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AP Chemistry Quizizz Q3

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 2hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What order is this graph?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Third

2.

What order is this graph?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Third

3.

If you quadruple the concentration and the rate quadruples, what order is this reaction?

a)

zero

b)

first

c)

second

4.

The particles under the purple curve (middle) have an average Kinetic Energy that is proportional to of 500K

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Which step of a reaction mechanism determines the rate?

a)

the slow step

b)

the fast step

c)

the first step

d)

the second step

6.

What order is the half life of Carbon14?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

7.

What is the unit for the rate constant (k) for 2nd order reactions?

a)

s-1

b)

M/s

c)

M-1s-1

8.

How does a catalyst speed up a reaction?

a)

Adding more reactant

b)

Providing a pathway that has a lower activation energy

c)

Increasing the activation energy

d)

Increasing binding energy

9.

___________ are produced in one step and used up in a later step and __________________ are present and unchanged in the reactants and the products

a)

intermediates, catalysts

b)

catalysts, intermediates

10.

If a “reaction profile” has a taller ‘hill’ (or activation energy) then the reaction is ____________________?

a)

Faster

b)

Slower

11.

What are the 2 characteristics that an effective collision must have? SELECT TWO

a)

Enough energy to overcome Ea

b)

Molecules in the correct orientations

c)

High enough temperature

d)

Apporpriate intermediates present

12.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A + A --> B + B

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

13.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A --> B + C

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

14.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A + 2B --> D + C

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[A][B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

15.

What is NOT a way to speed up a reaction

a)

Add a catalyst

b)

Decrease the volume

c)

Increase the concentration of reactants

d)

Increase surface area of the solid

e)

Decrease the pressure

16.

Which curve represents the most particles in this Maxwell-Boltzmann curve (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

They all have the same number of particles

17.

Which curve in this Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution represents the highest proportion of particles moving the fastest (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

All particles are moving at the same speed

18.

What order of reaction has a half-life that does not change regardless of the initial concentration?

a)

Zero

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Third

19.

At equilibrium, rates of the forward and reverse reaction are...

a)

The same

b)

Not the same

20.

A system at equilibrium

a)

Must have reactants and products

b)

Must have products only

c)

Must have reactants only

21.

At equilibrium, concentrations of reactants and products are

a)

equal

b)

constant

22.

At what time does the system first reach equilibrium?

a)

24s

b)

40s

c)

60s

d)

80s

23.

The equilibrium constant expression, Kc, given aA + bB ⇄ cC + dD, is...

a)

Kc = [C]c[D]d[A]a[B]bK_c\ =\ \frac{\left[C\right]^c\left[D\right]^d}{\left[A\right]^a\left[B\right]^b}  

b)

Kc = [A]a[B]b[C]c[D]dK_c\ =\ \frac{\left[A\right]^a\left[B\right]^b}{\left[C\right]^c\left[D\right]^d}  

24.

Which substance(s) would not be included in a equilibrium constant expression?

a)

NaCl(s)

b)

NaCl(aq)

c)

NaCl(l)

d)

NaCl(g)

25.

If a K value is greater than 1,

a)

more products are present at equilibrium

b)

more reactants are present at equilibrium

26.

If a K value is VERY large,

a)

the reaction has essentially gone to completion

b)

there are more reactants present at equilibrium

27.

If K < Q, the reaction will proceed in the...

a)

reverse direction to reach equilibrium

b)

forward direction to reach equilibrium

28.

When a reaction at equilibrium is reversed,

a)

the K value's sign is flipped

b)

the K value is divided by 2

c)

the K value is inverted

29.

To calculate the K of an overall reaction from individual reaction K values, the individual K values are

a)

added

b)

subtracted

c)

multiplied

d)

divided

30.

