozygous

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

none of the provided

6.

The pedigree is tracing the expression of a recessive trait for generations I and II. Both parents carry the trait but only one parent presents the trait.

Based on the information in the pedigree what is the genotype for individual I-2?

a)

hetyerozygous

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

none of the provided

7.

The pedigree is tracing the expression of a recessive trait for generations I and II. Both parents carry the trait but only one parent presents the trait.

Based on the information in the pedigree what is the genotype for individual II-3?

a)

hetyerozygous

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

none of the provided

8.

The pedigree is tracing the expression of a recessive trait for generations I and II. Both parents carry the trait but only one parent presents the trait.

Based on the information in the pedigree what is the genotype for individual II-2?

a)

hetyerozygous

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

none of the provided

9.

If A codes for the tall trait and a codes for the short trait. What is the probability that the offspring between a heterozygous dad and a homozygous short mom will be tall?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

10.

If A codes for the tall trait and a codes for the short trait. What is the probability that the offspring between a heterozygous dad and a heterozygous mom will be tall?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

11.
Which term correctly describes an individual with a pair of the same alleles for a trait? 
a)
homologous
b)
heterozygous
c)
homozygous
d)
heterologus
12.

On this pedigree, the allele for white forelock is dominant. The couple labeled 2 both have white forelock, but have a daughter who does not have curly hair. Which of the following best describes couple 2?

a)

the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.

b)

the male is homozygous recessive and the female is homozygous dominant.

c)

the male is homozygous dominant and the female is heterozygous

d)

the male is heterozygous and the female is homozygous recessive.

13.

Observe the pedigree. What is the most likely genotype for person III-3?

a)

GG because the trait is recessive.

b)

Gg because the trait is recessive

c)

gg because the trait is dominant

d)

Gg because the trait is dominant

14.

Possessing a single copy of the HbS allele (sickle cell carrier) has been shown to provide some resistance to infection by the parasite that causes Malaria. Which of the following individuals in the pedigree would have the greatest selective advantage in an area where malaria is common?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

V

15.

When one allele is not dominant over another, resulting in a blended phenotype for heterozygous offspring is considered....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

16.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

17.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

2 red, 2 speckled

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

2 blue, 2 speckled

18.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a blue flower.

a)

1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

4 speckled

d)

1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue

19.

In mice coat color is incompletely dominant. Black and white are homozygous. Brown mice are heterozygous.


What is the genotype for a brown mouse?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

20.

In cattle red coats are represented as RR, and white coats are represented as WW.


What is the genotype for Roan color?

a)

RR

b)

RW

c)

WW

21.

Which of the following are genotypes for blood type B?

a)

IA IA and IA IB

b)

IB IB and ii

c)

IB IB and IB i

d)

IA IB and IA IB

22.

Which of the following is true about blood type O?

a)

It contains antigen A only.

b)

It contains antigen B only.

c)

It contains both antigen A and antigen B.

d)

It doesn’t contain antigen A or antigen B.

23.

In the image above, what is the percentage of the offspring has the possibility of inheriting blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

24.

Which of the following refers to a complete dominant cross?

a)

One allele completely dominates over the other.

b)

The two alleles are equally seen in the heterozygous genotype.

c)

The two alleles are blended in the heterozygous genotype.

d)

Neither allele is seen in the phenotypes.

25.

In which of the following is the codominant phenotype seen in the offspring?

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

none of these

26.

In the image above, the trait for flower color is controlled by codominance. R codes for red flowers and W codes for white flowers. Which of the following correctly reports the phenotypes?

a)

100% red flowers

b)

50% white flowers and 50% pink flowers

c)

50% red flowers and 50% red and white flowers

d)

50% white flowers and 50% red flowers

27.

Which of the following genotypes code for the blood type AB?

a)

IA IA and IA IB

b)

IA IB only

c)

IA IB and IB i

d)

ii only

28.

In an incomplete dominant cross, B codes for red flowers and b codes for white flowers. Which genotype will show white flowers in the phenotype?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

Bb and bb

29.

