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APES Unit 9 Review

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 6hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When is the Antarctic ozone "hole" largest?

a)

early spring in southern hemisphere

b)

late summer in southern hemisphere

c)

mid summer in southern hemisphere

d)

late fall in southern hemisphere

e)

early winter in southern hemisphere

2.

The formation of ozone begins when an O2 molecule is split by

a)

UV-A radiation

b)

UV-B radiation

c)

UV-C radiation

d)

UV-A or UV-B radiation

e)

UV-B or UV-C radiation

3.

How many O3 atoms can a single chlorine atom break down?

a)

5,000

b)

10,000

c)

50,000

d)

100,000

e)

500,000

4.

Which is NOT a result in the reduction of stratospheric ozone?

a)

reduced photosynthetic activity

b)

increased skin cancer

c)

increased eye problems

d)

increased birth defects

e)

suppressed immune systems

5.

Which was signed by 24 nations to reduce CFC production by 50% by the year 2000

a)

Kyoto Protocol

b)

Bourne Protocol

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Toronto Protocol

e)

CITES Treaty

6.

The form of radiation with the least amount of energy is

a)

UV-A

b)

UV-B

c)

UV-C

d)

UV-B and UV-C

e)

UV-A and UV-C

7.

The most common use of CFCs was as

a)

hair spray

b)

insecticide

c)

refrigerants

d)

fire resistant insulation

e)

computer boards

8.

HCFCs are compounds containing

a)

strictly chlorine

b)

any type of halogene

c)

benzene and hydrogen

d)

carbon, hydrogen, chlorine and fluorine

e)

hydrogen, chlorine, phosphorus, and cobalt

9.

What can be used to break apart HCFC's?

a)

water

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

methane

d)

propane

e)

BODs

10.

A class of compounds as acceptable temporary alternatives to chlorofluorocarbons

a)

dihydrogen monoxide

b)

hydrochlorofluorocarbons

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

helium

e)

fluoride bromide nitrides

11.

The "good" ozone (90% of ALL O3) on Earth is located in the

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Asthenosphere

d)

Mesosphere

e)

Thermosphere

12.

Which type of radiation does ozone block 100% of from the sun?

a)

Visible light

b)

UV-A

c)

UV-B

d)

UV-C

e)

X-rays

13.

The Greenhouse gas with the highest greenhouse warming potential is

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

methane

c)

water vapor

d)

chlorofluorocarbon

e)

nitrous oxide

14.

Methane is naturally produced by

a)

decomposition

b)

volcanic eruptions

c)

denitrification

d)

evapotranspiration

e)

forest fires

15.

The greenhouse effect is due to

a)

the absorption and reradiation of infrared radiation by the atmosphere

b)

the reflection of ultraviolet radiation by the atmosphere

c)

the absorption of ultraviolet radiation by the atmosphere

d)

the reflection of infrared radiation from Earth's surface

e)

the absorption of ultraviolet radiation by Earth

16.

Most nitrous oxide emissions are from

a)

fossil fuel combustion

b)

agricultural practices

c)

refrigerants

d)

deforestation

e)

industrial processes

17.

Particulate matter can increase global warming by

a)

reacting with chlorofluorocarbons

b)

reducing surface absorption of ultraviolet radiation

c)

producing additional nitrous oxides

d)

reflecting radiation

e)

lowering surface albedo

18.

What is the evidence that solar radiation is less important to global warming than the increase in greenhouse gases?

a)

temperatures have increased more in the summer than in winter

b)

temperatures have increased more in the winter than in summer

c)

temperature increases have been uneven across the globe

d)

there is a historic correlation of CO2 and temperature

e)

There is a lack of temperature change in some areas

19.

How much has the average global temperature increased in the last 120 years?

a)

0.6°F

b)

1.0°F

c)

1.4°F

d)

2.7°F

e)

3.2°F

20.

Which data are used to estimate historic temperatures and carbon dioxide concentrations?

I. Marine organism fossils

II. air trapped in ice

III. glacier depth

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

21.

Which is an example of a negative feedback?

a)

higher air temperatures cause increased ocean evaporation

b)

higher air temperatures cause increased decomposition in soils

c)

lower concentrations of CO2 cause increased absorption of oceanic CO2

d)

low albedo causes decreased reflection of sunlight

e)

higher CO2 concentrations cause increased photosynthesis

22.

