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Midterm Exam Review (25/26)

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Protects and supports body organs, provides a framework that muscles use to cause movement, site for blood cell formation, and a storage for various minerals BEST describes which organ system:

a)

Integumentary System

b)

Cardiovascular System

c)

Nervous System

d)

Skeletal System

2.

Arteries, veins, and the heart are all part of which of the following organ systems:

a)

Lymphatic System

b)

Cardiovascular System

c)

Endocrine System

d)

Integumentary System

3.

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains which of the following:

a)

The lowest possible energy usage.

b)

A relatively stable internal environment (within limits).

c)

A static state with no deviation from preset points.

d)

A very rapidly changing state, with constant and wide ranging fluctuations from a set point.

4.

Within a homeostatic control mechanism, which of the following is responsible for providing the response signaled for by the control center:

a)

Control Center

b)

Receptors

c)

Variables

d)

Effectors

5.

Which of the following is/are examples of a negative feedback mechanism:

a)

Blood glucose regulation

b)

Blood calcium levels

c)

Body temperature

d)

All of the above are examples of negative feedback mechanisms

e)

None of the above are examples of negative feedback mechanisms

6.

Anatomical directional term for towards, or at the FRONT of the body (or in FRONT of another organ):

a)

Posterior

b)

Lateral

c)

Medial

d)

Anterior

7.

An ionic bond is best described as which of the following:

a)

A bond that Involves the transfer of valence shell electrons from one atom to another resulting in the attraction of opposite charges.

b)

A bond formed by the sharing of two or more valence shell electrons between two atoms.

c)

A weak attractive force established between polar ends of molecules.

d)

All of the above.

8.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a)

When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt.

b)

The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution.

c)

When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases.

d)

The pH of blood is slightly basic.

9.

Human blood has a pH of approximately 7.4. This implies that human blood is:

a)

Very acidic

b)

Slightly acidic

c)

Slightly basic

d)

Perfectly neutral

10.

In regards to nucleic acids, please select which of the following is/are TRUE statements from the choices below:

a)

Monomer units for nucleic acids are called nucleotides.

b)

DNA is a double-stranded, helical molecule that contains the four nitrogen bases A, T, C, and G.

c)

In DNA, base pairing rules state that A pairs with T, and C pairs with G.

d)

DNA holds the genetic blueprint for making proteins.

e)

All of the above are true regarding nucleic acids.

11.

Which of the following describes the plasma membrane of a cell?

a)

A single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell.

b)

A double layer of nucleic acid that surrounds the cytosol.

c)

A phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell.

d)

A membrane composed of two layers of carbohydrates.

12.

The myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) undergoes a significant amount of physical stress due to its contractions, but still needs to have flexibility in order to move during the contractile process. You would expect to see relatively large numbers of which of the following embedded within their plasma membrane to help reduce the possibility of tearing under tension: 

a)

Transport proteins

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Plasmodesmata

13.

A type of cell junction that is formed when integral proteins on adjacent cells fuse (prevents fluids and most molecules from moving between cells) is BEST classified as which of the following:

a)

Tight junction

b)

Desmosome

c)

Gap Junction

d)

Plasmodesmata

14.

A cell is placed in a solution that MATCHES the same solute concentration as that found in the cell. Which of the following is the MOST likely to occur in the cell:

a)

The cell will burst.

b)

The cell will shrink.

c)

Fluid will move in equal directions in and out of the cell (no net change in cell size).

d)

None of the above.

15.

You are a new healthcare provider at a local hospital. You have just been tasked with taking a biopsy of a patient. After removal of the tissue you are asked to prepare the tissue for microscopic examination. What is the first step that you need to do to the tissue:

a)

Fix it with preservative

b)

Cut it into sections

c)

Stain it to enhance contrast

d)

Examine it under the microscope without preparation

16.

Which of the following tissue types is the most widely distributed stratified epithelia, and is localized in areas of wear and tear (such as the skin):

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

Stratified squamous epithelium

c)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

d)

Stratified columnar epithelium

e)

Pseudostratified epithelium

17.

