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Biology semester 2 Final

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The theory of evolution by natural selection requires that which three

conditions are met?

a)

1. Phenotypic variation must exist in the population

b)

2. This variation must lead to differences among individuals

in a lifetime reproductive success

c)

3. Phenotypic variation among individuals must be

genetically transmissible to the next generation

2.

What is industrial melanism?

a)

Industrial melanism is a phrase that it is used to describe the

evolutionary process in which initially light-colored organisms

become dark as a result of natural selection environments.

b)
Industrial melanism is the term used to describe animals losing their ability to camouflage in polluted areas.
c)
Industrial melanism is the result of animals adapting to urban environments by becoming smaller in size.
d)
Industrial melanism is the process of animals turning white in industrial areas.
3.

Where is the most direct evidence that evolution has occurred found in?

a)
Genetic drift
b)
Fossil record
c)
Creationism
d)
Natural selection
4.

Today, geologists can determine the exact age of rocks/fossils through isotopic dating,

How does this process work?

a)
  1. 1. When a rock/fossil is newly formed, some of the elements exist as a particular isotope

b)
  1. 2. Overtime, that element goes through radioactive decay, creating a brand new isotope

c)

3. Scientists measure the ratio of the old isotope to the new isotope to get an accurate age

5.

How do we still have a good understanding of the evolution?

a)
By asking a magic eight ball
b)

because there are intermediate organism forms that can give us more

information about how the major transitions in life occurred.

c)
Based on ancient myths and legends
d)
Through astrology and horoscopes
6.

similar structures that have the same

evolutionary origin are known as _

a)
Homologous structures
b)
Analogous structures
c)
Parallel structures
d)
Convergent structures
7.

a morphological feature that has no

apparent current function and is thought to be an evolutionary

relic resembling structures that their ancestors possessed is known as _ structures

a)

Obsolete structures

b)

Outdated structures

c)

Primitive structures

d)

Vestigial structures

8.

the study of the geographic distribution of

species is called _

a)
Biogeography
b)
Speciesology
c)
Geographyology
d)
Biologygraphy
9.

Why does natural selection have favored parallel evolutionary adaptation

in similar environments?

a)

Because parallel evolution is a random process with no specific reason for favoring similar adaptations.

b)

Because selection has made changes that makes these two groups more alike, their phenotypes have converged

c)

Because different environmental pressures lead to similar advantageous traits being selected for in different populations.

d)

Because similar environments result in genetic mutations that are identical across different populations.

10.

What two groups of mammals has the best known case

of convergent evolution occurred between?

a)
lions and tigers
b)
whales and dolphins
c)
dogs and cats
d)

marsupials and placentals

11.

What is the difference between species and population?

a)
Species are a group of organisms that can't interbreed, while population refers to a group of individuals of different species in a specific area.
b)
Species are a group of individuals of the same species in a specific area, while population refers to a group of organisms that can interbreed.
c)
Species are a group of organisms that can interbreed, while population refers to a single organism in a specific area.
d)

Species is a group of organisms that are similar in appearance & able to interbreed. Population is a group of organisms of the same species living

in the same place

12.

What is Sympatric speciation?

a)
Sympatric speciation is the process of species evolving in separate geographic regions.
b)
Sympatric speciation occurs when species interbreed and create hybrids.
c)

Sympatric speciation is the differentiation of populations within a common geographic area into specific species

d)
Sympatric speciation involves the movement of species to different continents.
13.

The concept that defines species as

groups of populations that have the potential to interbreed and

that are reproductively isolated from other groups is known as ?

a)
Evolutionary Species Concept
b)
Ecological Species Concept
c)
Taxonomic Species Concept
d)
Biological Species Concept
14.

The biological species concept focuses on the ability to exchange genes through which of the following? (select all that apply)

a)

Ecological isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Temporal isolation

d)

Mechanical isolation

e)

Prevention of gamete fusion

15.

What is the ecological species concept?

a)

An alternative species concept that

proposes that the distinctions among species are there due to natural selection

b)
A species defined by its genetic makeup.
c)
A species defined by its reproductive isolation.
d)
A species defined by its geographic distribution.
16.

What are the two parts to the speciation process?

a)
Prezygotic speciation and postzygotic speciation
b)

Initially identical populations must diverge, and Reproductive isolation must evolve to maintain the

differences

c)
Parallel speciation and divergent speciation
d)
Microevolution and macroevolution
17.