In an incomplete dominant cross, B codes for red flowers and b codes for white flowers. Which genotype will show pink flowers in the phenotype?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

Bb and bb

30.

what is not a role of mitosis?

a)

growth

b)

development

c)

replacing damaged cells

d)

absorbing nutrients

31.

What cells does meiosis act upon?

a)

gametes

b)

somatic

c)

nerve

d)

muscle

32.

What is not a way that meiosis introduces variation?

a)

crossing over

b)

independent assortment

c)

random segregation

d)

binary fission

33.

what cells are lost once destroyed (don't undergo mitosis)?

a)

neurons

b)

bone

c)

skin

d)

bone marrow

34.

What is not a step in mitosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Celophase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

35.

What occurs during interphase in mitosis?

a)

DNA synthesis occurs

b)

Chromosomes visible

c)

Chromosomes line up in the middle

d)

Chromosomes are at opposite ends

36.

What occurs during Prophase in mitosis?

a)

DNA synthesis occurs

b)

Chromosomes visible (condensing)

c)

Chromosomes line up in the middle

d)

Splits cell into two daughter cells

37.

What occurs during Metaphase in mitosis?

a)

chromosomes line up in the middle

b)

chromosomes move to opposite sides (poles)

c)

chromosomes visible (condensing)

d)

splits cell into two daughter cells

38.

What occurs during Anaphase during mitosis?

a)

chromosomes move to opposite sides (poles)

b)

chromosomes visible (condensing)

c)

DNA synthesis occurs

d)

chromosomes at opposite ends

39.

What occurs during Telophase during mitosis?

a)

chromosomes at opposite ends

b)

chromosomes move to opposite sides (poles)

c)

splits cell into two daughter cells

d)

DNA synthesis occurs

40.

What occurs during Cytokinesis during mitosis?

a)

splits cell into two daughter cells

b)

chromosomes at opposite ends

c)

chromosomes move to opposite sides (poles)

d)

DNA synthesis occurs

41.

What is the correct order of steps in mitosis?

a)

IPMATC

b)

MIPATC

c)

TCAMPI

d)

PIMATC

42.

How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

1

43.

What is it called when: Chromosomes wind around each other and transfer genetic info by recombining alleles that have gene loci at the same location

a)

crossing over

b)

reduction division

c)

random assortment

d)

map distance

44.

What nitrogen base pairs with A in DNA?

a)

T

b)

G

c)

C

45.

What nitrogen base pairs with G in DNA?

a)

C

b)

T

c)

A

46.

What kind of bond holds the nitrogenous bases together?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Covalent

c)

Ionic

47.

In what order does DNA replication occur?

a)

Initiation, Elongation, Termination

b)

Elongation, Termination, Initiation

c)

Termination, Initiation, Elongation

48.

Helicase role in DNA replication

a)

breaks the hydrogen bonds between the bases

b)

synthesises short RNA primers which are necessary for DNA placements

c)

recognises nucleotides + adds free corresponding nucleotides to the chain

d)

links short stretches of DNA together to create a continuous DNA strand

49.

DNA polymerase role in DNA replication

a)

recognises nucleotides + adds free corresponding nucleotides to the chain

b)

links short stretches of DNA together to create a continuous DNA strand

c)

breaks the hydrogen bonds between the bases

d)

synthesises short RNA primers which are necessary for DNA placements

50.

Ligase role in DNA replication

a)

links short stretches of DNA together to create a continuous DNA strand

b)

recognises nucleotides + adds free corresponding nucleotides to the chain

c)

synthesises short RNA primers which are necessary for DNA placements

d)

breaks the hydrogen bonds between the bases

51.

What is: the means by which animals produce offspring

a)

mechanisms of reproduction

b)

Continuity of a species

c)

Sexual reproduction

d)

Asexual reproduction

52.