Connective tissue has all of the following common characteristics EXCEPT:

a)

Common embryonic origin (all arise from mesenchyme tissue)

b)

Varying degree of vascularity

c)

Primarily functions in electrical impulses

d)

Cells are suspended/embedded in extracellular matrix (ECM)

18.

Unstructured, gel-like material that fills space between cells; composed of interstitial fluid, cell adhesion proteins (“glue” for attachment), sugar proteins (proteoglycans), and water (to some degree) found in connective tissue is BEST known as:

a)

Connective tissue fibers

b)

Ground substance

c)

Cellular debris

d)

Cytoplasm

19.

The strongest and most abundant fibers (made from the most abundant protein in the human body) found in connective tissue that provide support due to their high tensile strength are known as:

a)

Reticular fibers

b)

Collagen fibers

c)

Elastic fibers

d)

None of the above

20.

Which type of connective tissue has the following primary functions: support and protect, insulate against heat loss, serves as a reserve source of fuel for energy):

a)

Dense regular connective tissue

b)

Osseous (bone) tissue

c)

Cartilage

d)

Adipose tissue

21.

Which of the following types of muscle tissue is considered VOLUNTARY:

a)

Smooth muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

All of the above

22.

The layer of skin that is mostly fibrous connective tissue, vascular, and is found directly beneath the epidermis is the:

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

None of the above

23.

The most abundant cells of the epidermis are:

a)

Keratinocytes

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Merkel cells

d)

Melanocytes

24.

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes:

a)

Provide the melanocyte with nutrients necessary for melanin synthesis.

b)

Accumulate the melanin granules (produced by melanocytes) on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer.

c)

Maintain the appropriate pH in order for the keratinocytes to synthesize melanin granules.

d)

Maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the keratinocyte will not denature.

25.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding thick and thin skin:

a)

Thick skin has LESS sweat glands than thin skin.

b)

Thick skin covers all parts of the body, while thin skin is only found on palms and soles of feet.

c)

Thick skin has an extra layer (stratum lucidum), while thin skin does not.

d)

Thick skin has a sparser distribution of sensory receptors compared to thin skin.

26.

A patient is admitted to your emergency room and quickly you notice that their lips and under their fingernails are blue and they are not breathing. This indicates a condition known as cyanosis. What potential physiological effect is occurring in this patient:

a)

Possible liver/kidney disorder

b)

Lack of oxygen

c)

Massive hematoma forming

d)

Blood hyper-accumulating iron

27.

Sebaceous glands secrete which of the following substances:

a)

Oil

b)

Sweat

c)

Milk

d)

Metabolic waste

28.

At an archeological site, you discover a bone that is 12 inches long, and 3 inches wide. It appears as though it belonged to one of the limbs of the deceased. Which of the following is the most likely type of bone that was discovered based on shape:

a)

Flat bone

b)

Long bone

c)

Irregular bone

d)

Short bone

29.

Red marrow in bones is primarily responsible for which of the following:

a)

Triglyceride storage

b)

Hematopoiesis (blood cell formation)

c)

Providing a site of attachment for muscles

d)

Location of elastic tissue formation

30.

The matrix-synthesizing bone cells of skeletal tissue (i.e., bone builders) that are responsible for bone deposition are known as:

a)

Osteoclast

b)

Osteoblast

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Osteogenic cell

31.

 Hydroxyapatites are mineral salts that give bone its hardness. Which of the following are the PRIMARY elements that make up hydroxyapatites:

a)

Sodium and chlorine

b)

Potassium and calcium

c)

Calcium and phosphorus

d)

Calcium and sodium

32.

Rigid, interlocking joints of the skull are known as:

a)

Gomphoses

b)

Synovial joints

c)

Synchondrosis

d)

Sutures

33.

Intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis (both examples of cartilaginous joints) are FUNCTIONALLY considered amphiarthrotic. This means that this type of joint is:

a)

Immovable (does not move at all)

b)

Slightly moveable (some amount of movement)

c)

Freely moveable

d)

All of the above

34.