What is Allopatric population?

a)
Populations of different species that are geographically isolated from one another.
b)
Populations of the same species that are in close proximity to each other.
c)
Populations of the same species that are genetically identical.
d)

Populations that are identical in looks

18.

A condition in which one or more entire sets of

chromosomes are added to the diploid genome is known as ?

a)
Polyploidy
b)
Haploidy
c)
Triploidy
d)
Monoploidy
19.

What is allopolyploidy?

a)

A polyploid organism that contains the genomes of two or more different species

b)

A polyploid resulting from environmental factors

c)

A polyploid resulting from asexual reproduction

d)

A polyploid resulting from the mutation of a single species

20.

How are prokaryotes fundamentally different from eukaryotes? (Select all that apply)

a)

Unicellularity & Cell Size

b)

Cell division and genetic recombination

c)

Nucleoid & Flagella

d)

Internal compartmentalization

e)

Pili & Metabolic diversity

21.

Archaeal membrane lipids are composed of glycerol which are

linked to hydrocarbon chains by _

a)
ether bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
peptide bonds
d)
ester bonds
22.

What are the "Three domains of life"?

a)
Mammals, Reptiles, Birds
b)
Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
c)
Plants, Animals, Fungi
d)
Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, Multicellular organisms
23.

A cell wall, if present in bacteria, is complex and consists of many

layers of _

a)
layers of cellulose
b)
layers of protein
c)
peptidoglycan
d)
layers of sugar
24.

The structure of the bacterial cell wall separates all bacteria into

which two groups?

a)
Gram-positive and Gram-negative
b)
Round and Rod-shaped
c)
Aerobic and Anaerobic
d)
Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
25.

What is gram staining?

a)
A method for measuring the weight of bacteria
b)
A technique for identifying viruses in a sample
c)
A process for determining the age of bacterial cells
d)

A staining technique that divides bacteria into gram-negative

or gram-positive based on retention of a violet dye

26.

How does gram- positive bacteria stain?

a)

A thicker peptidoglycan wall and will stain blue

b)

A thicker peptidoglycan wall and will stain

purple

c)

A thinner peptidoglycan wall and will stain yellow

d)

A thinner peptidoglycan wall and will stain green

27.

How does gram- negative bacteria show when stained?

a)

More peptidoglycan and does not retain

the purple-colored dye, will appear blue or green

b)

More peptidoglycan and does not retain

the purple-colored dye, will appear yellow or orange

c)

Less peptidoglycan and does not retain

the purple-colored dye, will appear pink or black

d)

Less peptidoglycan and does not retain

the purple-colored dye ,will appear dark pink or red

28.

True or False: The difference between gram- negative and gram- positive bacteria is that Gram-positive bacteria will have a thick, complex network of peptidoglycan around the outer surface of the cell, while Gram-negative bacteria, there is only a thin layer of

peptidoglycan sandwiched between the plasma membrane and a

second outer membrane.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

How do Prokaryotes reproduce?

a)

Sexually

b)

Asexually

30.

What is conjugation?

a)
The process of converting RNA into protein
b)
The process of creating new species through genetic recombination
c)

Temporary union of two unicellular organisms, during which genetic material is transferred from one cell to the other

d)
The process of breaking down food into energy in cells
31.

What is transformation in biology?

a)
Changing the color of a plant's leaves
b)
The process of photosynthesis in plants
c)

The uptake of DNA directly from the

environment

d)
The movement of animals from one place to another
32.

The process by which viruses can transfer

genetic material from one bacterial host to another is known as _

a)
transduction
b)
osmosis
c)
conjugation
d)
photosynthesis
33.

In order to grow, every organism needs:

a)
nutrients, water, and energy
b)

Protein for “building”, A source of hydrocarbon to use in redox reactions, & Energy for anaerobic processes

c)
minerals, exercise, and rest
d)

Carbon for “building”, A source of electrons to use in redox reactions, & Energy for anabolic processes

34.

Nutrient cycling involves what two processes?

a)
Photosynthesis and respiration
b)
Erosion and sedimentation
c)
Evaporation and condensation
d)

Decomposition and fixation

35.

Carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfur, and other elements present

in biological organisms come from the physical environment. When those organisms die, the elements are returned to the environment. This process is done by _

a)
Predators
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Producers
36.

