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8th Grade Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In physical science, a push or a pull is called a(n)

a)

force

b)

acceleration

c)

inertia

d)

motion

2.

When an object's distance from another object is changing,

a)

it is in motion.

b)

it is speeding.

c)

it has a high velocity.

d)

it is accelerating.

3.

A place or object used for comparison to determine if something is in motion is

a)

a position

b)

a reference point

c)

constant

d)

velocity

4.

The force of gravity on a person or object at the surface of a planet is known as

a)

mass.

b)

inertia.

c)

air resistance.

d)

weight.

5.

If you were on the moon, your weight would be roughly what fraction of your weight on Earth?

a)

1/3

b)

1/4

c)

1/5

d)

1/6

6.

As you travel throughout the universe, which of the following would always remain constant?

a)

Mass

b)

Weight

c)

Gravity

d)

Both Mass & Weight

7.

Two students are pushing a cart, as shown in the picture.

The cart will move as if it were acted on by a single force with a magnitude of

a)

50 N.

b)

150 N.

c)

200 N.

d)

250 N.

8.

Use the drawing to answer the following question.

All of the boxes shown above can slide easily. Which box will move farthest if each is struck with the same amount of force?

a)

The 1 kg box

b)

The 10 kg box

c)

The 20 kg box

d)

The 50 kg box

9.

Marisol is sitting in a bus that is passing by a traffic light. Which statement correctly describes Marisol's motion?

a)

Marisol is moving relative to both the traffic light and the bus driver.

b)

Marisol is not moving relative to either the traffic light or the bus driver.

c)

Marisol is moving relative tot he traffic light, but she is not moving relative to the bus driver.

d)

Marisol is moving relative to the bus driver, but she is not moving relative to the traffic light.

10.

Which of the following electromagnets would have the greatest magnetic field?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

A metal bar magnet has a magnetic field in the region of space around it. The magnetic field is due to

a)

magnetic monopoles embedded in the metal.

b)

a hidden voltage source in the metal.

c)

the motion of charged particles in the metal.

d)

an electric current that runs along the length of the magnet.

12.

The diagram shows the magnetic field of Earth.

At which location is Earth's magnetic field the strongest?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

13.

Two oppositely charged particles are held in place near each other. When the particles are released, they will most likely

a)

accelerate away from each other.

b)

accelerate toward each other.

c)

rotate in a clockwise direction.

d)

rotate in a counterclockwise direction.

14.

If you were able to go to the top of a tall building and simultaneously drop an apple and a basketball, they would both hit the ground at about the same time because

a)

the force of gravity on them is equal.

b)

they have the same mass.

c)

air resistance on both is the same.

d)

they have the same amount of kinetic energy.

15.

The diagram represents two identical space ships, Earth, a space station, and the Moon.

The two ships are launched toward the Moon. Ship 1 is launched from Earth, and ship 2 is launched from the space station. It takes less force to launch ship 2.

Which of the following contributes most to the difference in forces?

a)

Ship 2 has less inertia in space than ship 1 does on Earth.

b)

Earth exerts less gravitational force on ship 2 than on ship 1.

c)

Ship 2 must travel a shorter distance than ship 1 before reaching the Moon.

d)

The Moon exerts more gravitational force on ship 2 than on ship 1.

16.

The force of gravity on an object depends primarily on the object's

a)

density.

b)

mass.

c)

momentum.

d)

distance.

17.

A force acting on an object that is free to move will cause a change in the speed of the object. Which graph shows how the speed of an object would change if a single constant force were applied to the object over a period of time?

a)
b)
c)
d)
18.

Susan gently pushes the tip of her finger against the eraser on her pencil and the pencil does not move. Which of the following figures best illustrates the interaction of forces between Susan's finger and her pencil?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

This force is caused by the attractive and repulsive forces between electrically charged particles.

a)

Gravity

b)

Electrical Field

c)

Magnetic Field

d)

Friction

20.

What happens when two forces act in the same direction?

a)

They cancel each other out.

b)

The stronger one prevails.

c)

They add together.

d)

Their sum divided by two is the total force.

