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3rd Grading Period Review Ch. 9, 10, 11, and 12

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before cells can divide, what happens to the DNA?

a)

It is replicated

b)

It increases in size

c)

It is divided in half

d)

It decreases in size

2.

How many chromosomes do humans have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

50

d)

92

3.

The individual strands on the duplicated chromosomes are called

a)

chromatin

b)

chromosomes

c)

chromatids

d)

centromere

4.

What happens in the S phase of interphase?

a)

The cell grows

b)

The cell prepares for cell division

c)

The cell divides

d)

The DNA replicates

5.

What happens in the G1 phase of interphase?

a)

The cell grows

b)

The cell prepares for cell division

c)

The cell divides

d)

The DNA replicates

6.

Which phase of mitosis is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

7.

Which phase of mitosis is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

8.

Which phase of mitosis is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

9.

Which of the following is the correct order of mitosis?

a)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

b)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase

10.

In mitosis, the resulting two daughter cells are

a)

identical to each other

b)

half the chromosome numbers

c)

different from each other

d)

none of the above

11.

Mitosis deals with what type of cells?

a)

body cells (somatic)

b)

sex cells (gamete)

c)

dead cells

d)

none of the above

12.

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

50

d)

92

13.
Cell division is represented by what letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
14.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
15.
If a cell with 36 chromosomes undergoes MITOSIS, how many chromosomes will each of the two new cells have?
a)
9
b)
18
c)
36
d)
72
16.
What is the purpose of mitosis?
a)
create genetic diversity
b)
increase cell volume
c)
produce new offspring
d)
replace damaged cells and growth
17.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
it changes the chromatin to chromosome
b)
duplicate the DNA
c)
breaks down the membrane
d)
separates the chromatids.
18.
Which distinguishes the process of cytokinesis in plants and animals?
a)

A cell plate forms in animal cells, while a furrow forms in plant cells.

b)

A cell plate forms in plant cells, while a cleavage furrow forms in animal cells.

c)

Cytokinesis results in genetic diversity in animal cells but not plant cells.

d)

Cytokinesis results in genetic diversity in plant cells but not animal cells.

19.

What can limit the size of a cell?

a)

frequency of the cell cycle

b)

maximum rate of cell mitosis

c)

nutrient and energy levels

d)

ratio of surface area to volume

20.

When carcinogens such as smoking or UV exposure cause a failure in the regulation of cell growth and development, what condition might occur?

a)

normal mitosis

b)

uncontrolled cell growth in the form of cancer

c)

cell plates form

d)

apoptosis

21.

Which cells are most likely to go through mitosis regularly? (The other examples do not divide as often.)

a)

Heart muscle cells

b)

skin and blood cells

c)

nerve and brain cells

d)

kidney liver

22.

__________ cells divide through binary fission.

a)

Eukaryote

b)

Prokaryote

23.

Cancer cells can reproduce rapidly because they

a)

are smaller than normal cells

b)

bypass interphase and enter mitosis right away

c)

undergo mitosis faster

d)

spend less time in interphase

24.
Mitosis : Growth & Repair :: Meiosis : _________
a)

Homeostasis

b)

Sexual Reproduction

c)

Immunity

d)

Growth only

25.

The picture to the right has two sets of identical DNA known as _________________ and the center of the "X" is called the ________ (use your vocab)

a)

sister chromatids, centromere

b)

sister chromatids, centrioles

c)

chromosomes, centromere

d)

chromosomes, centrioles

26.

Mitosis uncontrolled may lead to an abnormal cell growth called _______.

a)

cleavage furrow

b)

apoptosis

c)

cyclin

d)

tumor

27.

Which acronym can help you remember the phases of mitosis?

a)

IPMAT

b)

PMAT

c)

IPMATC

d)

IMC

28.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

#2

1.

centriole

b)

#7

2.

chromatin (relaxed form of DNA)

c)

#6

3.

nucleus

d)

#5

4.

nucleolus

e)

#15

5.

cell membrane

29.

What are the black lines in this picture? Their function is to grab the chromosomes (sister chromatids) and move them around the cell during mitosis.

a)

centrioles

b)

chromatids

c)

cytoplasm

d)

spindle fibers

30.