When the coefficient of a reaction is multiplied by a factor x,

a)

the K value is multipled by x

b)

the K value is divided by x

c)

the K value is raised to the power x

31.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH > 0, which of the following changes will increase the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Decreasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Removing a small amount of B

d)

Decreasing the pressure

32.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH < 0, which of the following changes will decrease the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Increasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Increasing the pressure

d)

Adding a catalyst

33.

The following system at equilibrium is exothermic. If the temperature is increased...

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g)

a)

[A] will increase the most

b)

[B] will increase the most

c)

[AB2] will increase the most

34.

For an exothermic system at equilibrium, if the temperature is increased, the equilibrium will shift towards the...

a)

reactants

b)

products

35.

For an endothermic system at equilibrium, if the temperature is decreased, the equilibrium will shift towards the...

a)

reactants

b)

products

36.

In a Ksp expression, we always assume that the reactant is made up of

a)

the solid precipitate

b)

the aqueous ions

37.

If Ksp >1, we say the salt is...

a)

soluble

b)

insoluble

38.

If a common ion is present, the solubility of a salt

a)

is increased

b)

is decreased

c)

will remain the same

39.

Chromatography separates mixtures based on what property?

a)

particle size

b)

intermolecular forces

c)

boiling points

d)

state of matter

40.

In paper chromatography, if water is the mobile phase, what kind of substance will move up the farthest?

a)

polar substance

b)

non polar substance

41.

Distillation separates mixtures based on differences in what property?

a)

Solubility

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Particle Size

d)

State of Matter

42.

List the 4 Intermolecular forces from weakest to strongest

a)

hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, london dispersion, dipole dipole

b)

london dispersion, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, dipole dipole

c)

london dispersion, dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole

d)

dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, london dispersion

43.

“More polarizable” refers to which Intermolecular Force?

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

london dispersion

c)

dipole dipole

44.

List ALL the Intermolecular forces that exist in PCl3

a)

hydrogen bonding, london dispersion

b)

london dispersion, hydrogen bonding, dipole dipole

c)

london dispersion, dipole dipole

d)

london dispersion

45.

The dashed line is a representation of a hydrogen bond.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The dotted line is a representation of a hydrogen bond.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Name a property that decreases as Intermolecular Forces increase.

a)

Vapor pressure

b)

Conductivity

c)

Melting point

d)

Solubility

48.

Name a property that increases as Intermolecular Forces increase.

a)

Vapor pressure

b)

Conductivity

c)

Melting point

d)

Solubility

49.

What type of solid will not conduct electricity until it is liquid or aqueous?

a)

Ionic Solid

b)

Covalent Network Solid

c)

Molecular Solid

d)

Metallic Solid

50.

What is an example of a covalent network solid?

a)

Salt

b)

Diamond

c)

Sugar

d)

Water

51.

What type of solid always conducts electricity?

a)

Ionic Solid

b)

Metallic Solid

c)

Covalent Network Solid

d)

Molecular Solid

52.

When a molecular solid melts or boils, which bonds break?

a)

Intermolecular

b)

Intramolecular

53.

What type of alloy is this?

a)

Interstitial

b)

Substitutional

54.

What type of alloy is made when the radii of one element are similar in size with the other element making up the alloy?

a)

interstitial

b)

substitutional

55.

What causes gas pressure?

a)

large space between the molecules

b)

random motion of particles

c)

collisions with the walls of the container

56.

P and V are ___________________ related?

a)

inversely

b)

directly

57.

The more molar mass a gas has, the_________________ it moves

a)

faster

b)

slower

58.

Average Kinetic Energy is another term for _____________.

a)

Heat

b)

Temperature

c)

Pressure

d)

Activation energy

59.

Real gases behave most like an ideal gas at what conditions of temperature and pressure?

a)

High T, Low P

b)

High P, Low T

c)

High V, Low T

60.

What type of alloy is made when the radii of the atoms are similar in size?

a)

interstitial

b)

substitutional

61.

Which atom has the negative dipole in this molecule?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Fluorine

c)

Neither

62.