In order for bacteria to cause disease in humans, what few things have to

happen?

a)
Adhere to the host, colonize, and produce antitoxins
b)
Adhere to the host, colonize, and produce vaccines
c)

Establish an infection, Evade the immune system to proliferate, and cause direct tissue damage OR release toxins that cause harm, revoke an inflammatory response that causes harm

d)
Adhere to the host, colonize, and produce antibodies
37.

What three STI's are caused by bacteria?

a)
pubic lice, scabies, and molluscum contagiosum
b)
herpes, HPV, and HIV
c)
chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis
d)
hepatitis B, trichomoniasis, and genital warts
38.

A theory that suggests that at an important stage of

evolution, an energy-producing bacteria was living inside of a larger

bacteria or archaebacteria, evolving into

what we know as mitochondria is known as the _

a)
cell division theory
b)
big bang theory
c)
photosynthesis theory
d)
endosymbiotic theory
39.

What is the main type of movement among protists?

a)
Flying
b)

Flagellar rotation, or pseudopods

c)
Swimming
d)
Walking
40.

What is a sporophyte?

a)
The sporophyte is the male reproductive structure in plants.
b)
The sporophyte is the haploid multicellular phase in the life cycle of a plant or alga.
c)
The sporophyte is the process of photosynthesis in plants.
d)

The spore-producing, diploid (2n) phase in the life cycle of a plant having alternation of generations.

41.

In plants, the haploid (n), gamete-producing

generation, which alternates with the diploid (2n) sporophyte. These are known as _

a)
gametophytes
b)
sporophytes
c)
embryophytes
d)
zygotes
42.

What produces gametes by

mitotic cell division and form at the

tips of the gametophytes?

a)
Gametangia
b)
Antheridia
c)
Sporophyte
d)
Archegonia
43.

What is an Archegonia?

a)

Female gametangia,

produces a single egg on the swollen lower part

b)
Structures involved in respiration
c)
Photosynthetic structures in plants
d)
Single-celled structures producing eggs
44.

A male gametangia,

produces multiple, flagellated

sperm is called _

a)
stigma
b)
carpel
c)
antheridium
d)
ovary
45.

A seed plant with seeds not

enclosed in an ovary is known as a _

a)
angiosperm
b)
nonvascular plant
c)
gymnosperm
d)
monocot
46.

True or false: The male cones develop in clusters at the lower branches and

produce seeds, while the female cones can also develop in clusters, but at a much

lower number, on the higher branches and produce the pollen.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What are the three major regions of a carpel?

a)
petal
b)
stigma, style, ovary
c)
filament
d)
anther
48.

Angiosperms have ovules that are

enclosed in a diploid tissue at the time

of pollination. They also have a modified leaf that

encapsulates the seed, called the

carpel. What happens to this leaf?

a)

It will develop into a fruit, which makes it a unique angiosperm feature.

b)
It withers and falls off before fertilization.
c)
It remains unchanged throughout the plant's life cycle.
d)
It transforms into a stem structure.
49.

The enlarged basal portion of a carpel that contains

the ovule(s); the ovary matures to become the fruit is called the _

a)
Stigma
b)
Style
c)
Pistil
d)
Ovary
50.

What is the stigma ?

a)

The part of the plant that produces nectar.

b)

The region of a carpel that serves as a receptive surface

for pollen grains, usually sticky to trap the pollen

c)

The male reproductive organ responsible for pollen production.

d)

The outer protective layer of the petals.

51.

The slender column of tissue that arises from the top of

the ovary and through which the pollen tube grows, connects

the stigma and the ovary is known as which part of the flower?

a)
Sepal
b)
Pistil
c)
Style
d)
Stamen
52.

The fusion of the egg and sperm (resulting in a 2n

fertilized egg, the zygote) and the simultaneous fusion of the second

male gamete with the polar nuclei (resulting in a primary endosperm

nucleus, which is often triploid, 3n) is known as _?

a)
Single fertilization
b)
Double fertilization
c)
Triple fertilization
d)
Multiple fertilization
53.

What happens during double fertilization?

a)

1. One sperm units with the egg and forms into a zygote

○ This will develop into an embryo sporophyte plant.

b)

2. The other sperm and the two polar nuclei unite, forming a

triploid (3n) primary endosperm nucleus

○ Usually provides nutrients for the embryo

54.