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to:

a)

Attach tendons.

b)

Produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis).

c)

Provide a smooth surface at the ends of long bones in synovial joints (helps reduce friction).

d)

Form the synovial membrane.

35.

A viscous, slippery filtrate of plasma and hyaluronic acid found in the articular capsule is known as:

a)

Blood

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Bursae

36.

Tendon sheaths:

a)

Act as friction-reducing structures.

b)

Are lined with dense irregular connective tissue.

c)

Are extensions of periosteum.

d)

Help anchor the tendon to the nerves.

37.

The attachment site of a muscle to a bone that DOES NOT MOVE is called the origin, while the muscle attachment site to the bone that DOES MOVE is called the insertion.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

What is moving a limb AWAY (i.e., think of “being taken away”) from the midline of the body along the frontal plane called:

a)

Abduction

b)

Adduction

c)

Flexion

d)

Extension

39.

The shoulder and hip joints are both classified as which of the following types of joints:

a)

Condylar joints

b)

Saddle joints

c)

Ball-and-socket joints

d)

Hinge joints

40.

Lifting up a glass to take a drink involves the ELBOW joint. Which of the following correctly characterizes that joint:

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Ball-and-socket joint

c)

Condylar joint

d)

Hinge joint

41.

The atlantoaxial joint (joint found in the neck between C1 and C2) allows you to turn your head side-to-side (like saying ‘no’). Which of the following BEST describes this specific synovial joint that can rotate along a single axis:

a)

Condylar joint

b)

Hinge joint

c)

Pivot joint

d)

Ball-and-socket joint

42.

Which of the following is/are functions of muscles (select all that apply):

a)

Produce movement

b)

Remove nitrogen waste from the blood

c)

Help maintain body position and posture

d)

Stabilize joints

e)

Generate heat through contraction

43.

Which of the following statements is TRUE:

a)

Cardiac muscle cells have no nuclei.

b)

Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.

c)

Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with multiple nuclei and T tubules.

d)

Cardiac muscle cells are found only in blood vessels and near bones.

44.

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Intermediate filament network

d)

Myofibrillar network

45.

Myoglobin:

a)

breaks down glycogen.

b)

is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP.

c)

is a protein that stores oxygen in muscle cells.

d)

releases neurotransmitters at the end of an axon.

46.

The smallest contractile unit (functional unit) of a muscle fiber is known as a:

a)

Nephron

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Sarcolemma

d)

Myofibril

47.

The THICK protein myofilament is known as:

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

48.

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?

a)

Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads.

b)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.

c)

Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites found on the myosin heads.

d)

Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

49.

The sliding filament model of contraction involves:

a)

Actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping.

b)

The break down and shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past.

c)

Actin and myosin growing in length in order to slide past each other.

d)

The Z discs sliding over the myofilaments.

50.

In order for a motor neuron to pass an action potential to a muscle fiber, the motor neuron must release which of the following into the synaptic cleft that will bind onto a chemically gated ion channel binding site in the muscle fiber:

a)

Calcium ions

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Neurotransmitter (such as acetylcholine)

d)

Potassium ions

51.

The final chemical messenger and "trigger" for muscle contraction, this ion binds to troponin and "unlocks" binding sites on actin:

a)

Sodium ions

b)

Potassium ions

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Calcium ions

52.

Rigor mortis occurs because:

a)

the cells are dead and muscle cells stay permanently relaxed.

b)

sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contraction.

c)

no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules.

d)

proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions over the sarcomeres.

53.

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle:

a)

Changes in length and moves the "load."

b)

Does not change in length but increases tension.

c)

Never converts pyruvate to lactate.

d)

Rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP.

54.

The fastest way for muscle fibers to generate ATP is which of the following:

a)

Direct phosphorylation using creatine phosphate.

b)

Anaerobic pathways (such as glycolysis or lactic acid fermentation).

c)

Aerobic pathway such as cellular respiration in the mitochondria.

55.

The muscle fiber plasma membrane is known as the:

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Sarcoplasm

c)

Sarcolemma

d)

Sarcomere