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Human Bodies 2 Final

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term describes the implantation of the blastocyst outside of the uterus?

a)

ectopic pregnancy

b)

placenta previa

c)

preeclampsia

d)

progeria

2.

Which term describes a disorder characterized by acute hypertension after 24 wks of pregnancy?

a)

placenta previa

b)

progeria

c)

puerperal fever

d)

preeclampsia

3.

A condition where the blastocyst implants too close to the cervical opening of the uterus:

a)

placenta previa

b)

abruptio placentae

c)

ectopic pregnancy

d)

progeria

4.

An inherited disorder where person seems to age very rapidly

a)

progeria

b)

mastitis

c)

Tay-Sachs

d)

Down syndrome

5.

The space, or barrier, located between the blood in the capillaries and the gas in the alveolus is called the

a)

lung membrane

b)

respiratory membrane

c)

pleural membrane

d)

breathing membrane

6.

The period of growth where secondary sex characteristics usually develop most rapidly

a)

childhood

b)

adolescence

c)

puberty

d)

adulthood

7.

Senescence is most often associated with which period of growth?

a)

infancy

b)

adolescence

c)

adulthood

d)

older adulthood

8.

A common cause of blindness in the older individual, this disorder is characterized by increased intraocular pressure (increased pressure in the eyeball):

a)

glaucoma

b)

cataracts

c)

presbyopia

d)

retinopathy

9.

The postnatal period involves what timeframe?

a)

before birth

b)

from birth to childhood

c)

from birth to adulthood

d)

from birth to death

10.

The precursor cells (stem cells) of the sperm are called:

a)

spermatids

b)

spermatogonia

c)

primary spermocytes

d)

spermatogenesis

11.

Chemical substances that prevent a sharp change in the pH of a fluid when an acid or base is added to it

a)

capillaries

b)

ions

c)

electrolytes

d)

buffers

12.

Which structure(s) are considered the essential organ(s) of the male reproductive system?

a)

testes

b)

epididymis

c)

penis

d)

all are considered essential

13.

Which organ is considered the male gonad?

a)

testes

b)

scrotum

c)

penis

d)

vas (ductus) deferens

14.

The testes produces which hormone?

a)

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

b)

follicle stimulating hormone

c)

luteinizing hormone

d)

testosterone

15.

Which 2 hormones are released from the posterior pituitary?

a)

antidiuretic hormone and growth hormone

b)

antidiuretic hormone and luteinizing hormone

c)

antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

d)

antidiuretic hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone

16.

The sex, or reproductive cells, of each parent are called:

a)

gametes

b)

gonads

c)

ovum

d)

sperm

17.

The first cell of fertilization is referred to as the:

a)

gamete

b)

zygote

c)

morula

d)

blastocyst

18.

Sodium (Na+) over 145 mEq/L

(or 145mEq/L <)

a)

hypernatremia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

hyponatremia

d)

hypercalcemia

19.

Where in the testes is testosterone produced?

a)

seminiferous tubules

b)

epididymis

c)

interstitial cells

d)

acrosome

20.

Which hormone, produced by the ovary, is secreted at the highest levels at the time of ovulation?

a)

follicle stimulating hormone

b)

luteinizing hormone

c)

estrogen

d)

progesterone

21.

The majority of seminal fluid, or semen, comes from which structure?

a)

seminiferous tubules

b)

seminal vesicles

c)

prostate gland

d)

bulbourethral (Cowper) glands

22.

Which structure produces about 30% of the total seminal fluid? (Hint: the male urethra passes through this donut-shaped structure)

a)

seminal vesicles

b)

bulbourethral glands

c)

prostate gland

d)

penis

23.

The erectile tissue located in the shaft of the penis which surrounds the urethra is known as the:

a)

corpus cavernosa

b)

corpus spongiosum

c)

corpus erectus

24.

A decreased ability to reproduce

a)

oligospermia

b)

infertility

c)

sterility

d)

cryptorchidism

25.

Second leading cause of cancer in men

a)

lung cancer

b)

testicular cancer

c)

prostate cancer

d)

rectal cancer

26.

The female gonads are called the:

a)

ova

b)

ovaries

c)

vagina

d)

uterus

27.

Which of the following "fluid compartments" makes up the majority of the body's fluid percentage?

a)

plasma

b)

lymph

c)

intracellular

d)

interstitial

28.