Seeds are an important adaptation in what four ways?

a)

1. Seeds maintain dormancy under unfavorable conditions and

can postpone development until better conditions arise.

b)

2. Seeds provided maximum protection to the young plant at its most vulnerable stage.

c)

3. Seeds contain stored food that allows a young plant to grow before it can do photosynthesis.

d)

4. Seed are adapted for dispersal which helps migrate the plant genotypes into new habitats.

55.

primarily the epidermis, usually one cell layer

thick in most plants, forms the outer protective covering for the

plant is known as the _

a)
cuticle
b)

Dermal tissue

c)

Vascular tissue

d)

Ground tissue

56.

Cells that function is storage, photosynthesis, and

secretion; can also form fibers for extra support and protection are known as _

a)

Dermal tissue

b)

Ground tissue

c)

Vascular tissue

d)
meristematic cells
57.

What is vascular tissue?

a)
Vascular tissue is a type of muscle tissue found in animals
b)
Vascular tissue is only found in non-vascular plants
c)
Vascular tissue is responsible for photosynthesis in plants
d)

Vascular tissue conducts fluids and dissolved substances

throughout the plant

58.

What is the Meristem?

a)

Meristem is undifferentiated plant tissue from which new cells

arise.

b)
Meristem is a type of cloud formation in the sky.
c)
Meristem is a type of rock formation found in deserts.
d)
Meristem is a type of animal tissue responsible for growth and development.
59.

Apical meristems create which three primary meristem tissue systems?

a)

Protoderm - forms the epidermis

b)

Procambium - forms primary vascular tissue

c)

Ground meristem - differentiates into ground tissue

60.

The exterior primary tissue of leaves, young stems,

and roots are called the _

a)
dermis
b)
cuticle
c)
cortex
d)
epidermis
61.

A waxy or fatty, noncellular layer on the outer wall

of epidermal cells to prevent excess water loss is called the _

a)
cuticle
b)
barrier
c)
shield
d)
membrane
62.

What are guard cells?

a)

Guard cells are one of a pair of sausage-shaped cells flanking a stoma; the guard cells open and close the stomata; contain

chloroplasts

b)
Guard cells are found in animal tissues
c)
Guard cells are located in the roots of plants
d)
Guard cells are responsible for photosynthesis in plants
63.

What are Trichomes?

a)
Trichomes are found only in deserts
b)
Trichomes are aquatic animals
c)
Trichomes are a type of mineral
d)

Trichomes are hair like outgrowth from an epidermal cell; glandular trichomes secrete oils or other substances that deter insects

64.

What are root hairs?

a)

Root hairs are area tubular extension from an epidermal cell located

just behind the root tip; root hairs greatly increase the surface area for absorption

b)
Root hairs are a type of fungi that grow on plant roots.
c)
Root hairs are responsible for anchoring the plant in the soil.
d)
Root hairs are used for photosynthesis in plants.
65.

What is the most common type of plant cell?

a)
Meristematic cell
b)
Sclerenchyma cell
c)
Parenchyma cell
d)
Xylem cell
66.

Collenchyma cells are the cells that form a supporting tissue

called collenchyma. What do these cells function in?

a)

storage, photosynthesis, and secretion

b)
muscle contraction
c)
photosynthesis
d)
nutrient absorption
67.

Sclerenchyma cells are tough, thick-walled cells that

strengthen plant tissues. What do these cells function in?

a)

storage, photosynthesis, and secretion

b)

support and protection

c)
aid in photosynthesis
d)
facilitate water transport
68.

A tissue structure at the growing tips of roots that protects

the root apical meristem as the root pushes through the soil; cells of

the root cap are continually lost and replaced is called the _

a)
Root Cap
b)
Root Guard
c)
Root Shield
d)
Root Cover
69.

What is the Zone of cell division?

a)
Area in animal cells where division occurs
b)
Segment of a cell where growth happens
c)
Region in plant stems where cells divide
d)

The part of the young root that includes the root apical meristem and the cells just posterior to it; cells in this zone divide every 12–36 hr

70.

What is the Zone of elongation?

a)
Area in plant stems where cells actively elongate
b)
Region in animal cells where cells actively divide
c)
Zone in plant leaves where photosynthesis occurs
d)

Part of the young root that lies just posterior to the zone of cell division; cells in this zone elongate, causing the root to lengthen

71.