Which description best identifies characteristics of asexual reproduction.

a)

one parent, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to the parent

b)

one parent, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to the parent

c)

two parents, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to parents.

d)

two parents, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to the parents.

31.

Which is the number of chromosomes in a haploid cell?

a)

1n

b)

2n

c)

3n

d)

4n

32.

What term is used to describe pairs of chromosomes having DNA segments, or genes, for the same traits?

a)

homologous

b)

analogous

c)

homozygous

d)

parallel

33.

An organisms with the genotype DD for a trait is

a)

heterozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous recessive

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

homozygous recessive

34.

A heterozygous organism is best described as which of these?

a)

dominant

b)

genotype

c)

hybrid

d)

true-breeding

35.

What is the role of the spindle fibers?

a)

to join homologous chromosomes together

b)

to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesis

c)

to initiate the formation of the nuclear membrane

d)

to move chromosomes in the cell

36.

After performing a monohybrid cross, it is important to analyze the results with a Punnett square. What does each box in a Punnett square represent?

a)

possible phenotype

b)

possible genotype

c)

one individual

d)

two possible gentoypes

37.

The tall allele, T, is dominant to the short allele, t, in Mendel's pea plants. You examine a pea plant that exhibits the tall phenotype. What is its genotype?

a)

A. Tt

b)

B. TT

c)

C. tt

d)

both A and B are possible

38.

A true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a true-breeding short pea plant, and all the offspring are tall. What is the most likely genotype of the offspring assuming a single-gene trait?

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

TT

d)

TT or tt

39.

What is the probability that a cross between a heterozygous dominant yellow-seeded pea plant a a green-seeded pea plant will produce green-seeded offspring?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

1:4

d)

1:8

40.

A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably ___________.

a)

homozygous recessive

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

haploid

41.

Which is the ratio of pea plant offspring with green seeds if both parents are hybrids?

a)

3/4

b)

1/2

c)

1/4

d)

1/8

42.

Create a dihybrid cross for two parents that have the genotype MmXx. What fraction of this cross will be recessive for both traits?

a)

1/2

b)

2/16

c)

1/4

d)

1/16

43.

You are given a sample of unknown human cells to examine. Analysis of their nuclei reveals that each cell contains 23 chromosomes. What types of cells might these be?

a)

egg cells

b)

skin cells

c)

liver cells

d)

white blood cells

44.

Which is a difference between meiosis I and meiosis II?

a)

Cytokinesis occurs during meiosis II but not meiosis I.

b)

Meiosis I has a prophase stage, but meiosis II does not.

c)

Meiosis II results in four haploid cells instead of two diploid cells.

d)

Nuclear membranes form during meiosis II but not meiosis I.

45.

During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes align as tetrads in the middle of the spindle?

a)

prophase I

b)

prophase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

metaphase II

46.

What process is taking place in the illustration shown below?

a)

fertilization

b)

prophase

c)

polyploidy

d)

crossing over

47.

What are the possible game types that can be produced from a parent who is ZzFf?

a)

All ZF

b)

All zf

c)

half ZF and half zf

d)

ZF, Zf, zF, zf

48.

Which describes the 23 pairs of human chromosomes?

a)

1 autosome pair; 22 sex chromosome pairs

b)

1 sex chromosome pair; 22 autosome pairs

c)

2 autosome pairs; 21 sex chromosome pairs

d)

2 sex chromosome pairs; 21 autosome pairs

49.

What is the effect of sickle-cell anemia?

a)

blocked respiratory pathways

b)

decreased neurological functions

c)

inefficient oxygen transportation

d)

susceptibility to contracting malaria

50.

White-flowered plants crossed with red-flowered plants to produce pink-flowered offspring is an example of incomplete dominance. If you cross a pink flower with a pink flower, what percent chance do you have of getting a pink flower?

a)

100

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

51.

What is the genotype of a MAN with color blindness?

a)

XCXC

b)

XXc

c)

XY

d)

XCY

52.