Global warming might limit the availability of fresh water in many areas because of

a)

melting glaciers

b)

increased sea level

c)

thawing permafrost

d)

more frequent heat waves

e)

changes in storm intensity

23.

Effects of climate change on organisms include all of the following except

a)

increased growing seasons

b)

disruption of animal life cycles

c)

coral bleaching

d)

decreased species ranges in temperate areas

e)

increased dispersal of plants and animals

24.

What is NOT a potential negative effect of climate change on agriculture?

a)

increased range of pests

b)

increased risk of droughts

c)

increased damage from severe weather events

d)

increased rates of photosynthesis

e)

decreased growing season in western Europe

25.

How might climate change increase the range of pests?

a)

higher intensity weather events

b)

changing precipitation patterns

c)

increasing number of heatwaves

d)

disruption of oceanic currents

e)

decreased duration of cold spells

26.

In 1997 the U.S. did not ratify the Kyoto Protocol because

a)

it required the same emission reduction from all signatories

b)

it did not limit the emissions of developing nations

c)

the prediction regarding the severity of climate change were too uncertain

d)

current technology was unable to meet the required goals

e)

the target emission reductions were seen as impossible to achieve

27.

All of the following greenhouse gases come from natural sources EXCEPT...

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

O3

e)

CCl2F2

28.

Which human generated greenhouse gas is found in the greatest abundance within the atmosphere?

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

O3

e)

CCl2F2

29.

Which of the following are greenhouse gases?

Mark ALL that are correct!

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

O3

e)

CCl2F2

30.

While water vapor is a greenhouse gas, why does it not contribute significantly to global climate change?

a)

It is natural and natural gases do not have negative environmental effects

b)

It has a short residence time in the atmosphere

c)

Water vapor cannot reflect energy back towards Earth's surface

d)

Water vapor is only found in the troposphere

31.

What makes gases like methane, HFCs, and CFCs so concerning in the atmosphere?

a)

They exist in the atmosphere indefinitely

b)

All three do not exist naturally in nature

c)

They are very efficient at absorbing the Sun's energy

d)

All three contain carbon atoms

32.

Which of the following causes both ozone depletion and global warming?

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

CCl2F2

33.

The majority of greenhouse gases exist in the...

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

34.

Which of the following has the greatest global warming potential (GWP)?

a)

NOx

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

O3

e)

CFCs

35.

Increases in greenhouse gases leads to which of the following?

Mark ALL that are correct!

a)

The melting of land and sea ice

b)

Spreading of disease vectors

c)

Thermal expansion of the ocean

d)

An overall decrease in global temperatures

36.

Where are most disease vectors located?

a)

Tropical regions

b)

Polar regions

c)

Desert regions

d)

Temperate regions

37.

How does decreased ice and snow result in warming of the planet?

a)

Ice and snow reflect energy from Earth's surface into space

b)

It creates a negative feedback loop

c)

More solar radiation enters into Earth's atmosphere

d)

The albedo of snow and ice is low

38.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
39.
What is the largest carbon sink in the world?
a)
The Amazon
b)
The Oceans
c)
The Deserts
d)
The Forests
40.
What causes winds to form on Earth?
a)
solar energy
b)
ocean currents
c)
elevation differences
d)
uneven heating of the Earth by the sun
41.
What are the 3 major climate zones in order from equator to the poles?
a)
polar, temperate, tropical
b)
tropical, temperate, polar
c)
temperate, polar, tropical
42.
Which BEST describes why latitudes closest to the equator have warmer climates?
a)
they are at lower elevations
b)
they receive more solar energy
c)
they are nearer to ocean currents
d)
they get more winds that carry energy in the form of heat
43.

Earth's average temperature has increased 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?

a)

lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere

b)

lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere

c)

higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

44.

Which of the following gases is NOT a greenhouse gas?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

nitrogen

c)

water vapor

d)

methane

45.

Which of the following are evidence of climate change?

a)

extreme weather events

b)

increase in the average global temperature

c)

melting of polar ice caps

d)

all of the above

46.

The main human activity that releases carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere is...

a)

using bottled water

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

texting on cellphones

d)

eating meat

47.