What is the Zone of maturation?

a)
Area in the stem where cells divide rapidly
b)
Layer in the leaf where photosynthesis occurs
c)

The part of the root that lies posterior to

the zone of elongation; cells in this zone differentiate into

specific cell types

d)
Zone in the flower where pollen is produced
72.

The primary ground tissue of a stem or root, can be

many cell layers wide, formed of parenchyma cells and function in

food storage is known as the _

a)
epidermis
b)
xylem
c)
phloem
d)
cortex
73.

A single layer of cells forming the innermost layer

of the cortex in roots and some stems, impermeable to water due

to casparian strips is known as the _

a)
phloem
b)
pericycle
c)
endodermis
d)
epidermis
74.

What is the stele?

a)
A stele is a type of musical instrument.
b)
A stele is a type of flower.
c)

The central vascular cylinder of stems and roots, all of the

tissues inside of the endodermis

d)
A stele is a type of food.
75.

What is the pericycle?

a)
A layer of plant tissue located in the leaves of vascular plants.
b)
A layer of plant tissue located in the stem of vascular plants.
c)
A layer of plant tissue located outside the epidermis in the roots of vascular plants.
d)

One or more cell layers surrounding the vascular

tissues of the root, bounded externally by the endodermis and internally by the phloem

76.

What is the difference between nodes and internodes?

a)

Node is the part of a plant stem where one or more leaves are attached, Internode is the region of a stem between two successive nodes

b)
Nodes are underground structures, while internodes are above-ground structures.
c)
Nodes are found in animals, while internodes are found in plants.
d)
Nodes are always longer than internodes.
77.

What is the Axillary bud?

a)

An axillary bud is a bud found in the axil of a stem and leaf; an axillary bud may develop into a new shoot or may become a flower.

b)
An axillary bud is a bud that forms at the tip of the stem.
c)
An axillary bud is a bud that forms on the underside of a leaf.
d)
An axillary bud is a type of root found in plants.
78.

The broad, expanded part of a leaf is called the _

a)
blade
b)
petiole
c)
stem
d)
vein
79.

the stalk of a leaf is called the _

a)
vein
b)
blade
c)
petiole
d)
stem
80.

What are five key innovations can be noted in animal evolution?

a)

Symmetry

b)

Tissues

c)

Body cavity

d)

Various patterns of embryonic development

e)

Segmentation, or repeated body units

81.

What is radial symmetry?

a)
Radial symmetry is a type of symmetry where lines of symmetry intersect at a central point.
b)
Radial symmetry is a type of symmetry where lines of symmetry are parallel to each other.
c)
Radial symmetry is a type of symmetry where lines of symmetry are diagonal to each other.
d)

Radial symmetry is a type of structural symmetry with a circular plan, such that dividing the body or structure through the midpoint

82.

What is bilateral symmetry?

a)
Bilateral symmetry is when an organism can be divided into three equal halves.
b)
Bilateral symmetry is when an organism can be divided into unequal halves.
c)
Bilateral symmetry is when an organism can be divided into multiple planes.
d)

Bilateral symmetry is a single plane divides an organism into two

structural halves that are mirror images of each other.

83.

What are the two main advantages that bilateral symmetry has over radially symmetrical ones?

a)
Improved feeding efficiency
b)
Increased resistance to predators
c)
Enhanced stability and balance
d)

Cephalization and directional movement

84.

Why are Zygotes (fertilized eggs) are totipotent or “all powerful”?

a)
Zygotes are totipotent due to their inability to divide and multiply.
b)
Zygotes are totipotent because they can only differentiate into one specific cell type.
c)

Zygotes are totipotent because they can give rise to all other body cells.

d)
Zygotes are totipotent because they lack the necessary genetic material for differentiation.
85.

Most animals have embryos that produce three germ layers, which

makes them triploblastic. What are the three germ layers?

a)

Outer ectoderm (body coverings and nervous system)

b)

Middle mesoderm (skeleton and muscles)

c)

Inner endoderm (digestive organs and intestines)

86.

What are the three basic kinds of body plans?

a)

Acoelomates (No body cavity)

b)

Pseudocoelomates (Body cavity between mesoderm and endoderm)

c)

Coelomates (Body cavity entirely within the mesoderm, called

the coelom)

87.