In this molecule, Carbon has a formal charge of ____ and Nitrogen has a formal charge of _____.

a)

0, 0

b)

1, 0

c)

0, -1

d)

-1, 0

63.

Combustion reactions produce what two substances?

a)

Water Vapor and Carbon Dioxide

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen

c)

Oxygen and Water Vapor

64.

As the electronegativity difference between 2 atoms increases, the polarity of the bond ____________________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

65.

What type of bond forms between hydrogen and chlorine?

a)

polar covalent

b)

non-polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

hydrogen bond

66.

What type of alloy is this?

a)

Interstitial

b)

Substitutional

67.

What is the total # of covalent bonds carbon can form when drawing a Lewis structure?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

4

d)

8

68.

What is the bond angle in BF3?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

109.5

d)

180

69.

What is the bond angle in H2O?

a)

120

b)

90

c)

180

d)

104.5

70.

Are asymmetrical molecules polar or nonpolar?

a)

Polar

b)

non-polar

c)

neither

71.

What is the bond angle in NH3

a)

120

b)

107.3

c)

180

d)

90

72.

What is the hybridization of carbon in CH4?

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

73.

What is the hybridization for carbon in CO2

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

74.

Count the number of sigma and pi bonds in this molecule:

a)

13 sigma, 1 pi

b)

14 sigma, 2 pi

c)

1 sigma, 14 pi

d)

2 sigma, 13 pi

75.

Why are asymmetrical molecules polar?

a)

Their dipoles do not cancel

b)

Their dipoles cancel

76.

What is the hybridization for an oxygen in CO2

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

77.

When a molecular solid melts or boils, which breaks?

a)

Intermolecular forces

b)

Intramolecular bonds

78.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
79.

What is the total # of covalent bonds carbon has to make when drawing a Lewis structure?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

4

d)

8

80.

In an exothermic reaction, the sign of ΔH is ____ and the reaction feels ______

a)

(-), hot

b)

(+), hot

c)

(-), cold

d)

(+), cold

81.

Freezing is an _________________________ process

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

82.

Vaporizing is an _________________________ process

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

83.

Breaking bonds is _________________. Forming bonds is ______________________

a)

endothermic, exothermic

b)

exothermic, endothermic

84.

ΔHrxn = ΔH_________________ − ΔH_________________

a)

products, reactants

b)

reactants, products

85.

If a reaction is exothermic, then the bonds formed in the products are ___________________ than the reactant bonds.

a)

stronger/more stable

b)

weaker/less stable

86.

If a reaction is endothermic, then the bonds formed in the products are ___________________ than the reactant bonds.

a)

stronger/more stable

b)

weaker/less stable

87.

According to Hess' Law, if you double the coefficients of a reaction, ΔH will ________________________

a)

Stay the same

b)

Double

c)

Quadruple

d)

Halve

88.

According to Hess' Law, if you reverse a reaction, ΔH will ________________________

a)

Change signs

b)

Double

c)

Be inversed

d)

Halve

89.

_____ Hydrogen-Hydrogen single bond/s are broken and _____ Carbon-Hydrogen single bond/s formed

a)

6; 8

b)

2; 8

c)

2; 10

d)

6; 10

90.

_____ Carbon-Carbon single bond/s are formed

a)

6

b)

2

c)

3

d)

10

91.

Bond enthalpy is the amount of energy is takes to break __________ of a bond.

a)

one mole

b)

one gram

c)

the activation energy

d)

the binding energy

92.

What are the units of ΔHrxn?

a)

kJ

b)

J

c)

kJ/mol

d)

J/mol

93.

Endothermic

a)

absorb energy

b)

release energy

94.

Exothermic

a)

absorb energy

b)

release energy

95.

In the dissolution process, the increase in separation between ions in the solute is

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

96.

In a system, the energy lost by the reacting species must be ________________ the energy gained by the surrouding

a)

greater than

b)

less than

c)

equal to

97.