What hormone(s) is/are produced by the ovaries?

a)

estrogen

b)

progesterone

c)

oxtocin

d)

estrogen & progesterone

29.

The term for an immature female sex cell:

a)

ova

b)

polar body

c)

oocyte

d)

oogenesis

30.

Which term describes a female sex cell, present at maturity, that is lined with granulosa cells?

a)

oocyte

b)

primary follicle

c)

secondary follicle

d)

ova

31.

The process where a mature follicle releases an ovum for potential fertilization:

a)

oogenesis

b)

ovulation

c)

menarche

32.

Which hormone peaks during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

a)

follicle stimulating hormone

b)

luteinizing hormone

c)

estrogen

d)

progesterone

33.

What term describes the group of conditions characterized by benign lumps in one or both breasts?

a)

fibrocystic disease

b)

mammary dysplasia

c)

both answers are correct

34.

What tissue type lines the alveoli in the lungs where gas exchange occurs?

a)

stratified squamous epithelium

b)

simple squamous epithelium

c)

ciliated cuboidal epithelium

d)

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

35.

This disorder is characterized by irregular or excessive uterine bleeding, usually from a hormonal imbalance or some structural problem that disrupts blood supply. Affects 2 mil fems per yr in US

a)

dysmenorrhea

b)

amenorrhea

c)

dysfunctional uterine bleeding

d)

premenstrual syndrome

36.

The muscles, gonads, kidneys, and dermis of the skin are all examples of organs that are derived from which germ layer?

a)

ectoderm

b)

mesoderm

c)

endoderm

37.

Sexually transmitted diseases are an example of:

a)

exogenous infections

b)

endogenous infections

c)

nosocomial infections

38.

During prolonged exercise of hot weather, our primary mode of water output is through

a)

sweating

b)

urine

c)

respiration

d)

water in feces

39.

The most common cause of female infertility, this disorder is characterized by enlarged ovaries with fluid-filled cysts. It affects the entire endocrine system:

a)

pelvic inflammatory disease

b)

fibromyoma

c)

polycystic ovary syndrome

d)

endometriosis

40.

The prenatal phase that lasts from week 3 after fertilization to the end of week 8 is known as the:

a)

blastocyst phase

b)

embryonic phase

c)

fetal phase

d)

gestation phase

41.

The epidermis, lens and cornea of the eye, facial bones, brain and spinal cord are all examples of organs derived from which germ layer?

a)

ectoderm

b)

mesoderm

c)

endoderm

42.

The birthing process is also known as:

a)

gestation

b)

cesarean

c)

parturition

d)

micturition

43.

The linings of our lungs, GI tract, the anterior pituitary, thymus, and thyroid glands are all organs that are derived from which germ layer?

a)

ectoderm

b)

mesoderm

c)

endoderm

44.

What is a common symptom of hiatal hernia?

a)

gastric ulcer

b)

gastroesophageal reflux disease

c)

Barrett esophagus

d)

dental caries

45.

The splitting of embryonic tissue from the same zygote early in development will result in what?

a)

placentae abruptio

b)

identical twins

c)

fraternal twins

d)

spontaneous abortion

46.

Fraternal twins are also known as:

a)

monozygotic twins

b)

dizygotic twins

c)

mono-morula twins

d)

di-morula twins

47.

Radiation exposure, toxic chemical exposure, and infections are all examples of

a)

birth defects

b)

mutagens

c)

teratogens

d)

pathogens

48.

All the chromosomes, except our sex chromosomes, are referred to as:

a)

gametes

b)

proteomes

c)

autosomes

d)

pseudogenes

49.

The science that describes how environmental and behavioral factors may result in offspring with genetic traits:

a)

genomics

b)

proteomics

c)

principle of independent assortment

d)

epigenetics

50.

What structure of the tooth lines each tooth socket and anchors the tooth to bone?

a)

dentin

b)

root canal

c)

crown

d)

periodontal membrane

51.

Which term describes the tube the permits the sperm to exit the epididymis and pass from the scrotal sac to the pelvic cavity?

a)

urethra

b)

external urinary meatus

c)

vas (ductus) deferens

d)

ejaculatory duct

52.

An individual mutant gene that is passed from one generation to the next is called a:

a)

inheritance disorder

b)

mutagen

c)

single-gene disorder

d)

chromosomal disorder

53.