What is an open circulatory system?

a)

blood passes from vessels into sinuses

(open areas), mixes with body fluids, and reenters the vessels.

b)

blood flows in a single direction.

c)

blood is pumped directly into the heart.

d)

blood is contained within closed vessels.

88.

What is a closed circulatory system ?

a)

blood is not contained within vessels.

b)

blood directly comes into contact with the body tissues.

c)

blood flows in an open environment.

d)

blood moves continuously through

vessels that are separated from body fluids.

89.

What are differences between protostomes and deuterostomes?

(select all that apply)

a)

Pattern of locomotion

b)

Formation of the coelom

c)

Cleavage pattern of embryonic cells

d)

Developmental fate of cells

90.

Animals are divided into which two main branches?

a)
mammals and reptiles
b)

sponges and eumetazoa

c)
birds and fish
d)
amphibians and arthropods
91.

What are the three functional layers of “tissues” sponges have?

a)

outer epithelium, mesohyl, choanocytes

b)
ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm
c)
exodermis, endodermis, mesodermis
d)
epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
92.

Eumetazoans can either be diploblastic or triploblastic, what is the difference?

a)
Diploblastic organisms have three germ layers
b)
Triploblastic organisms have one germ layer
c)
Diploblastic organisms have four germ layers
d)

Diploblastic: Ctenophora and Cnidaria

Triploblastic: Bilateria

93.

The body plan of a mollusk contains which of the following? ( select all that apply)

a)

Mantle (the soft, outermost layer of the body wall in mollusks)

b)

Secrete shell (if there is one), calcium carbonate

c)

Foot (the primary means of locomotion in mollusks other than cephalopods)

94.

What is the function of the Nephridia?

a)

Removes nitrogenous waste from the mollusk body

b)
Regulate body temperature
c)
Absorb nutrients from the environment
d)
Produce hormones for growth
95.

Most mollusks are gonochoric. What does this mean?

a)

Most mollusks have separate sexes, individuals are

either male or female

b)
Most mollusks reproduce asexually.
c)
Most mollusks are hermaphroditic.
d)

Most mollusks have the same apperance

96.

Annelids have segments in their body plan.

Each segment also has chaetae or bristles of chitin on each body

segment, what do these help with?

a)

They help anchor annelid worms during locomotion

b)
They help with photosynthesis by producing energy
c)
They help with communication by emitting sounds
d)
They help with protection by releasing toxins
97.

Errantia have paired parapodia (paddles) with chaetae, on most

segments, what is this used in?

a)

Used in locomotion or gas exchange by increasing the surface

area of the body

b)

Used in swimming and flying

c)

Used in digestion and respiration

d)

Used in reproduction and communication

98.

What are the three body regions of an insect ?

a)
head, thorax, legs
b)
abdomen, wings, tail
c)
neck, chest, stomach
d)
head, thorax, abdomen
99.

True or false: Echinoderms are bilateral as adults, but pentaradial as larva.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

True or False: In Echinoderms oral surface defines mouth

a)

True

b)

False

101.

What are ossicles?

a)

Any of a number of movable or fixed calcium-rich plates that collectively make up the endoskeleton of echinoderms

b)
Fluid-filled sacs in the ear responsible for balance
c)
Muscles responsible for hearing located in the inner ear
d)
The largest bones in the human body located in the ear canal
102.

Phylum Chordata can be divided into which three subphyla?

a)

Urochordata (Nonvertebrates)

b)

Cephalochordata (Nonvertebrates)

c)

Vertebrata

103.

True or false: Tunicates and salps are marine animals that are

immobile filter-feeders & Lack a major body cavity and any visible sign of

segmentation

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Vertebrates are chordates with a spinal column or vertebrae. They are distinguished by nonvertebrates by which two features?

a)

Vertebral column

(Encloses and protects the dorsal nerve cord, can be bony or cartilaginous)

b)

Head

(Distinct and well-differentiated possessing three pairs of sensory organs, and the brain is encased in the skull, either bony

or cartilaginous)

105.

True or false: Fishes Provided the evolutionary base

for invasion of land by amphibians

a)

True

b)

False

106.

"Their cartilage skeleton is “calcified” with granules of calcium

carbonate making it light and strong."

What class does this apply to?

a)
Mammalia
b)
Reptilia
c)
Osteichthyes
d)
Chondrichthyes
107.

