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MA Specimen Collection and Testing

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 2hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

device that makes veins easier to find for venipuncture, non-latex bands measure 0.5-1 inch wide

a)

tube

b)

lancet

c)

tourniquet

d)

gauze

2.

most common tubes used for blood collection, top is colored based on additive

a)

vacutainer tubes

b)

capillary tubes

c)

culture swabs

3.

urine specimen that can be collected at any time with no special measures needed

a)

urine ph

b)

24 hour urine specimen

c)

midstream urine specimen

d)

random urine specimen

4.

collected over a 24 hour period, regrigerated or chilled to prevent the growth of microbes

a)

urine ph

b)

24 hour urine specimen

c)

midstream urine specimen

d)

random urine specimen

5.

also called a clean-catch specimen or clean-voided specimen, the perineal area is cleaned before the specimen is collected

a)

urine ph

b)

24 hour urine specimen

c)

midstream urine specimen

d)

random urine specimen

6.

a test used to identify components of the urine, is usually conducted on patients that are pregnant, sick or suspected of abusing illegal substances

a)

urinalysis

b)

24 hour urine specimen

c)

midstream urine specimen

d)

random urine specimen

7.

tested due to disorders of the lungs and bronchi, studied for blood, microbes and abnormal cells, NOT SALIVA

a)

urinalysis

b)

sputum specimen

c)

stool specimen

d)

urine specimen

8.

collected to identify any type of bacteria or virus that may be responsible for a patient experiencing DIARRHEA, ABDOMINAL PAIN, must collect in a clean dry container and have a tight lid

a)

throat specimen

b)

sputum specimen

c)

stool specimen

d)

urine specimen

9.

testing that refers to the process of cultivating a specimen in order to determine whether the developed organism is sensitive to antibiotics; the process begins with the collection of a direct specimen which is then cultivated in a special media, or agar; the special media functions to encourage the growth of present microorganisms in the specimen; when the growth of a microorganism is detected, the organism is tested against different antibiotics for sensitivity to antibiotics; an antibiotic is considered effective if it can stop or slow down the organism's growth in a controlled situation

a)

glucose

b)

ketones

c)

ph testing

d)

culture and sensitivity

10.

performed on a patient to detect a disease-causing organism and determine an appropriate method of treatment, swab of the very back of the mouth and tonsils, usually done to detect strep throat, whooping cough, etc

a)

throat culture

b)

urine culture

c)

wound culture

d)

nasal culture

11.

performed to identify the pathogen that is responsible for an infection of a patient's wound; specimens may be collected from animal bites, ulcers, and skin wounds; performed by swabbing the inside of a wound and placing the swab in a transport container

a)

throat culture

b)

urine culture

c)

wound culture

d)

nasal culture

12.

(PP) means after a meal; glucose specimen is collected 2 hours after a patient eats a meal

a)

Bleeding Time Test

b)

Lactose Tolerance Test

c)

2 hour Post Prandial Glucose

d)

Arterial Blood Gas

13.

(GTT) is used to diagnose carbohydrate metabolism problems; patients must eat well balanced meals 3 days prior to the test and must fast at least 12 hours before the test; p[atients must drink glucose prior to testing and have 5 minutes to finish the drink; levels will peak within 30 minutes to an hour following glucose ingestion

a)

Bleeding Time Test

b)

Lactose Tolerance Test

c)

Glucose Tolerance Test

d)

Arterial Blood Gas

14.

same procedures as GTT but the patient must drink lactose rather than glucose

a)

Bleeding Time Test

b)

Lactose Tolerance Test

c)

Glucose Tolerance Test

d)

Arterial Blood Gas

15.

performed on the forearm and uses a blood pressure cuff inflated to 40 mm Hg; phlebotomists will use an automated incision device to puncture skin and will use filter paper to blot the blood drops; this is a timed test and phlebotomist will blot blood every 30 seconds until the patient stops bleeding

a)

Bleeding Time Test

b)

Lactose Tolerance Test

c)

Glucose Tolerance Test

d)

Arterial Blood Gas

16.

not done by MA's, most common site radial artery; use a Modified Allen Test to see if patient has adequate circulation; you must cleanse the site with alcohol and then clean with iodine; insert syringe needle at a 45-degree angle; when complete apply pressure for at least 3 to 5 minutes; this test is drawn in an inpatient setting and analyzed immediately after collection

a)