Which of the following is contributing to an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere?

a)

deforestation

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

burning down trees

d)

all of the above

48.
Melting of glaciers and polar ice caps....
a)
will result in cooler temperatures in the Arctic
b)
will result in sea-levels rising
c)
Will have no effect on ecosystems
d)
None of the above
49.

Which of the following is produced by cows?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Water Vapor

c)

Argon

d)

Methane

50.

an area's climate changes and it gets LESS rainfall. what can happen?

a)

more hurricanes

b)

more forest fires

c)

floods

d)

more diseases

51.

human activities lead to climate change and global warming because

a)

there are LESS greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and the temperature decreases

b)

there is the SAME amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and the temperature stays the same

c)

there are MORE greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and the temperature is increasing

52.

Warming seas will...

a)

Increase the number of storms

b)

Decrease the number of storms

c)

The number if storms will stay the same

53.

Climate Change will cause...

a)

More intense tropical storms

b)

Less intense tropical storms

c)

no more storms

54.
What does this diagram illustrate?
a)
Ozone Layer
b)
The Greenhouse Effect
c)
Ultraviolet Radiation
d)
Layers of the atmosphere
55.

The role of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is to

a)

implement carbon taxes on companies that burn excessive fossil fuels

b)

collect and analyze scientific climate data like that from ice cores

c)

review scientific climate data to assess the current state of climate change

d)

introduce policies to help with mitigation and adaptation strategies

56.

An example of a climate change mitigation strategy is

a)

mandating more fuel efficient vehicles

b)

building structures to protect from rising sea levels

c)

species migration

d)

using drought resistant crops

57.
What causes urban heat islands?
a)
movement of people from farms to cities
b)
lots and lots of people heating their homes
c)
roads and buildings absorb and retain heat longer than vegetation does
d)
soil erosion
58.
The ozone layer is damaged by
a)
CFCs
b)
Increase in greenhouse gases
c)
Increased global temperatures
d)
Sulfuric and nitric acids
59.
CFCs alter the natural formation of ozone by: 
a)
breaking up ozone and reducing the amount of O2 needed to form ozone
b)
bonding with O3 
c)
preventing UV radiation to strike ozone 
60.
international limits on CFC production toprotect the ozone layer
a)
Montreal Protocol
b)
New York Protocol
c)
Paris Protocol
d)
Tokyo Protocol
61.

One possible positive consequence of an increase in CO2 in the atmosphere?

a)

Plants may grow faster and produce more sugars

b)

Pests like pine beetles will die

c)

Forest fires will be extinguished by the lack of oxygen

d)

Corals will grow faster

62.

What is Arctic (or polar) amplification?

a)

the phenomenon that temperature near the poles is increasing at a higher rate than at lower latitudes

b)

the intensification of the polar jet stream due to melting ice caps

c)

the increased productivity of Arctic ecosystem due to increased upwelling

d)