How long does the neonatal period last after birth?

a)

first 2 weeks

b)

first 4 weeks

c)

first 8 weeks

d)

first year

54.

radioactive seeds are inserted locally near a tumor, reducing any radiation exposure to surrounding, healthy tissue

a)

hypospadias

b)

phimosis

c)

brachytherapy

d)

immunotherapy

55.

Movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion (examples are peristalsis and segmentation)

a)

ingestion

b)

digestion

c)

motility

d)

elimination

56.

Which primary mechanism of the digestive tract coordinates the digestive activity (motility, secretion, etc)?

a)

ingestion

b)

absorption

c)

elimination

d)

regulation

57.

A rhythmic, wavelike contraction of the gut wall caused by repeating waves of ring-like contraction along the circular muscle of the muscularis layer is called:

a)

segmentation

b)

peristalsis

c)

serosa

d)

bolus

58.

The serosa is the outer most covering of the digestive tube, and in the abdominal cavity, it is also called

a)

greater omentum

b)

mesentery

c)

visceral peritoneum

d)

parietal peritoneum

59.

What structure prevents food and liquid from entering the nasal cavities?

a)

frendulum

b)

uvula

c)

epiglottis

d)

papillae

60.

Alternating contraction of fibers of the muscularis within a single region of the GI tract that produces a 'back-and-forth' movement is called:

a)

segmentation

b)

peristalsis

c)

bolus

d)

ingestion

61.

Which of our salivary glands is the largest?

(Hint: It secretes a solution containing NaHCO3 that helps neutralize bacterial acids)

a)

parotid gland

b)

submandibular gland

c)

sublingual gland

d)

thymus gland

62.

The single layer of simple epithelial cells found in the alveolus which function in gas exchange are called

a)

type A cells

b)

type B cells

c)

type 1 cells

d)

type 2 cells

63.

The swallowing of a mass of chewed food is called

a)

ingestion

b)

deglutition

c)

bolus

d)

motility

64.

Regulation of voluntary swallowing occurs in the cerebrum. Where does regulation of involuntary or impulse swallowing occur?

a)

cerebellum and pons

b)

cerebellum and medulla

c)

pons and medulla

d)

pons and midbrain

65.

The effects of this type of gene are capable of masking the effects of other genes

a)

dominant gene

b)

recessive gene

c)

codominant gene

d)

mutagen

66.

Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall in a pregnancy of 20 wks or longer

a)

ectopic pregnancy

b)

placenta previa

c)

preeclampsia

d)

abruptio placentae

67.

What type of pathogenic organism is most often the cause of gastric and duodenal ulcers?

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

prion

d)

fungus

68.

Which type of medication is most likely to cause a gastric or duodenal ulcer?

a)

acetaminophen

b)

beta blocker

c)

ibuprofen

d)

bismuth subsalicylate

69.

Excessive alcohol consumption, use of chewing tobacco, and eating heavily preserved foods increase the risk of

a)

enteritis

b)

stomach cancer

c)

esophageal varices

d)

ascites

70.

The inner lining of the small intestines which is made up of thousands of villi (and microvilli) is called __________

a)

lacteals

b)

mesentery

c)

plicae

d)

rugae

71.

Lymphatic capillaries embedded in the villi of the small intestines that function to absorb fats are called ___________

a)

lacteals

b)

mesentery

c)

plicae

d)

rugae

72.

What disorder involves a deficit of digestive enzymes or bile salts?

a)

gastroenteritis

b)

malabsorption syndrome

c)

maldigestion

d)

cholelithiasis

73.

A group of symptoms resulting from the failure of the small intestines to absorb nutrients properly is ________?

a)

gastroenteritis

b)

malabsorption syndrome

c)

maldigestion

d)

cholelithiasis

74.

This liver disease causes inflammation and is viral. It is associated with transfusion of contaminated blood or IV drug use. There is no vaccine.

a)

cirrhosis

b)

hepatitis A

c)

hepatitis B

d)

hepatitis C

75.

Inflammation of the large intestines is called:

a)

colitis

b)

enteritis

c)

hepatitis

d)

pancreatitis

76.

______ refers to homeostasis or relative consistency of normal electrolyte levels in the body's fluids

a)

fluid balance

b)

electrolyte balance

c)

electrolyte

d)

negative feedback

77.

Endocrine diseases are usually a result of hormone

a)

hypersecretion

b)

hyposecretion

c)

hyper- or hypo-secretion

d)

none of these mechanisms

78.