Bleeding Time Test

b)

Lactose Tolerance Test

c)

Glucose Tolerance Test

d)

Arterial Blood Gas

17.

an area in a healthcare facility where inpatient and outpatient diagnostic testing is conducted; certain areas of the medical laboratory are designated for clinical analysis, while others are for surgical and anatomical pathology analysis

a)

Clinical Laboratory

b)

Hematology Laboratory

c)

Chemistry Laboratory

d)

Blood Bank Laboratory

18.

this department deals with the handling of various blood specimens; tests performed in this department include WBC counts, RBC counts, hemoglobin, hematocrit (HCT), RBC indices, and platelet counts; the results of these tests indicate conditions such as dehydration, anemia, leukemia, and a wide variety of other diseases

a)

Clinical Laboratory

b)

Hematology Laboratory

c)

Chemistry Laboratory

d)

Blood Bank Laboratory

19.

the most performed tests within this department include those for blood glucose levels, electrolytes (sodium, potassium, chloride), total protein etc.; the results of these tests can range from the confirmation of pregnancy to the presence of a liver disorder

a)

Clinical Laboratory

b)

Hematology Laboratory

c)

Chemistry Laboratory

d)

Blood Bank Laboratory

20.

this is the section of the laboratory where blood is collected, stored, and prepared for transfusion; it is essential for all staff members to comply with the standards for patient identification and specimen handling to ensure the safety of all the patients

a)

Clinical Laboratory

b)

Hematology Laboratory

c)

Chemistry Laboratory

d)

Blood Bank Laboratory

21.

anti-clotting chemicals

a)

Collection Tube Additives: EDTA and Sodium (NA) Citrate

b)

Collection Tube Additives: Lithium Heparin

c)

Collection Tube Additives: Sodium Fluoride

d)

Collection Tube Additives: Serum Separator Gels

22.

used to separate red blood cells and clotting factors from serum to maintain correct chemistry levels found in blood

a)

Collection Tube Additives: EDTA and Sodium (NA) Citrate

b)

Collection Tube Additives: Lithium Heparin

c)

Collection Tube Additives: Sodium Fluoride

d)

Collection Tube Additives: Serum Separator Gels

23.

used as an anticlotting factor and preservative for some chemistry analysis

a)

Collection Tube Additives: EDTA and Sodium (NA) Citrate

b)

Collection Tube Additives: Lithium Heparin

c)

Collection Tube Additives: Sodium Fluoride

d)

Collection Tube Additives: Serum Separator Gels

24.

used to maintain glugose levels

a)

Collection Tube Additives: EDTA and Sodium (NA) Citrate

b)

Collection Tube Additives: Lithium Heparin

c)

Collection Tube Additives: Sodium Fluoride

d)

Collection Tube Additives: Serum Separator Gels

25.

used to nourish microbes in blood culture tubes and bottles for identification and remediation of infections

a)

Collection Tube Additives: EDTA and Sodium (NA) Citrate

b)

Collection Tube Additives: Lithium Heparin

c)

Collection Tube Additives: Sodium Fluoride

d)

Collection Tube Additives: Blood Culture Media

26.

No additive required. Commonly used for serum determinations in the following: Chemistry testing & Blood bank testing

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red Topped

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Blue Topped

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Lavender and Pink

27.

additive used is sodium citrate. Additive prevents coagulation by binding calcium; it is advised to draw 2 to 3 ml of blood in a tube without additives before drawing this tube; commonly used for coagulation tests/heparin therapy (PT, APTT, fibrinogen)

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red Topped

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Blue Topped

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Lavender and Pink

28.

additive used is ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA); additive binds the calcium needed for clot formation; commonly used for hematology testing (CBC, reticulocyte count) Used for ESR testing (Erythrocyte sedimentation)

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red Topped

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Blue Topped

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Lavender and Pink

29.

additive used is Heparin, a natural anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin; commonly used for routine chemistry testing.