What is: the ongoing survival of a species as a result of characteristics being passed from parents to offspring in a continuous lineage

a)

mechanisms of reproduction

b)

Continuity of a species

c)

Sexual reproduction

d)

Asexual reproduction

53.

happens when gametes are fused to create a zygote

a)

mechanisms of reproduction

b)

Continuity of a species

c)

Sexual reproduction

d)

Asexual reproduction

54.

reproduction that doesn’t involve fusion of gametes – inherit genes only from one parent

a)

mechanisms of reproduction

b)

Continuity of a species

c)

Sexual reproduction

d)

Asexual reproduction

55.

What are the two types of fertilisation in animals?

a)

Internal and external

b)

Sexual and asexual

c)

Mitosis and meiosis

d)

Self and non-self

56.

what is known as: the action of sperm fertilising an egg

a)

fertilisation

b)

pollination

c)

sex

d)

reproduction

57.

what is: fertilisation occurring outside of the animals body/reproductive tract

a)

external fertilisation

b)

internal fertilisation

c)

reproduction

d)

meiosis

58.

What is a disadvantage of external fertilisation?

a)

Decreased chance of gametes meeting

b)

A higher number of offspring

c)

Less energy to fertilise

d)

Less competition

59.

what is: fertilisation occurring inside an organisms reproductive tract

a)

Internal fertilisation

b)

External fertilisation

c)

Pollination

d)

Asexual reproduction

60.

Which is not a disadvantage of internal fertilisation?

a)

requires more energy to find a mate

b)

less offspring

c)

higher contribution required from female

d)

fewer threats to the internal environment

61.

what is known as: the movement of pollen from the anther to the stigma

a)

pollination

b)

fertilisation

c)

asexual repoduction

d)

mitosis

62.

what is it called when: pollen growing a pollen tube down the style to reach the ovary/ova

a)

fertilisation

b)

pollination

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

sepal

63.

which is not a method of asexual reproduction in plants

a)

cross-pollination

b)

runners

c)

tubers

d)

suckers

64.

what are two types of reproduction in fungi?

a)

budding

b)

spores

c)

runners

d)

cross-pollination

65.

how many cells are produced from a single cell after it undergoes binary fission

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

66.

What are the two reproductive methods of protists

a)

binary fission

b)

budding

c)

spores

d)

rhizomes

67.

what are: chemical substances that are made in the endocrine glands + travel around the body via bloodstream.

a)

hormones

b)

electrical currents

c)

nerve impulses

d)

muscle spasms

68.

What hormone does not have a major role in pregnancy?

a)

insulin

b)

HCG

c)

progesterone

d)

prolactin

69.

what is: the act of intentionally crossing two individuals with superior genetics/traits, seeking to combine these desirable traits in the offspring produced

a)

selective breeding

b)

hybridisation

c)

artificial insemination

70.

what is: The breeding between genetically different individuals from different breeds

a)

selective breeding

b)

hybridisation

c)

artificial insemination

71.

what is: A medical procedure whereby semen is collected from a male animal and is later inserted into the vagina or uterus through a catheter with the intention of making the female animal pregnant.

a)

selective breeding

b)

hybridisation

c)

artificial insemination

72.

what is a disadvantage of selective breeding?

a)

Not all offspring are guaranteed to have the trait

b)

increased production

c)

Decreased cost/ effort/ time

d)

Economic gain

73.

What is a disadvantage of hybridisation?

a)

Decreased biodiversity long term

b)

Higher production

c)

Less space required

d)

Initially increase in biodiversity

74.

What is a disadvantage of artificial insemination?

a)

Increased cost

b)

Increased production

c)

Results in animals with desirable traits

d)

Safer (as farmers do not have to have a male on their farm)

75.

How are cells differentiated?

a)

the way that the DNA molecules are organised and packaged

b)

how big they are

c)

what nitrogenous bases they have

76.

what is the process where: DNA is converted int mRNA code, then is carried to the cytoplasm and then to ribosomes

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

mRNA replication

77.

What is the process where: mRNA is read within the ribosome, where associated anticodons are paired up, leaving their amino acid, creating a polypeptide chain.

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Translocation

78.