Breaking down nutrient molecules into smaller molecules and the energy released during this process is referred to as

a)

assimilation

b)

anabolism

c)

catabolism

d)

glycolysis

79.

The dissociated particles of an electrolyte

(Hint: they carry either a + or - charge)

a)

solutes

b)

ions

c)

hormones

d)

solutes

80.

The hormone which acts as an antagonist to calcitonin is

a)

triiodothyronine

b)

thyroxin

c)

parathyroid hormone/ parathormone

d)

prolactin

81.

Which of the following individuals would typically have the highest percentage of water per body weight?

a)

baby

b)

25 yo female

c)

25 yo male

d)

75 yo female

82.

The extracellular fluid compartment is made up of all of the following except:

a)

plasma

b)

interstitial fluid and lymph

c)

transcellular fluid

d)

all are part of the extracellular fluid

83.

The intracellular fluid compartment makes up what percentage of the body's distribution of water?

a)

approx 10%

b)

approx 35%

c)

approx 65%

d)

approx 90%

84.

During normal temperature, our primary water output is from

a)

sweating

b)

urine

c)

respiration

d)

water in feces

85.

If a patient is in metabolic acidosis (uncompensated), they will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

86.

This hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and promotes water reabsorption from the kidney tubule back into the blood

(Hint: it assists in reducing fluid output)

a)

norepinephrine

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

aldosterone

d)

atrial natriuretic hormone

87.

Which organ is responsible for metabolic imbalances?

a)

lung

b)

kidney

c)

heart

d)

liver

88.

This hormone is released by the adrenal cortex and increases Na+ reabsorption by the kidney tubules

(Hint: it reduces water output from body)

a)

norepinephrine

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

aldosterone

d)

atrial natriuretic hormone

89.

This hormone promotes Na + (and therefore water) loss from the blood to kidney tubules

(Hint: it acts as a diuretic)

a)

norepinephrine

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

aldosterone

d)

atrial natriuretic hormone

90.

The fluid imbalance seen most often clinically is

a)

hypocalcemia

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

overhydration

d)

dehydration

91.

When capillary blood pressure increases at the arterial side of the interstitial capillary bed, what will result?

a)

decreased fluid exchange at interstitial level

b)

fluid balance between blood and interstitial tissue

c)

increased fluid exchange at interstitial level

d)

no change will occur

92.

Severe and repetitive vomiting can result in

a)

respiratory alkalosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

metabolic acidosis

d)

respiratory acidosis

93.

Which electrolyte imbalance would likely present with cardiac dysrhythmia and GI (gastrointestinal) motility problems

a)

hyponatremia

b)

hypercalcemia

c)

hypernatremia

d)

hypokalemia

94.

The Chvostek sign, an abnormal spasm of facial muscles, is seen in which electrolyte imbalance?

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hyponatremia

c)

hypocalcemia

d)

hypokalemia

95.

Which of the following is not a pH control mechanism for the body?

a)

buffer mechanism in blood

b)

GI (gastrointestinal) mechanism

c)

respiratory mechanism

d)

urinary mechanism

96.

What enzyme, located in the RBCs, assists in the formation of carbonic acid (H2CO3)?

a)

carbonic anhydrase

b)

hemoglobin

c)

lactase

d)

lipase

97.

The pH scale ranges from

a)

0 to 12

b)

0 to 14

c)

1 to 15

d)

0-15

98.

A patient in metabolic alkalosis will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

99.

The more hydroxide (OH-) ions a substance has, the more _____ it is and the ______ it will be on the pH scale.

a)

basic/ alkaline,

higher

b)

acidic,

higher

c)

basic/alkaline,

lower

d)

acidic, lower

100.

The main buffer pair your book discusses is

a)

sodium bicarbonate and carbonic acid

b)

sodium bicarbonate and hydroxide

c)

hydrogen and hydroxide

d)

sodium chloride and carbonic acid

101.

After gas is exchanged in the lungs, the blood, the blood has fewer H+ ions, and therefore is a ______ pH than deoxygenated blood entering pulmonary circulation

a)

lower

b)

bigger

c)

neutral

d)

higher

102.

The term used to describe the effect of an increase in capillary blood pressure, with the result of a transfer of fluid from the blood to the interstitial fluid is called

a)

homeostasis

b)

fluid shift

c)

fluid swing

d)

blood flow

103.