21.

The diagram shows four layers of Earth's internal structure.

Which layer is composed mostly of solid iron and nickel?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

22.

Jamal makes a scale model of Earth for a school project.  In his model, he uses different materials to show each layer of Earth.  Which layer in his model should be the thinnest?

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

23.

Which method is best for studying the composition of Earth’s core?

a)

Drill holes to the center of Earth to take samples.

b)

Study rocks eroded by rivers.

c)

Study seismic waves.

d)

Take samples in a cave.

24.

If you were to travel through the layers to the center of the Earth,

a)

temperature and density would decrease.

b)

temperature and density would increase.

c)

temperature would increase, but density would decrease.

d)

temperature would decrease but density would increase.

25.

Based on the diagram, which process explains why less dense, hot magma rises to the surface to displace more dense, cooler magma?

a)

Conduction

b)

Diffusion

c)

Radiation

d)

Convection

26.

Which of the following is a scientifically accepted theory of Earth’s origin based on the Nebular Hypothesis?

a)

Solid pieces of debris from the Big Bang became rounded due to wind erosion.

b)

The sun and planets were condensed from parts of the same spinning cloud of dust and gas.

c)

The planets were large asteroids captured by the sun and pulled into its orbit.

d)

Cooling debris from the sun was thrown off and began to orbit the sun.

27.

The theory of planetary differentiation is responsible for

a)

Earth’s formation from clouds and dust.

b)

the layers of Earth’s interior.

c)

the orbit of planets around the sun.

d)

the layers of the sun’s interior.

28.

When multiple materials of different densities are mixed together,

a)

the more dense materials sink while the less dense materials rise.

b)

the more dense materials rise while the less dense materials sink.

c)

the materials separate based on their different masses, not densities.

d)

the materials will only separate into layers if exposed to high temperatures.

29.

By using seismic waves, how did scientists determine that the outer core was liquid?

a)

P waves did not travel through it, but s waves did, and p waves cannot travel through liquids.

b)

P waves did travel through it, but s waves did not, and s waves cannot travel through liquids.

c)

P waves traveled straight through it, but s waves refracted, and s waves only bend in liquids.

d)

P waves refracted at the outer core, but s waves traveled straight through it, and p waves only bend in liquids.

30.

What do most textbooks get wrong in their pictures of Earth’s interior layers?

a)

Earth's layers are drawn with clear boundaries and even thicknesses instead of blending together and showing variation around the world.

b)

Layers are often shown with equal thicknesses when they actually all have different thicknesses.

c)

Layers are all shown as the same color when in reality they are different colors.

d)

Layers are often all identified as made up of solid rock instead of the different materials and states of matter they actually are.

31.

Which of the following lists the layers of Earth in the correct order starting at the surface?

a)

Inner Core, Outer Core, Mantle, Crust

b)

Crust, Outer Core, Inner Core, Mantle

c)

Mantle, Crust, Inner Core, Outer Core

d)

Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core

32.

What produces Earth's magnetic field?

a)

The spinning of the inner core.

b)

The spinning of the outer core.

c)

The spinning of the mantle.

d)

The spinning of the crust.

33.

Which of the following was NOT one of the sets of data that scientists used to learn about Earth’s interior?

a)

Earth’s magnetic field

b)

Earth’s fossil record

c)

Meteorites

d)

Rocks formed deep within the Earth

34.

Alfred Wegener’s Theory of Continental Drift was not well accepted because he couldn’t say what force could be big enough to move continents.  Current theories explain this movement with

a)

subduction zones at continental margins.

b)

hot spots forming under continents

c)

magnetic reversals of the north and south poles.

d)

convection currents in the mantle.

35.

Scientists in modern times have been able to use satellites and GPS data to measure the rate at which plates move.  This data has shown that some plates move at a faster rate than others.  Which of the following best explains why some plates move at a faster rate?

a)

Less dense oceanic plates require less force to move, so they travel at a faster speed.

b)

Uneven heating of Earth’s interior causes magma to move faster in some regions.

c)

Lack of heat from Earth’s interior causes divergent boundaries to slow and stop at regular intervals.

d)

Slab pull by plates going under at subduction zones causes the rest of the plate to go under.