What is not a role of mRNA?

a)

essential to keep DNA protected

b)

carry genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosomes

c)

has start and stop codons which initiates translation and releases the polypeptide chain into the cytoplasm

d)

carries specific amino acids to be joined onto the polypeptide chain

79.

What is the role of tRNA?

a)

carries specific amino acids to be joined onto the polypeptide chain

b)

has start and stop codons which initiates translation and releases the polypeptide chain into the cytoplasm

c)

carry genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosomes

d)

essential to keep DNA protected

80.

phenotype

a)

physical appearance

b)

genetics

c)

photosynthetic organisms

81.

gene expression

a)

translocation of genes into their protein end products

b)

transcription

c)

translation

82.

what can phenotype be determined by (other than genes)

a)

pH

b)

temperature

c)

diet

d)

stress

83.

what are the levels of physical structure?

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary

84.

Primary structure

a)

the amino acid sequence

b)

formation of alpha helices and beta sheets

c)

secondary folding caused by the interaction between the polypeptide and its immediate environment, results in the formation of overall 3D structure

d)

the relationship between individual subunits

85.

Secondary structure

a)

the amino acid sequence

b)

formation of alpha helices and beta sheets

c)

secondary folding caused by the interaction between the polypeptide and its immediate environment, results in the formation of overall 3D structure

d)

the relationship between individual subunits

86.

Tertiary structure

a)

the amino acid sequence

b)

formation of alpha helices and beta sheets

c)

secondary folding caused by the interaction between the polypeptide and its immediate environment, results in the formation of overall 3D structure

d)

the relationship between individual subunits

87.

Quaternary structure

a)

the amino acid sequence

b)

formation of alpha helices and beta sheets

c)

secondary folding caused by the interaction between the polypeptide and its immediate environment, results in the formation of overall 3D structure

d)

the relationship between individual subunits

88.
Pairs of thread-like molecules, which live in a cell's nucleus, and carry genetic information are called
a)
ribosomes
b)
mitosis
c)
DNA
d)
meiosis
89.
Made of DNA, this is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity
a)
chromosomes
b)
nucleus
c)
nucleic acid
d)
mitochondria
90.
Which of the following is NOT true of asexual reproduction?
a)
allows for rapid population increases
b)
occurs commonly among single-celled animals
c)
causes a population to have more genetic variety
d)
can be used along with some organisms along with sexual reproduction
91.
If a starfish is cut in half and grows into two new starfish, what is a characteristic of this type of reproduction?
a)
New traits will be produced in the new organism
b)
The genetic material will be identical
c)
The offspring will be genetically different from the parent
d)
Egg and sperm cells are responsible for the new growth
92.
Which of the following is always true of animals that are products of sexual reproduction?
a)
They are nursed by their mothers
b)
They have genetic material from two parents
c)
They are identical to one of their parents
d)
They are born by hatching from eggs
93.

The hydra is a very small, simple animal that lives in water. Hydras reproduce asexually by budding,

a process in which a bud breaks off an adult hydra and floats away. Which of these describes a hydra?

a)

A hydra bud contains genetic material from its two parents.

b)

A hydra bud is genetically identical to the parent hydra.

c)

A hydra bud has different mutations than the parent hydra.

d)

A hydra bud has half as much genetic material as the parent hydra

94.

During asexual reproduction in one celled algae, a single alga become two new algae. The genetic material in each of the daughter cells is usually -

a)

half the number of genes

b)

totally different from the parent cell

c)

the same number of genes

d)

twice the number of genes

95.
Which statement describes asexual and sexual reproduction?
a)
Asexual is one part of sexual reproduction.
b)
Sexual reproduction happens before asexual reproduction.
c)
Asexual needs one parent, and sexual needs two parents.
d)
Sexual only happens in animals, and asexual happens only in plants.
96.
What is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
a)
Sexual reproduction produces identical offspring.
b)
Sexual reproduction happens before asexual reproduction.
c)
Sexual reproduction generates a large number of offspring.
d)
Sexual reproduction causes genetic variation in offspring.
97.
Which organism is the product of asexual reproduction?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
98.