the migration of the polar front due to stronger pressure contrasts

63.
an index for reporting daily air quality in order to alert people with various allergies or respiratory disorders when air quality becomes dangerous
a)
The Clean Air Act
b)
altitude
c)
air quality index 
d)
ozone
64.
Why do carbon dioxide levels behave in the manner shown in the graph?
a)
CO2 levels increase in winter because more gasoline is burned.
b)
CO2 levels decrease in the winter because there is less photosynthesis.
c)
CO2 levels increase in summer because there is more decomposition.
d)
CO2 levels decrease in summer because there is more photosynthesis.
65.
How can tree rings be used to tell what the climate was like in the past?
a)
Pollen found within the rings are indicators of past plant life.
b)
Wider annual rings imply warmer, wetter years.
c)
Gas bubbles within the rings are records of past temperature.
d)
Wider annual rings indicate dry years.
66.
What is an impact of increased CO2 dissolving in the world's oceans?
a)
Increased temperature and increased shell-forming by mollusks.
b)
Increased eutrophication and decreased photosynthesis.
c)
Decreased pH and less reef building by coral.
d)
Increased pH and decreased turbidity
67.
Which of the following has the highest albedo?
a)
soil
b)
snow
c)
water
d)
pavement
68.
High productivity and nutrient availability in the ocean occurs in the areas with
a)
gyres
b)
upwelling
c)
warm waters
d)
prevailing wersterlies
69.
climate change could potentially disrupt which one of the following phenomena?
a)
El Nino - southern oscillation (ENSO)
b)
thermohaline circulation
c)
rotation of southern hemisphere gyres
d)
upwelling off the coasts of Australia and New Zealand
70.
Gyres do all of the following EXCEPT
a)
redistribute heat in the ocean
b)
result from the Coriolis effect
c)
rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere
d)
redistribute nutrients from the deep ocean
71.
In which layer of the atmosphere is all this global warming taking place?
a)
Troposphere
b)
Stratosphere
c)
Mesosphere
d)
Thermosphere
72.
Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
a)
Water vapor
b)
Sulfur dioxide
c)
Methane
d)
Nitrous oxide
73.
Which of the following is a major source of nitrous oxide? 
a)
Fertilizer production
b)
Aerosol cans
c)
Off-gassing of benzene from gasoline
d)
Metal smelting
74.
How does tropospheric ozone form?
a)
It is a primary pollutant from combustion.
b)
It is primarily released from landfills.
c)
A photolytic reaction with NOx.
d)
Anaerobic decomposition.
75.
Which of the following will have the least impact on global sea level rise?
a)
Arctic sea ice melting
b)
Antarctic land ice melting
c)
Greenland ice sheet melting
d)
Thermal expansion of the oceans.
76.
What do the bubbles in ice cores represent?
a)
Tiny samples of earth's atmosphere when the ice formed.
b)
Types of plants that lived in an area.
c)
The annual growth or shrinkage of a glacier.
d)
More bubbles are indicative of increased precipitation.
77.
What is the primary cause of global sea-level rise?
a)
Sea ice melting
b)
Land ice melting
c)
Thermal expansion of the oceans
d)
Displacement due to volcanic activity at mid-ocean ridges.
78.
What is an impact of increased CO2 dissolving in the world's oceans?
a)
Increased temperature and increased shell-forming by mollusks.
b)
Increased eutrophication and decreased photosynthesis.
c)
Decreased pH and less reef building by coral.
d)
Increased pH and decreased turbidity
79.
Which of the following is a negative feedback caused by increased global temperatures?
a)
Decreased cloud cover which decreases atmospheric opacity.
b)
Decreased albedo that leads to greater radiation absorption by earth.
c)
Increased permafrost melting and increased methane production.
d)
Increased cloud cover which reflects more incoming solar radiation.
80.
Which of the following is a positive feedback caused by increased global temperatures?
a)
Melting ice which decreases salinity of global thermohaline circulation.
b)
Increased permafrost melting which increases methane production.
c)
Increased ice melting which increases the albedo of the earth.
d)
Increased ocean acidification which leads to decreased shell-forming by coral.
81.

The ocean becomes this with the absorption of excess CO2

a)

alkaline

b)

acidic

c)

neutral

d)

shallower

e)

none of these

82.
Ocean acidification begins with 
a)
pollution from ships
b)
carbon dioxide released from combustion
c)
dumping of waste from cities into the ocean
83.
Marine organisms make their shells from calcium and
a)
chloride
b)
carbonate
c)
seawater
84.
An example of a marine organism that needs calcium carbonate 
a)
a crab
b)
a shark
c)
an octopus
85.
Very slight increases in the acidity of seawater __________  marine organisms that make shells.
a)
doesn't bother
b)
has no effect on 
c)
is unhealthy and stresses
86.

According to this slide

a)

CO2 is causing marine life to die by "poisoning' the water

b)

CO2 is destroying sea shells

c)

CO2 is formed from the combustion of Octane

87.

This image demonstrates that

a)

There is a direct correlation with the atmospheric CO2 and the CO2 in seawater

b)

That pH of the ocean increases as the atmospheric CO2 increases

c)

That there is no correlation between pH of the ocean and atmospheric CO2

88.
As the ocean becomes more acidic, the pH of the water
a)
increases
b)
decreases
89.

What do some marine creatures do with the carbonate ion?

a)

use it as a food source

b)

use it as a defense mechanism

c)

use it to build shells and exoskeletons

d)

use it to cool body temperatures

90.

Which is carbonate?

a)

HCO-

b)

H2CO3

c)

CO3-

d)

CO2

91.