The optimal pH range for human function

a)

7.35-7.45 pH

b)

6.5-9.5 pH

c)

7.0-8.0 pH

d)

5.5-7.5 pH

104.

Normal calcium ranges in the blood

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

3.5-5.1 mEq/L

c)

4.2-5.25 mEq/L

d)

7.35-7.45 pH

105.

Alkalosis is a term used to describe arterial blood with a pH of greater than:

a)

7

b)

7.45

c)

8

d)

8.35

106.

Acidic substances in the blood that results from excessive metabolism of fats are called

a)

ketone bodies

b)

ketone ions

c)

ketoacdiosis

d)

ketone nonelectrolytes

107.

Respiratory alkalosis will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

108.

A patient with carbonic acid (H2CO3) excess is experiencing

a)

metabolic acidosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

respiratory acidosis

d)

respiratory alkalosis

109.

A patient in respiratory acidosis will have

a)

bicarbonate deficit

b)

bicarbonate excess

c)

carbonic acid deficit

d)

carbonic acid excess

110.

Normal sodium range in blood

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

3.5- 5.1 mEq/L

c)

4.2-5.25 mEq/L

d)

7.35-7.45 pH

111.

Which organ is responsible for bicarbonate imbalances?

a)

lung

b)

kidney

c)

heart

d)

liver

112.

Normal potassium (K+) range in blood

a)

136-145 mEq/L

b)

3.5-5.1 mEq/L

c)

4.2-5.25 mEq/L

d)

7.35-7.45 pH

113.

Exchange of gases at the alveolar level occurs by which transport process?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Dialysis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Filtration

114.

Which of the following structures is not part of the upper respiratory tract?

a)

trachea

b)

larynx

c)

pharynx

d)

nose

115.

The membrane that lines MOST of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory system is:

a)

stratified squamous epithelium

b)

ciliated cuboidal epithelium

c)

simple columnar epithelium

d)

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

116.

The _________ is a membrane that lines most of the air distribution tubes in the respiratory system ( It is made up primarily of ciliated pseudostratified epithelium)

a)

lung mucosa

b)

respiratory liquid

c)

respiratory mucosa

d)

ciliary mucosa

117.

Which of the following organs is not considered part of the lower respiratory tract?

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchus

c)

trachea

d)

larynx

118.

The _______ ducts collect tears from the corner of each eyelid and drain into the nasal cavity

a)

lacrimal

b)

nasal

c)

ethmoid

d)

conchae

119.

The 3 shelf-like structures located on each side of the nasal cavity which function to warm and humidify air, are known as

a)

turbinates

b)

conchae

c)

nasal turbinates and/or conchae

d)

no answer is correct

120.

The ________ connect the middle ears to the nasopharynx and permits equalization of pressure within the ear

a)

sphenoid tubes

b)

ethmoid tubes

c)

auditory tubes

d)

nasal tubes

121.

The substance which reduces surface tension in the alveoli and keeps alveoli from collapsing during respiration is known as

a)

mucus

b)

mucosa

c)

surfactant

d)

water

122.

Masses of ________ tissue make up tonsils

a)

skeletal

b)

muscle

c)

nervous

d)

lymphoid

123.

Another term for auditory tubes is:

a)

eustachian tubes

b)

equestrian tubes

c)

hearing tubes

d)

nasal tubes

124.

Excessive alcohol consumption, use of chewing tobacco, and eating heavily preserved foods increase the risk of

a)

enteritis

b)

stomach cancer

c)

esophageal varices

d)

ascites

125.

The voice box is also called the

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

trachea

d)

esophagus

126.

Regulation of voluntary swallowing occurs in the cerebrum. Where does regulation of involuntary or impulse swallowing occur?

a)

cerebellum and pons

b)

cerebellum and medulla

c)

pons and medulla

d)

pons and midbrain

127.

'Hay fever' and 'runny nose' are two examples of

a)

rhinitis

b)

pharyngitis

c)

laryngitis

d)

epiglottitis

128.

The neurologic control center of breathing RATE is located where?

a)

cortex

b)

midbrain

c)

pons

d)

medulla

129.

The space between the vocal cords that changes shape when we speak is the

a)

glottis

b)

larynx

c)

epistaxis

d)

diaphragm

130.

Surfactant, located in the alveoli, is made by what type of cell?

a)

type A cell

b)

type B cell

c)

type 1 cell

d)

type 2 cell