36.

What type of plate boundary occurs when two plates are moving towards each other or colliding?

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Strike-Slip Boundary

d)

Transform Boundary

37.

What type of plate boundary occurs when two plates are moving away from one another?

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Subduction Zone

d)

Transform Boundary

38.

What type of plate boundary occurs when two plates slide past each other side-by-side?

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Subduction Zone

d)

Transform Boundary

39.

The diagram below shows a boundary between an oceanic plate and a continental plate.  An X marks one location on the continental plate.

Which feature will most likely form at the location marked by an X?

a)

a desert

b)

a volcano

c)

a rift valley

d)

a transform fault

40.

Looking at the diagram, which area is likely the oldest crust?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

41.

The best evidence that the continents were once connected is that they have matching

a)

weather, fossils, and rock types.

b)

rock types, fossils, and coastlines.

c)

coastlines, weather, and rock types.

d)

coastlines, weather, and fossils.

42.

A line of volcanoes occurs along the western coast of South America near location 4.  Based on the information about plate movement on the map, which process explains the formation of these volcanoes?

a)

Subducting of one plate under the other causing melting of the lower plate.

b)

Sliding of one plate sideways past another resulting in friction and melting.

c)

Melting of crust because of plate movement over a hot spot.

d)

Rifting of a plate with lava filling in the resulting valley.

43.

What process is forming high nonvolcanic mountains at location 1 on the map?

a)

One tectonic plate is splitting apart into two plates.

b)

Two tectonic plates are colliding and pushing together.

c)

One tectonic plate is sliding past another tectonic plate.

d)

Two tectonic plates are colliding and one is sliding under the other.

44.

The Hawaiian Islands are younger on the eastern end than on the western end of the chain.

What is causing the age differences among the islands?

a)

Two crustal plates are colliding.

b)

A divergent boundary exists in the ocean floor.

c)

An ocean plate is moving southeast across a hot spot.

d)

An ocean plate is moving northwest across a hot spot.

45.

What evidence is best used to support sea-floor spreading?

a)

fossil record, age of ocean crust, and magnetic strips

b)

fossil record, magnetic strips, and formation of mid-ocean ridges

c)

formation of mid-ocean ridges, age of oceanic crust, and fossil record

d)

formation of mid-ocean ridges, age of oceanic crust, and magnetic strips.

46.

Crust can be classified into two types: oceanic and continental.  Which of the following describes a key difference between the two types of crust?

a)

Oceanic crust is thicker than continental crust.

b)

Oceanic crust is more dense than continental crust.

c)

Oceanic crust is older than continental crust.

d)

Oceanic crust is made of granite whereas continental crust is made of basalt.

47.

According to the theory of plate tectonics, the _____________________ is the crust and solid part of the upper mantle that is broken into large pieces.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

crust

c)

lithosphere

d)

mantle

48.

According to the theory of plate tectonics, the _________________________ is the plastic-like and less rigid part of the upper mantle that carries the plates.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

crust

c)

lithosphere

d)

mantle

49.

Which area of the diagram shows the subduction zone?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.

The map of Turkey shows the location of the North Anatolian and East Anatolian Faults. Both are examples of strike-slip faults. Which Earth event occurs along these faults?

a)

Tsunamis

b)

Earthquakes

c)

Formation of volcanoes

d)

Formation of islands

51.

The map shows the location of the Great African Rift Valley in East Africa. In a million years, what is the most likely geologic feature that will have formed where the Great Rift Valley is now located?

a)

An inland sea

b)

A mountain range

c)

A new continent

d)

A new forest

52.

The Mid-Atlantic Ridge exists between the African and South American geologic plates. Which process most often occurs at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge?

a)

destruction of underwater mountains

b)

creation of new continents

c)

subduction of geologic plates

d)

spreading of sea floor

53.

What is the name of the supercontinent that existed over 200 million years ago according to the Theory of Continental Drift?

a)

Gondwana

b)

Pangaea

c)

Pannotia

d)

Eurasia

54.