If an offspring is produced through sexual reproduction, the offspring’s genetic material is always -

a)

A blend of the genetic material of its parents.

b)

identical to the genetic material of its siblings.

c)

a copy of the genetic material of one parent.

d)

completely unrelated to that of its parents.

99.

Prokaryotes reproduce asexually through –

a)

budding

b)

binary fission

c)

spore formation

d)

vegetative propagation

100.

Which is NOT a form of asexual reproduction?

a)

binary fission

b)

meiosis

c)

budding

d)

parthenogenesis

101.

Amoeba use mitosis and produce two offspring that are identical to the parent. This is an example of...

a)

budding.

b)

binary fission.

c)

regeneration.

d)

parthenogenesis.

102.

Sexual reproduction requires ______ parent(s) and asexual reproduction requires ______ parent(s).

a)

one, one

b)

two, two

c)

two, one

d)

one, two

103.

Which of the following types of reproduction would result in the greatest genetic diversity in the offspring?

a)
b)
c)
d)
104.

Which correctly identifies the process by the letters in the diagram?

a)

mitosis (A) meiosis (B) fertilization (C) differentiation (D)

b)

meiosis (A) meiosis (B) fertilization (C) differentiation (D)

c)

meiosis (A) mitosis (B) differentiation (C) fertilization (D)

d)

mitosis (A) mitosis (B) differentiation (C) fertilization (D)

105.

The structure labeled A is

a)

Penis

b)

Placenta

c)

Scrotum

d)

Cowper's Gland

106.

This is a picture of:

a)

Grafting

b)

Gametes

c)

Crossing over

d)

Gene Splicing

107.

Another word for sex Cells are gametes

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Blood cells are examples of gametes

a)

True

b)

False

109.

This process ensures:

a)

Genetic diversity in offspring

b)

Genetic identical offspring

c)

Absolutely nothing

d)

WE don't know yet

110.

Three human hormones most directly involved in human reproduction are:

a)

Estrogen, insulin, progesterone

b)

Testosterone, insulin, estrogen

c)

Testosterone, ATP,

d)

Testosterone, progesterone, estrogen

111.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

112.

Hormone that causes the appearance of secondary sex characteristics in women

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Luteinizing Hormone

d)

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

113.

Stimulates development of follicles

a)

Progesterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Luteinizing Hormone

d)

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

114.

Part of the body that secretes progesterone

a)

Follicle Cells

b)

Corpus Luteum

c)

Pituitary Glands

d)

Uterus

115.

Estrogen levels are highest...

a)

During ovulation

b)

After Ovulation

c)

Before ovulation

d)

During menses

116.
The thickened endometrium is maintained by:
a)
FSH
b)
LH
c)
Estrogen
d)
Progesterone
117.
Ovulation is triggered by a surge in:
a)
FSH
b)
LH
c)
Estrogen
d)
Progesterone
118.

This gland releases the male sex hormone testosterone.

a)

ovaries

b)

pancreas

c)

testes

d)

adrenal

119.

What hormones are released by the Pituitary Gland?

a)

FSH, Oestrogen, LH and Progesterone

b)

FSH, Oestrogen, and Progesterone

c)

FSH, LH and Progesterone

d)

FSH and LH

120.
The diagram shows the female reproductive system. The part labelled B is called  
a)
sperm 
b)
the egg  
c)
the womb  
d)
the ovary 
121.

A temporary suspension of the menstrual cycle normally occurs during

a)

menstruation

b)

pregnancy

c)

ovulation

d)

menopause

122.
What structure is the endometrium?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
123.
The part of the female reproductive system where fertilization takes place
a)
Uterus
b)
Womb
c)
Vaginal opening
d)
Fallopian Tubes
124.

Females make primary oocytes everyday

a)

False, they make them every month

b)

False, they make them every year

c)

False, they are born with all the primary oocytes they'll ever have

d)

True

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