On a potential energy diagram for an endothermic reaction,

a)

the potential energy of the reactants is greater than the potential energy of the products

b)

the potential energy of the reactants is less than the potential energy of the products

c)

the potential energy of the reactants is equal to the potential energy of the products

98.

A temperature is placed in a calorimeter. A solid is dissolved in water in the calorimeter and the temperature of the thermometer increases. The dissolution reaction must be

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

99.

Using bond energies to solve for enthalpy, 

a)

ΔH\Delta H  =  Bond broken - bonds formed

b)

undefined =  Bond formed- bonds broken

c)

undefined =  products - reactants

d)

undefined =  reactants- products

100.

The enthalpy of formation for a lone element is

a)

a number

b)

zero

101.
If a solution has a [H+] of 1.2 x 10-4M what is the [OH-]?
a)
8.3 x 10-4M 
b)
8.3 x 10-11M 
c)
1.2 x 1010M 
d)
1.2 x 10-4M 
102.
If a solution has a [OH-] of 3.42 x 10-12M what is the [H+]?
a)
2.92 x 10-3M 
b)
3.42 x 102M 
c)
2.92 x 10-2M 
d)
3.42 x 10-5M 
103.
What is the conjugate acid in the following equation?
a)
PO43- 
b)
HNO3 
c)
NO3- 
d)
HPO42-
104.
What is the conjugate base in the following reaction?
a)
HCO3- 
b)
HCl
c)
 H2CO3 
d)
Cl-
105.
Which accepts protons?
a)
Brønsted-Lowry Acids
b)
Brønsted-Lowry Bases
c)
Arrhenius Acids
d)
Arrhenius Bases
106.
Which donates protons?
a)
Brønsted-Lowry Acids
b)
Brønsted-Lowry Bases
c)
Arrhenius Acids
d)
Arrhenius Bases
107.

Find the pH of a solution with [OH-] = 8.41 x 10-4.

a)

3.08

b)

10.92

c)

9.88

d)

11.23

108.
Calculate the pH of a 0.47M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 x 10-5) solution.
a)
2.54
b)
8.93
c)
5.07
d)
11.46
109.
Which is the weakest acid?
a)
HF
b)
HNO2
c)
CH3COOH
d)
HClO
110.

What is the pH of a solution that has an [H+] of 2.5 × 10–5?

a)

4.60

b)

5.0

c)

2.5

d)

7

111.
What is the pOH of a solution that has a pH of 2?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
14
d)
1
112.

A 1-molar solution of a very weak monoprotic acid has a pH of 5. What is the value of Ka for the acid?

a)

1 × 10–10

b)

1 × 10–7

c)

1 × 10–5

d)

1 × 10–2

113.
Which combination will form a buffer solution?
a)
100ml of 0.1M HCI with 50ml of 0.1M NaOH
b)
100ml of 0.1M CH3COOH with 50ml of 0.1M NaOH
c)
50ml of 0.1M HCI with 100ml of 0.1M NaOH
d)
50ml of 0.1M CH3COOH with 100ml of 0.1M NaOH
114.

a buffer solution is made of mixture of aqueous methanoic acid, HCOOH, with aqueous sodium methanoate, NaHCOO.


the equilibrium reaction takes place in buffer solution is :

HCOOH ↔ HCOO- + H+


small amount of NaOH is then added to that buffer solution.


What reaction take places at the buffer solution to resist change of pH caused by addition of base?

a)

HCOOH + H+ → HCOOH2

b)

HCOO- + H+ → HCOOH

c)

HCOOH + OH- → HCOO- + H2O

d)

HCOO- + OH- → COO2- + H2O

115.

a buffer solution is made by mixing HA, a weak acid, with salts containing A- ions.


HA ↔ H+ + A-


a formula that can be used for the calculation of the pH of this buffer solution is

a)
b)
c)
d)
116.

Which element is represented by this PES graph?

a)

argon

b)

potassium

c)

calcium

d)

scandium

117.