CO2 + H20 -->

a)

H2CO3

b)

CO3

c)

CO2

d)

H3O+

92.
When taken to a new habitat, non-native plants often threaten native plants of the new habitat.  Why do they do this?
a)
Non-native plants are able to mutate rapidly
b)
Non-native  plants cause native animals to relocate
c)
Non-native plants are able to be used for medicine
d)
Non-native plants compete with native plants for resources
93.
Kudzu has overgrown many parts of southern Missouri and native ground plants have disappeared from the area. This is an example of:
a)
Parasitism between kudzu and the native plants
b)
A predator prey relationship between ground plants and kudzu
c)
Competition occurring between the native and invasive species
d)
Commesalism occurring between the kudzo and native plants
94.
The field mouse population in Australia has grown so fast that they eat an average of  $4 billion of wheat every year. Their fast growth is caused by:
a)
A. The mice like to reproduce
b)
B. A lack of a native species to eat the field mouse
c)
C. Abundant food supply
d)
Both B and C
95.
How did the zebra mussels end up in the Great Lakes?
a)
In ballast tanks of ships
b)
They were intentionally released
c)
They have always been in the Great Lakes
d)
That's not a zebra mussel
96.
1. What makes a species invasive?
a)
Moving to a new ecosystem and taking resources from natives 
b)
Not having papers
c)
Species that can't adapt
d)
Plants that take up too much space
97.
What kind of organisms can become invasive? 
a)
Lions, Tigers, Bears
b)
Plants, Animals, or Pathogens 
c)
Animals
d)
Plants
98.
If a blue catfish is introduced and eats the large fish who eat the smaller fish, what will happen to the population of the smaller fish?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stay the same
d)
No affect on smaller fish
99.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of most invasive species?
a)
Ability to breathe in the air & in the water
b)
Large, sharp teeth
c)
Produce many offspring
d)
Is a top predator
100.
What is a native specie?
a)
A specie that is local and has lived in the same place
b)
A specie who has come from another state or country
c)
A specie that has no "home" and travels for its whole life
d)
None of the above
101.
The lack of natural predators makes populations of invasive species unmanageable?
a)
True
b)
False
102.
Species that are indigenous to an area with no human intervention
a)
invasive species
b)
native species
c)
all species that live in an ecosystem
103.
What's one EFFECT of pythons invading the Everglades?
a)
the number of small mammals, like mice, are decreasing
b)
the number of white-tailed deer is increasing
c)
pythons can grow to be 18 feet long
104.

What factors may lead a nonnative species to become invasive? Select all that apply.

a)

they lack predators

b)

they can eat a variety of foods

c)

they are generalists

d)

they mature and reproduce quickly

105.

Which of the following leads to a decrease in biodiversity?

a)

introduction of invasive species

b)

prevention of erosion

c)

ecological land use planning

d)

pollution control

106.

Illegal hunting for profit is called

a)

sport hunting.

b)

poaching.

c)

commercial hunting.

d)

subsistence hunting.

107.

Law of the 70's that protects endangered species in the U.S.

a)

Endangered Species Act

b)

CITES

c)

Lacey Act

d)

One Act Plays

108.

Fragmented habitat can be reconnected most directly by

a)

wildlife corridors

b)

captive breeding programs

c)

debt for nature swaps

d)

prescribed burns

109.
An endangered species is
a)
One whose numbers are so small that it is at risk of extinction
b)
One whose not been spotted after many years.
c)
One whose numbers are abundant.
110.

Presently, the biggest threat to biodiversity is;

a)

Asteriod strikes, such as what happened 65 million years ago and resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.

b)

Human population growth, because as population increases, so does the number of plants and animals it consumes, resulting in a decrease of those organisms.

c)

Habitat destruction, such as cutting down portions of tropical rain forest, which destroys the niches occupied by tropical organisms.

d)

The proliferation of zoos and botanical gardens, causing causing people to care less about preserving species in the wild because they are being cared for those in sanctuaries.

111.

Which of the following international treaties bans the hunting, capture, and sale of threatened or endangered species in 181 countries? CITES

a)

Endangered Species Act (ESA)

b)

The National Marine Fisheries Act

c)

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITIES)

d)

National Enviornmental Policy Act (NEPA)

e)

The Marine Mammal Protection Act

112.