True or false: Sharks were among the first vertebrates to develop teeth.

They evolved from rough scales on mouth’s skin so they are not

set into the jaw like human teeth are

a)

True

b)

False

108.

What is the lateral line system?

a)
A system of organizing files on a computer in a linear fashion
b)

A series of sensory organs under the skin

that detects changes in pressure waves

c)
A type of fishing technique using a line that is cast horizontally
d)
A method of communication used by bees to indicate the location of food sources
109.

What is significant about bony fishes?

a)

They have a heavy internal skeleton made completely of bone.

b)
They have skeletons made of cartilage.
c)
They are warm-blooded.
d)
They live exclusively in freshwater.
110.

True or false: Class Amphibia, amphibians, were the

first vertebrates to walk on land

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Regarding amphibians, The invasion of land required which adaptations?

(select all that apply)

a)

Legs

b)

Lungs to extract oxygen from air

c)

Redesigned heart and circulatory system

d)

Reproduction is still in water to prevent egg drying

e)

System to prevent whole body desiccation

112.

What are the 3 Modern Amphibian Groups?

a)

Order Anura: frogs and toads

b)

Order Caudata: salamanders

c)

Order Apoda: caecilians

113.

What is the difference between frogs and toads?

a)

Frogs have smooth, moist skin and long legs, while toads have dry, bumpy skin and short legs

b)
Frogs have rough, moist skin and short legs for jumping.
c)
Toads have smooth, bumpy skin and long legs for hopping.
d)
Frogs have dry, bumpy skin and short legs for hopping.
114.

Why do frogs and toads lay eggs in water?

a)

They lack watertight external

membranes

b)
To keep the eggs warm in the water.
c)
To provide a food source for aquatic predators.
d)
They prefer the aquatic environment for mating rituals.
115.

A highly specialized group of tropical, burrowing amphibians

known as legless, worm like creatures with small eyes and jaws with

teeth are known as which class?

a)
Platyhelminthes
b)
Nematoda
c)

Order Apoda/ Caecilians

d)
Cestoda
116.

All living reptiles exhibit which three key features?

a)

Amniotic eggs

(which are watertight)

b)

Dry skin

(which covers body and prevents water loss)

c)

Thoracic breathing

(which increases lung capacity)

117.

Modern reptiles developed which two important characteristics?

a)

Internal fertilization

(Sperm fertilizes egg before protective membranes on the

egg are formed)

b)

Improved circulation

(Oxygen is provided to the body more efficiently because the

septum in heart ventricle is extended to create partial wall)

118.

What is the difference between ectothermic and endothermic?

a)
Ectothermic organisms and endothermic organisms both rely on external heat sources.
b)
Ectothermic organisms generate heat internally, while endothermic organisms rely on external heat sources.
c)
Ectothermic organisms and endothermic organisms both generate heat internally.
d)

Ectothermic obtain their heat for their bodies from external sources, while endothermic organisms generate heat internally.

119.

Vascular tissue consists of two kinds of conducting tissues, the xylem and phloem.

What are their roles?

a)
Xylem transports air, Phloem transports water
b)
Xylem transports sugars, Phloem transports water and minerals
c)

Xylem transports water and minerals, Phloem transports dissolved nutrients like sugars from photosynthesis

d)
Xylem transports minerals, Phloem transports water
120.

The tiny opening in the cuticle that allows for the absorption of carbon dioxide and the release of oxygen and water vapor is known as the ?

a)
pores
b)

stoma

c)
chloroplasts
d)
roots
121.

True or False: Anginosperms have ovules that are enclosed

in a diploid tissue at the time of pollination

a)

True

b)

False

122.

What is the angle between a leaf's petiole and the stem to which it is attached?

a)

Axillary Bud

b)

Stem

c)

Axil

d)

Node

123.

What are the four chordate features?

a)

1. Nerve chord

b)

2. Notochord

c)

3. Pharyngeal Slits

d)

4. Postanal tail

124.

What are the five key characteristics all fish exhibit?

a)

1. Vertebral column

b)

2. Hinged jaws

& paired appendages

c)

3. Internal gills

d)

4. Single- loop blood circulation

e)

5. Nutritional deficiencies

125.

What kind of heart do Crocodiles, birds, and mammals have?

a)
Four-chambered heart
b)
No heart
c)
Five-chambered heart
d)
Two-chambered heart