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red Topped

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Light Green

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Dark Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Lavender and Pink

30.

additive used is Lithium Heparin; this additive action is as an anticoagulant; not to be used for lithium levels; used for many chemistry tests

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red/Gray Camouflage, Tiger Top

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Light Green

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Dark Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Gray

31.

additives used are sodium fluoride, a preservative that inhibits glycolytic action, and potassium oxalate, an anticoagulant that binds calcium; commonly used for glucose tolerance tests and lactic acid measurement

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red/Gray Camouflage, Tiger Top

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Light Green

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Dark Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Gray

32.

additives used are clot activator and serum gel separator; activator encourages clot formation while gel creates a barrier between the serum and the cells which prevents contamination of the serum; commonly used for chemistry and immunology testing

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red/Gray Camouflage, Tiger Top

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Light Green

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Dark Green Topped

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Gray

33.

microbial growth media; there are two major types: aerobic growth media and anaerobic growth media; there are also microbe specific tubes and bottles which are ordered by the provider

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red/Gray Camouflage, Tiger Top

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Light Green

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Dark Royal Blue

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Blood Culture tube or bottle, yellow

34.

additive is EDTA; EDTAQ inhibits clot formation; used for trace metal levels including lead

a)

Blood Collection Tubes: Red/Gray Camouflage, Tiger Top

b)

Blood Collection Tubes: Light Green

c)

Blood Collection Tubes: Dark Royal Blue

d)

Blood Collection Tubes: Blood Culture tube or bottle, yellow

35.

performed for visual examination of cells under a microscope; can be performed on blood (peripheral smear) and cervical epithelium (pap smear)

a)

Throat Swabs

b)

Smears

c)

Blood Cultures

d)

Wound Cultures

36.

measures visual acuity which determines the amount of visual details at given distances on the eye chart

a)

Hearing Test

b)

Ishyihara Test

c)

Snellen Test

37.

a color perception test that uses specialized color plates with numbers to assess for red-green color blindness

a)

Hearing Test

b)

Ishyihara Test

c)

Snellen Test

38.

The veins used for drawing blood can be found in the ___________ space.

a)

scalp vein

b)

antecubital space

c)

wrist

39.

The most common vein used for drawing blood is the cephalic vein which is located in the antecubital space.

a)

true

b)

false

40.

When obtaining a capillary sample, it is recommended to

a)

leave the tourniquet on as long as necessary

b)

squeeze the finger or heel over and over

c)

gently massage the finger or heel

d)

make sure the finger or heel is cold

41.

When drawing a patients blood, they should always be

a)

standing

b)

sitting or lying down

42.

After drawing blood, vigourously shake the tube to make sure it mixes with the additive

a)

true

b)

false

43.

Before running tests on a patient, the MA should perform which measures to make sure the equipment is functioning properly and the results will be accurate.

a)

cleaning of rooms

b)

stocking of supplies

c)

quality control

44.

Chain of Custody testing is most likely needed for which of the following tests?

a)

pregnancy test

b)

urine ph

c)

blood alcohol levels

d)

glucose test

45.

The most common type of pulmonary function or breathing test. This test measures how much air you can breathe in and out of your lungs, as well as how easily and fast you can the blow the air out of your lungs. Your doctor may order spirometry if you have wheezing, shortness of breath, or a cough.

a)

spirometry test

b)

nebulizer treatment

c)

oxygen saturation

d)

chest xray

46.

changes liquid medicine into fine droplets (in aerosol or mist form) that are inhaled through a mouthpiece or mask. They can be used to deliver many types of medicines. The medicines and moisture help control breathing problems like wheezing and help loosen lung secretions.

a)

spirometry test

b)

nebulizer treatment

c)

oxygen saturation

d)

chest xray

47.

Which of the following stopper colors identifies a tube used for coagulation testing

a)

light blue

b)

green

c)

lavender

d)

red

48.

What are lavender stopper tubes most commonly used to collect?

a)

immunology tests

b)

coagulation tests

c)

chemistry tests

d)

hematology tests

49.

What does the abbreviation PT stand for?

a)

prenatal therapy

b)

partial thromboplastin

c)

prothrombin time

d)

patient temperature

50.

How does heparin prevent blood clotting?

a)

inhibiting thrombin

b)

activating calcium

c)

binding calcium

d)

chelating thrombin

51.