The breaking down of rocks and other materials on Earth's surface is called

a)

abrasion.

b)

deposition.

c)

erosion.

d)

weathering.

55.

The process by which broken down rocks and soil are moved from one place to another is called

a)

abrasion.

b)

deposition.

c)

erosion.

d)

weathering.

56.

A process that creates landforms is called a/an

a)

abstract process.

b)

constructive process.

c)

corrosive process.

d)

destructive process.

57.

A process that destroys landforms is called a/an

a)

abstract process.

b)

constructive process.

c)

corrosive process.

d)

destructive process.

58.

Which of the following processes is an example of chemical weathering?

a)

The widening of cracks in rocks by tree roots.

b)

The rusting of iron-rich minerals.

c)

The expansion and contraction of rocks as temperature changes.

d)

The scouring of rocks by windblown sand.

59.

How can water be an agent for mechanical weathering?

a)

By absorbing gases from the atmosphere and ground to chemically react with minerals.

b)

By seeping into the soil and dissolving the minerals in rocks.

c)

By absorbing sulfur oxides and creating acid precipitation.

d)

By seeping into the cracks of rocks and freezing.

60.

The most common agent of chemical weathering is

a)

air pollution.

b)

water.

c)

sulfuric acid.

d)

gravity.

61.

What agent of mechanical weathering occurs when rock particles carried by wind or water rub against a rock like sandpaper and break it down?

a)

abrasion

b)

ice wedging

c)

gravity

d)

oxidation

62.

How do plants most commonly break large rocks into smaller pieces?

a)

Plant leaves insulate surrounding rocks from extreme temperatures.

b)

Plant roots grow into cracks in the rocks.

c)

Seeds from plants fall onto rocks and release acidic compounds.

d)

Stems of plants surround and squeeze rocks.

63.

A student sees pavement that is raised and cracked on her street. She knows that this happens only in the winter. Her mother calls these "frost heaves."

Which sentence best explains how frost heaves occur?

a)

Ice crystals cover the entire surface of the pavement.

b)

Water trapped under the pavement expands as the water freezes.

c)

The weight of heavy snowfalls puts too much pressure on the pavement.

d)

Shoveling the snow damages the pavement.

64.

Which of the following correctly identifies how the rate of weathering can be changed?

a)

Rock type doesn't matter - all rocks weather at the same rate.

b)

Cool, rainy climates cause rocks to weather the fastest.

c)

Because they've not had as much time to solidify, younger rocks weather faster.

d)

Rocks with more exposed surface area weather faster.

65.

In which climate would weathering occur at the fastest rate?

a)

Warm and rainy

b)

Warm and dry

c)

Cool and rainy

d)

Cool and dry

66.

What is humus?

a)

The topsoil in the B horizon.

b)

The part of soil formed from decaying organic matter.

c)

The process of breaking down rock into soil.

d)

A delicious chickpea dip for veggies.

67.

Which of the following lists the soil horizons in the correct order starting at the top?

a)

A Horizon, B Horizon, C Horizon, O Horizon, Bedrock

b)

Bedrock, C Horizon, B Horizon, A Horizon, O Horizon

c)

Bedrock, O Horizon, C Horizon, B Horizon, A Horizon

d)

O Horizon, A Horizon, B Horizon, C Horizon, Bedrock

68.

Soil is formed from

a)

weathered rock and water.

b)

weathered rock and humus.

c)

water and humus.

d)

worm feces and bedrock.

69.

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between residual soil and transported soil?

a)

Residual soil is left behind from weathered rock and transported soil is deposited by a river.

b)

Residual soil is permanent whereas transported soil is constantly moving.

c)

Residual soil remains on top of its parent rock whereas transported soil is moved from its place of origin.

d)

Residual soil is moved by nature whereas transported soil is moved by humans.

70.

How is the weathering of rock helpful to life on Earth?

a)

It creates beautiful land formations.

b)

It forms soil to support plant and animal growth.

c)

It is a key part of energy transfer through food webs.

d)

It quickly removes obstacles that block plant and animal growth.