Areas that have been set aside for the protection of threatened or endangered species and their habitats are known as;

a)

National parks.

b)

National zoos

c)

National wildlife refuges.

d)

National recreation areas.

e)

National forest reserves.

113.

Choose the option that expresses the definition the best.

"Logging, mining, building of roads, and urban development."

a)

Habitat destruction,degradation, and fragmentation.

b)

Invasive (nonnative species).

c)

Population and resource use growth.

d)

Greenhouse effect.

e)

Overexplotation.

114.

Which is the newest part of HIPPCO?

a)

Climate change

b)

Population & Pollution

c)

Invasive Species

d)

Habitat Loss

e)

Overharvesting

115.

Which of the following is NOT an endangered species of Florida?

a)

West Indian Manatee.

b)

Gopher Tortoise

c)

Roseate Spoonbill

d)

Hawksbill Sea Turtle.

e)

Burmese Python

116.

Why do endangered species matter?

a)

Because they are cute

b)

Biodiversity

c)

Because if they die we cannot have them as pets

d)

Because they cannot be in the zoo

117.

In the 1970s, the United States introduced the _________________________ which calls for a recovery plan to be created for each endangered species.

a)

National Environmental Policy Act

b)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

c)

Clean Water Act

d)

Endangered Species Act

118.

Which of the following is not linked to Endangered species?

a)

K-Strategist

b)

Specialized niche

c)

rare

d)

commercially valuable

e)

R-Strategist

119.

Responsible for the determination of endangered species status and monitoring the level of endangerment.

a)

US. Fish and Wild Life Services

b)

Park Rangers

c)

DEA

d)

Coast Guard

120.

Biodiversity is greatest near the _________

a)

North Pole

b)

Equator

c)

Switzerland

d)

None of these

121.

Biodiversity refers to.........

a)

differences in plants

b)

differences in animals

c)

the variety of all life on earth

d)

animals located near the artic

122.

Which of these is a consequence of deforestation?

a)

increased oxygen in the atmosphere

b)

decreased biodiversity and soil erosion

c)

decreased availability of sunlight and vitamin D

d)

increased annual precipitation and acid rain

123.

Walking or digging on the dunes make them vulnerable to erosion. What other human activity would also contribute to the erosion of the sand dunes?

a)

destroying the beach grass on the dunes

b)

restricting construction near the dunes

c)

building new dunes where none exist

d)

adding sand from the ocean to the dunes

124.

Which of the following best explains why urban areas have more air pollution than rural areas do?

a)

There are fewer green areas and more paved areas in urban areas.

b)

There are more cars and buses in urban areas.

c)

Drivers travel shorter distances between destinations in urban areas.

d)

Houses are closer together and larger.

125.
The practice of harvesting or hunting to such a degree that remaining individuals may not be able to replenish the population is called _____.
a)
biomagnification
b)
overexploitation
c)
edge effects
d)
natural resource
126.

Enacted in 1976, is the principal federal law in the United States governing the disposal of solid waste and hazardous waste

a)

Montreal Protocol

b)

The Kyoto Meeting

c)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

d)

The Price Anderson Act

127.

Known also as Superfund. It was passed in 1980 in response to some alarming and decidely unacceptable hazardous waste practices and management going on in the 1970s.

a)

CERCLA

b)

Resource Conservation Recovery Act

c)

The Montreal Protocol

d)

Atomic Energy Act

128.

An international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. Cut CFCs in half.

a)

The Paris Accord

b)

The Montreal Protocol

c)

The Kyoto Meeting

d)

Resource Recovery Act

129.

An international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits State Parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensusthat (a) global warming is occurring and (b) it is extremely likely that human-made CO2 emissions have predominantly caused it.

a)

The Montreal Protocol

b)

Global Warming Protocol

c)

The Paris Accord

d)

The Kyoto Meeting

130.

Label the following parts of the ocean acidification formulas.

a)

Carbonate

b)

Carbonic acid

c)

Bicarbonate

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
131.

Identify the parts of the equation that would cause the ocean to become more acidic. SELECT ALL.

A
B
C
D
E
F
G
132.

Put the following greenhouse gases in order from lowest GWP to highest.

a)

CO2

b)

CH4

c)

N2O

d)

CFCs/HCFCs/HFCs

1)
2)
3)
4)

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