What is the purpose of an antiglycolytic agent?

a)

it preserves glucose

b)

it enhances the clotting process

c)

it inhibits electrolyte breakdown

d)

it prevents clotting

52.

What must the MA do in preparation for a venipuncture or capillary stick?

a)

blow on the alcohol for quicker drying time

b)

fan the alcohol with your hand

c)

wipe the alcohol off with dry gauze

d)

allow the alcohol to air dry

53.

Which of the following should an ordered blood culture be drawn in?

a)

red top tube

b)

lavender top tube

c)

green top tube

d)

yellow top tube

54.

What is the proper method of urine specimen collection that will avoid contamination?

a)

avoiding urinating directly into the urine container

b)

avoiding touching the inside of the container or the lid

c)

adding a preservative to the midstream container

d)

asking the patient to wear gloves during the collection

55.

How does the serum or plasma of a lipemic specimen appear?

a)

dark yellow

b)

cloudy white

c)

foamy pink

d)

pink to red

56.

A lipemic specimen is a clue that the patient was probably which of the following?

a)

in a basal state

b)

dehydrated

c)

jaundiced

d)

not fasting

57.

What statement describes proper centrifuge operation?

a)

remove stoppers before placing tubes in centrifuge

b)

centrifuges serum specimens before they have a chance to clot

c)

never centrifuge both serum and plasma specimens in the same centrifuge

d)

place tubes of equal size and volume across from each other

58.

What is PKU?

a)

a hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine

b)

a contagious condition caused by the lack of phenylalanine

c)

an acquired condition caused by the lack of phenylalanine

d)

an inherited condition caused by the lack of thyroid hormone

59.

A 12 hour fast is normally required in testing for which analyte?

a)

bilirubin

b)

calcium

c)

triglycerides

d)

electrolytes

60.

What is a blood smear?

a)

blood collected on a special filter paper

b)

blood used to identify the types of bacteria

c)

blood made from a heparinized specimen

d)

blood spread out on a microscope slide

61.

Which of the following is NOT a phlebotomist's duty?

a)

collecting blood specimens

b)

performing laboratory computer operations

c)

starting intravenous (IV) lines

d)

transporting specimens to the lab

62.

What is the national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures?

a)

ASCP

b)

NAACLS

c)

NCA

d)

NCCLS

63.

Which of the following is urine C & S typically ordered to detect?

a)

Abnormal urine ph

b)

Glucose spillage into urine

c)

Kidney damage

d)

Presence of a UTI (urinary tract infection)

64.

Which type of motion would a phlebotomist use when cleaning a site for a routine venipuncture?

a)

vertical

b)

horizontal

c)

Concentric

d)

Crossing

65.

A patient was experiencing a successful venipuncture when petechiae arose on their forearm. What was this the result of?

a)

allergy to the antiseptic used to cleanse the area

b)

the needle puncturing completely through the vein

c)

the tourniquet being applied too tightly

d)

a rare genetic disorder

66.

What should a MA do FIRST when a patient is having a syncopal episode while venipuncture is being performed?

a)

remove the needle from the arm

b)

call for help

c)

apply a cold compress

d)

use an an ammonia inhalant

67.

Which of the following information does NOT need to be on a specimen label?

a)

patient name

b)

date

c)

time of collection

d)

diagnosis

68.

Which test is collected in a tube with a light blue top?

a)

glucose

b)

platelet count

c)

prothrombin time

d)

red blood count

69.

Which of the following tests may require a special "chain of custody" documentation when collected?

a)

blood culture

b)

drug screen

c)

prothrombin time

d)

red blood count

70.

What is the hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests?

a)

ACTH

b)

GH

c)

HCG

d)

TSH

71.

When should a tube collecting heparin be collected?

a)

Between a blood culture and before a serum tube

b)

Between a citrate additive tube and a serum tube

c)

Between an EDTA tube and a glycolytic inhibitor tube

d)

Between a serum tube and an EDTA tube

72.

You must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IV's in both arms. Which of the following locations is the best place to draw the specimen?

a)

Above an IV

b)

Below an IV

c)

From an ankle vein

d)

From an IV

73.

Which government agency regulates the quality of gloves worn when performing phlebotomy procedures?

a)

CDC/HICPAC

b)

FDA

c)

JCAHO

d)

OSHA