How can the genetic disorder known as hemophilia be defined?

a)

dominant, sex-linked disorder common to females

b)

dominant, sex-linked disorder common to males

c)

recessive, sex-linked disorder common to females

d)

recessive, sex-linked disorder common to males

53.
What is shown at "A" in this diagram of a nucleotide?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogenous Base
d)
Hydrogen
54.
What is shown at "B" in this diagram of a nucleotide?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogenous Base
d)
Hydrogen
55.
What is shown at "C" in this diagram of a nucleotide?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Nitrogenous Base
d)
Hydrogen
56.
Which scientists discovered the double helix model of DNA?
a)
Chargaff and Levene
b)
Franklin and Wilkins
c)
Hershey and Chase
d)
Watson and Crick
57.
A molecule of DNA is made up of 
a)
amino acids and proteins
b)
ATP and enzymes
c)
paired nucleotides
d)
receptor enzymes
58.
Which base always pairs with guanine?
a)
adenine
b)
cytosine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
59.
Which defines a codon in DNA and mRNA?
a)
pair of nucleic acid and sugar
b)
pair of phosphate and sugar
c)
three-base code
d)
two-base code
60.
Which is the function of the DNA helicase enzyme in the DNA replication process?
a)
coils new DNA strands
b)
joins DNA to RNA primer
c)
matches nucleotide pairs
d)
unwinds the double helix
61.
Where would a DNA substitution probably have the smallest or least effect on the organism?
a)
exon
b)
intron
c)
histone
d)
operon
62.
Which type of mutation causes translation to stop early?
a)
addition
b)
deletion
c)
frameshift mutation
d)
nonsense mutation
63.
A DNA segment is changed from -AATTAG to -AAATAG.  This is a(n) _______.
a)
frameshift mutation
b)
insertion
c)
substitution
d)
deletion
64.
In most organisms, the start of translation is signaled by an AUG codon.  What is the first amino acid in most proteins?
a)
proline
b)
leucine
c)
isoleucine
d)
methionine
65.
What molecule is this?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
tRNA
66.
What is the complimentary mRNA sequence to the DNA sequence T-A-G-G-C-A?
a)
A-T-C-C-G-T
b)
C-G-A-A-T-G
c)
A-U-C-C-G-U
d)
C-G-A-A-U-G
67.
What is the function of DNA polymerase during replication?
a)
bonds mRNA to original parent strand
b)
bonds new nucleotides to parent strand
c)
unwinds the replication DNA strand
d)
winds up the replicated DNA strand
68.
Which is the central dogma of biology?
a)
DNA codes for RNA, which guides enzyme synthesis
b)
DNA codes for RNA, which guides protein synthesis
c)
RNA codes for DNA, which guides enzyme synthesis
d)
RNA codes for DNA, which guides protein synthesis
69.
Which do DNA and RNA have in common?
a)
Both are double stranded
b)
Both contain ribose molecules
c)
Both contain phosphate groups
d)
Both contain uracil
70.
Process in which mRNA is synthesized from the template DNA
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Protein Synthesis
d)
Replication
71.
Process in which mRNA attaches to the ribosome and a protein is assembled
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Protein Synthesis
d)
Replication
72.
A permanent change in a cell's DNA
a)
mutagen
b)
mutation
c)
codon
d)
anticodon
73.

What is number 1?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

covalent bond

c)

phosphate

d)

base pair

e)

sugar phosphate backbone

74.

What is number 2?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

covalent bond

c)

phosphate

d)

base pair

e)

sugar phosphate backbone

75.

What is number 3?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

covalent bond

c)

phosphate

d)

base pair

e)

sugar phosphate backbone

76.

What is number 4?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

covalent bond

c)

phosphate

d)

base pair

e)

sugar phosphate backbone

77.

What is number 7?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

covalent bond

c)

phosphate

d)

base pair

e)

sugar phosphate backbone

78.

What is number 5?

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

adenine

e)

thymine

79.

What is number 6?

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

adenine

e)

thymine

80.

What is number 8?

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

adenine

e)

thymine

81.

What is number 9?

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

adenine

e)

thymine

82.

What is number 10?

a)

guanine

b)

cytosine

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

adenine

e)

thymine

83.

What is number 1?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

84.

What is number 2?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

85.

What is number 3?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

86.

What is number 4?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

codon

87.

What is number 5?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Anticodon

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Protein

88.

What is number 6?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Anticodon

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Protein

89.

What is number 7?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Anticodon

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Protein

90.

What is number 8?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Anticodon

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Protein

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