The photoelectron spectra above show the energy required to remove a 1s electron from a nitrogen atom and from an oxygen atom. Which of the following statements best accounts for the peak in the upper spectrum being to the right of the peak in the lower spectrum?

a)

Nitrogen atoms have a half-filled p subshell.

b)

There are more electron-electron repulsions in oxygen atoms than in nitrogen atoms.

c)

Electrons in the p subshell of oxygen atoms provide more shielding than electrons in the p sub shell of nitrogen atoms.

d)

Nitrogen atoms have a smaller nuclear charge than oxygen atoms.

118.
As you move down the periodic table atoms get bigger.  This is because ____________.
a)
The atoms have more mass.
b)
The atoms have more protons.
c)
The atoms have more energy levels
d)
The atoms have more nuetrons
119.
Which one has the largest radius?
a)
Lithium (Li, atomic #3)
b)
Boron (B, atomic #5)
c)
Neon (Ne, atomic #10)
d)
Nitrogen (N, atomic #7)
120.
What is the molar mass of Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2)?
a)
48 g/mole
b)
34.02 g/mole
c)
36.5 g/mole
d)
35.5 g/mole
121.
How many moles are in 16.94g of water?
a)
16.94 mol H2O
b)
0.9401 mol H2O
c)
305.3 mol H2O
d)
1.063 mol H2O
122.
What is the mass in grams of 5.90 mol C8H18?
a)
.0512 g
b)
19.4 g
c)
673 g
d)
389 g
123.
Which pair has the same empirical formula?
a)
NaCrO4 and Na2Cr2O7
b)
C2H4O2 and C6H12O6
c)
C3H6O3 and C2H6O2
d)
CH4 and C2H6
124.
A compound consists of 72.2% magnesium(Mg) and 27.8% nitrogen(N) by mass. What is the empirical formula?
a)
Mg4N3
b)
MgN2
c)
Mg3N2 
d)
MgN
125.

2.40 g of an explosive, J, contains 0.473 g of nitrogen. J also contains 33.8% carbon and 1.41% hydrogen by mass. The remainder of J is oxygen.


What is the empirical formula of J?

a)

C4HNO2

b)

CH2N2O

c)

C2HNO2

d)

CHNO

126.
What is the empirical formula if you have 88.80% copper and 11.20% oxygen?
a)
Cu3O8
b)
CuO4
c)
Cu2O
d)
Cu4O10
127.
EF = CF2 
Molecular formula mass = 192
MF =
a)
C4F8
b)
C4F
c)
CF8
d)
C2F4
128.

What is the charge of a proton?

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

129.

What is the center of an atom containing protons and neutrons?

a)

nucleus

b)

neutron

c)

proton

d)

electron cloud

130.
In order for an atom to be neutral what has to be true?
a)
The atom has more protons than neutrons
b)
The atom has more neutrons than protons
c)
The atom has the same number of protons and neutrons
d)
The atom has the same number of protons and electrons
131.

What is the mass number?

a)

the number of protons in the nucleus

b)

the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

c)

the number of neutrons in the nucleus

d)

the number of protons and electrons in the atom

132.

What is the atomic number?

a)

the number of protons in the nucleus

b)

the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

c)

the number of neutrons in the nucleus

d)

the number of protons in the energy levels

133.

An atom has 10 protons, 15 neutrons and 10 electrons what is its mass number.

a)

20

b)

10

c)

35

d)

25

134.
How many protons are in Cadmium?
a)
112.411
b)
170
c)
64
d)
48
135.

Atoms of the same element which have a different number of neutrons are called _________________.

a)

ions

b)

isotopes

c)

quarks

d)

molecules

136.
If X is the symbol for an element, which of the following two symbols represent    isotopes of the same element?     I. 7735X  II. 7733X  III. 8137X  IV. 8135 X
a)
I and II
b)
III and IV
c)
I and IV
d)
I and III

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Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade