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STEM203 GENBIO2 TEST

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The observable traits of an organism are known as its

a)

Allele

b)

Dominance

c)

Genotype

d)

Phenotype

2.

Each parent contributes one of the genes for a particular trait. The genes of the pair are called

a)

Alleles

b)

Gametes

c)

Hybrids

d)

Variables

3.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
4.

A __________ is a segment of DNA that codes for a particular protein, which leads to a particular trait.

a)

Allele

b)

Codon

c)

Gene

d)

Nucleotide

5.

The hidden trait. You need two of these alleles for the trait to show.

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Hidden

d)

Overt

6.
A corn plant heterozygous for tall sprouts mates with a corn plant with short sprouts. If tall sprouts are dominant, how many different phenotypes are possible in the offspring?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
7.

If a heterozygous tall pea plant (tall is dominant to short) is crossed with a short pea plant, what are the possible genotypes of the future offspring?

a)

100% Tt

b)

50% Tt, 50% tt

c)

75%Tt, 25%tt

d)

25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt

8.
Each one of the boxes on the Punnett Square represents what probability of an offsprings' genotype?
a)
25%
b)
1%
c)
10%
d)
0%
9.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
10.

Mendel's law of ____ states that a random assortment of maternally and paternally derived chromosomes in meiosis results in gametes that have different combinations of these genes.

a)

dominance

b)

segregation

c)

independent assortment

d)

particular inheritance

11.

What goes in box 3?

a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
12.

How many generations are shown in this pedigree?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

13.

If a black guinea pig (Bb) were crossed with a white guinea pig (bb), what would be the resulting phenotype ratio?

a)

1:1 black to white (50% black / 50% white)

b)

1:0 black to white (100% black / 0% white)

c)

0:1 black to white (0% black / 100% white)

d)

3:1 black to white (75% black / 25% white)

14.
A person with blood type AB expresses two markers on the surface of their blood cells. Each marker is coded for by a different allele. 
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Multiple Alleles
c)
Codominance 
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
15.

During DNA replication which enzymes are responsible for unwinding and adding the correct nitrogen base pair to the exposed parent strands

a)

Unwinding (DNA Helicase)

b)

Adding Base pair (DNA Polymerase)

c)

Both are correct

d)

None are correct

16.

Refer to the picture regarding DNA Replication. Why are there 2 different colors in the image?

a)

The DNA is changing therefore the color changes

b)

One color represents the parent strand and the other the new strand (Semi-conservative)

c)

Both are correct

d)

None are correct

17.

Identify the incorrect statement(s) regarding the resulting DNA molecules after DNA Replication

a)

The DNA is now shorter due to creating a copy

b)

The DNA molecules are identical to each other

c)

The DNA molecules can now undergo Protein Synthesis

d)

None are correct

18.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
19.
How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?
a)
Cousins
b)
Dad and Daughter
c)
Uncle and Niece
d)
Grandpa and Granddaughter
20.
If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
21.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
22.

A couple has 3 children: a daughter and two sons. If the mother and daughter both have a genetic disorder what would the pedigree of this family look like?

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.

What mode of inheritance is shown?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Autosomal Recessive

24.

This pedigree tracks the presence of attached earlobes. Having attached earlobes is an autosomal recessive trait. What is the genotype of individual I-1?

a)

XeY

b)

XEY

c)

EE

d)

Ee

25.

Termination of polypeptide chain is brought about by

a)

UUG, UAG and UCG

b)

UCG, GCG and ACC

c)

UAA, UAG and UGA

d)

UUG, UGC and UCA

26.

Genetic code translates the language of

a)

RNA into that of protein

b)

RNA into that of DNA

c)

Amino acids into that of RNA

d)

Protein into that of DNA

27.

The flow of information from DNA to mRNA and then to proteins is called

a)

transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Genetic code

d)

Central dogma

28.

What is the function of tRNA

a)

To synthesize protein

b)

To help in replication

c)

a binding site for RNA polymerase

d)

To carry amino acids to ribosome

29.

Who proposed the semiconservative nature of DNA

a)

Fredrick griffith

b)

Francis crick and watson

c)

Darwin

d)

Meselson and stahl

30.

where translation takeplace

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

31.

How introns are removed in eukaryotic cells

a)

Silencing

b)

Capping

c)

Tailing

d)

Splicing

32.

The steps (rungs) of the DNA ladder are made up of __________.

a)

phosphate groups

b)

sugars

c)

nitrogen bases

d)

amino acids

33.
In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by:
a)
glycosidic bonds
b)
phosphodiester bonds
c)
peptide bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
34.
The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at:
a)
3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
b)
5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
c)
the 5' (upstream) end
d)
the 3' (downstream) end
35.

Which of the following enzymes is needed for Transcription?

a)

Helicase

b)

DNA Polymeras

c)

RNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

e)

Topoisomerase

36.

Given the mRNA sequence - 3' AUG CAU GGU.5'. What is the original DNA template strand?

a)

5' TAC GTA CCA 3'

b)

5' UAC GUA CGA 3'

c)

3' UAC GUA CGA 5''

d)

3' TAC GTA CGA 5'

37.

Given the DNA template sequence of 3' TAC GTT ACT 5'. What is the corresponding mRNA strand?

a)

5'AUG CAA UGA 3'

b)

3' ATG CAA TGA 5'

c)

3'AUG CAA UGA 5'

d)

5' ATG CAA TGA 3'

38.

If a transfer RNA had the anticodon ACU, then what amino acid would it bring?

a)

His (histidine)

b)

Cys (cysteine)

c)

Arg (arginine)

d)

None

39.

What is the anticodon for the codon 5' AUG 3' ?

a)

5' TAC 3'

b)

3' TAC 5'

c)

5' UAC 3'

d)

3' UAC 5'

40.

Given the DNA strand: 3' TAC-TGT-GGT-TAA 5'. What is the amino acid sequence?

a)

Met-Thr-Pro-Ile

b)

Met-Pro-Thr-Ile

c)

Ile-Pro-Thr-Met

d)

Ile-Thr-Pro-Met

41.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
42.
The diagram shows the process of
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
43.
Carries the genetic code to the ribosome
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
44.
Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
a)
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b)
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c)
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d)
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
45.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
46.

What must happen before the the ribosome starts building mRNA?

a)

Ribosome has to find a start codon

b)

Ribosome has to find a promoter region of DNA

c)

Ribosome must go through replication

d)

Ribosome must do a warm-up run

47.

Each end of the DNA double helix contains the 5 ends of one strand and the 3 end of the other strand, this statement describes what characteristics of the DNA structures?

a)

Base Pairing

b)

Antiparallel

c)

Helix

d)

Complementary

48.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
49.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
50.

Which of the following best describes "genome"?

a)

A section of DNA

b)

A bundle of DNA

c)

Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of genes

d)

All of the genetic material in an organism

51.

Which of the following best describes "gel electrophoresis?"

a)

A tool for separating chunks of DNA

b)

A tool for editing someone's genes

c)

A tool for adding genes from a new species into an organism's DNA

d)

Copying DNA to make an identical organism

52.

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO's) are:

a)

Organisms whose genes / DNA have been edited

b)

Organisms who have received new stem cells to cure a disease

c)

Organisms whose DNA has been copied

d)

Organisms whose entire genome has been sequenced

53.

Transgenic Organisms (GMO's) are:

a)

Organisms that have genes from a different species

b)

Organisms who have received new stem cells to cure a disease

c)

Organisms whose DNA has been copied

d)

Organisms whose entire genome has been sequenced

54.

What was the purpose of the human genome project? 

a)

To know which protein is made from EACH gene in the human genome

b)

To know which type of stem cells to use in research

c)

To know which sections of human DNA could best be used for cloning

d)

To know which genes are most easily edited in gene therapy

55.
Who is the father?
a)
Dad 1
b)
Dad 2
c)
Dad 3 
d)
can not be determined
56.
 This diagram shows the DNA fingerprints of a common ancestor of Deer Species. Which deer species is most related to the common ancestor
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
57.

Which is one reason scientists produce transgenic organisms?

a)

to create new species of organisms

b)

to control microorganisms in the soil

c)

to prevent habitats from being destroyed

d)

to treat certain types of diseases

58.

Which of the following is a concern about the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) as food?

a)

they may taste better than normal food

b)

they may cause death if eaten

c)

they can cause allergies, toxins, new diseases and nutritional problems

d)

they are perfectly healthy

59.

Breeding two dissimilar organisms to get the best characteristics of both is called

a)

hybridization

b)

selective breeding

c)

transgenic organisms

d)

recombinant breeding

60.

What is the relationship between person I-2 and III-6?

a)

Mother/Son

b)

Grandmother/Grandson

c)

Brothers

d)

Cousins

61.

Scientists have produced a genetically modified orange tree that is resistant to disease. Which of the following is the best example of a potential benefit to society that could result from this biotechnology?

a)

reduction in orange crops produced

b)

increase in orange crops produced

c)

increase in the cost of orange crop

d)

a change in the distribution of insects that pollinate orange flowers

62.

This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA so that the organism gains a new trait.

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

63.
Which agricultural benefit can biotechnology  provide?
a)
developing plants that are less dependent on the sun for energy
b)
developing plants that are less sensitive to variations in environmental temperatures
c)
developing plants with inheritable traits unrelated to the genetic material they contain
d)
developing plants that will not die
64.

Using living things or parts of living things to produce a product or solve a problem

a)

biotechnology

b)

tissue culturing

c)

bioremediation

d)

transgenic

65.

A rice strain that has been genetically modified to make Vitamin-A

a)

Brown Rice

b)

Yellow Rice

c)

Golden Rice

d)

Vitamin Rice

66.

To make Bt corn Bt gene is taken from

a)

virus

b)

fungus

c)

bacteria

d)

protozoa

67.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #9.

(a)  

68.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #6.

(a)  

69.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #8.

(a)  

70.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #3.

(a)  

71.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #1.

(a)  

72.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #12

(a)  

73.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #9.

(a)  

74.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #10.

(a)  

75.

FROG MORPHOLOGY: Name #8.

(a)  

76.

What plant part is letter C?

a)

Node

b)

Seeds

c)

Flower

d)

Bud

77.

What plant part is letter E?

a)

Vascular tissue

b)

Bud

c)

Node

d)

Shoot tip

78.

What plant part is letter G?

a)

Primary root

b)

Ground tissue

c)

Vascular tissue

d)

Node

79.

Which of the following stems are found underground? (Mark all that apply)

a)

Tubers

b)

Rhizomes

c)

Stolons

d)

Corms

e)

Bulbs

80.

What is the leaf arrangement in this picture?

a)

Alternate

b)

Opposite

c)

Whorled

d)

Basal

e)

Squirreled

81.

What leaf type is on the picture?

(a)  

82.

This is a rose leaf. What type of margin does it have?

(a)  

83.

Plumeria or kalachuchi is a common plant in the Philippines. What is the leaf shape of this plant?

(a)  

84.

Plumeria or kalachuchi is a common plant in the Philippines. What is the leaf type of this plant?

(a)  

85.

Plumeria or kalachuchi is a common plant in the Philippines. What is the leaf margin of this plant?

(a)