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Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 2hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A carbohydrate is a macromolecule that is used to...

a)

give cells/systems energy.

b)

build cell parts.

c)

give cells/systems long term energy storage.

d)

help cells with chemical processes.

2.

Which of the following elements are found in all macromolecules? (Select all that apply).

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

4.

Nucleic acids make up which of the two molecules listed below?

a)

FDA

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

FDR

5.

Match the MACROMOLECULES and their MONOMERS.

Hint: Monomer = a single unit

a)

carbohydrate

1.

monosaccharide

b)

lipid

2.

fatty acid & glycerol

c)

protein

3.

amino acid

d)

nucleic acid

4.

nucleotide

6.

Match the following MONOMERS and MACROMOLECULES

a)
1.

Nucleic Acid

b)
2.

Protein

c)
3.

Lipid

d)
4.

Carbohydrate

7.

An enzyme is a ______________.

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

8.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
9.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
10.
What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction? 
a)
The reaction rate will increase.
b)
The equilibrium of the reaction will be maintained. 
c)
The reaction rate will decrease.
d)
The reaction will stop. 
11.
Which of the following best explains why enzymes are necessary for many cellular reactions?
a)
Enzymes supply the oxygen necessary for the reactions
b)
 Enzymes change reactants from solid to liquids during the reactions.
c)
The reactions take up too much space in the cell if the enzymes are missing.
d)
The reactions are too slow to meet the needs of the cell if enzymes are missing. 
12.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
13.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
14.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
15.

What is the correct chemical equation for Cellular Respiration?

a)

C6H12O6 (Glucose) + H2O (Water) -----> CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) + H2O (Water) + ATP

b)

C6H12O6 (Glucose) + O2 (Oxygen) -----> CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) + H2O (Water) + ATP

c)

C6H12O6 (Glucose) + O2 (Oxygen) -----> CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) + H2O (Water) + ADP

16.

In what cell organelle does Cellular Respiration take place?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm and mitochondria

d)

nucleus

17.

Do prokaryotic organisms (bacteria) have a mitochondria?

a)

Yes

b)

No

18.

If prokaryotic unicellular living things do not have a mitochondria, where does Cellular Respiration take place?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

19.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
20.
This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen is present.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
light-independent reaction
c)
cellular respiration
d)
light-dependent reaction
21.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
22.
The energy in ATP is stored 
a)
in the bond between the second and third phosphate
b)
in the bond between the first and second phosphate
c)
in the bond between the adenosine and the first phosphate
d)
I like turtles
23.

During photosynthesis ​ (a)   energy is converted into ​ (b)   energy.

Choose from the below words
light
chemical
ATP
electric
24.

What are the three reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

carbon dioxide

e)

light energy

25.

C6H12O6 is the chemical formula for this important molecule made during photosynthesis

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

light energy

26.

What is the organelle responsible for photosynthesis?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cytoplasm

27.

What absorbs the light energy in the light dependent stage?

a)

chloroplast

b)

stroma

c)

chlorophyll

d)

ATP

28.

What is a main product of Photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

ATP

d)

NADPH

29.
Passive transport is called "passive" because it occurs WITHOUT
a)
cause.
b)
energy.
c)
a concentration gradient.
d)
a cell wall.
30.
Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a membrane
a)
glucose
b)
NaCl
c)
proteins
d)
water
31.
Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Endocytosis
32.
Cells sometimes use energy to transport materials across the cell membrane.  This is called
a)

Simple Diffusion

b)
osmosis
c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)
active transport
33.

When the concentration of solutes on both sides of a membrane is the SAME, the solution is

a)
isotonic
b)
hypertonic
c)
hypotonic
34.
A process for removing large quantities toxins and waste from the cell is
a)
exorcism
b)
exocytosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
35.
If there is 25% oxygen inside the cell and 50% oxygen in the outside blood, which direction will the oxygen move?
a)
Out of the cell
b)
Into the cell
c)
The cell is at equilibrium
36.
In the given scenario what will happen to the organism: salt is poured onto eggplant.
a)
Water will move out of the eggplant cells and the cells will shrink.
b)
Water will move out of the eggplant cells and the cells will swell.
c)
Water will move into the eggplant cells and the cells will swell.
37.
An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will
a)
Shrink
b)
Swell
c)
Stay the same
38.
Which type of Passive Transport is being represented in this picture?
a)
Passive Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Diffusion
d)
Facilitated Diffusion
39.

A solution is considered hypertonic to the cell if it has....

a)

A higher amount of water compared to the cell.

b)

A higher amount of solute compared to the cell.

c)

A lower amount of solute compared to the cell.

40.

A solution is considered hypotonic to the cell if it has....

a)

A lower amount of water compared to the cell.

b)

A higher amount of solute compared to the cell.

c)

A lower amount of solute compared to the cell.

41.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
42.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
43.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
44.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
45.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
46.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
47.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
48.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
49.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
50.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
51.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides ("The Builder")?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
52.
Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA?
a)
Each cell must have its own DNA
b)
Less copies of DNA are needed when a new cell is created
c)
A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
d)
Only muscle cells need DNA 
53.
The DNA is found in the nucleus of what type of organisms?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Eukaryotes
c)
Prokaryotes
d)
Viruses
54.

What is the role of mRNA

a)

Carry an amino acid to the ribosome

b)

Copy the instructions from DNA and carry it out of the nucleus

c)

Make up the ribosomes

55.

Where does Transcription occur

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

ER

d)

Mitochondria

56.

What is the mRNA for the following DNA strand?

TAC GTA

a)

GCT AGC

b)

ATG CAT

c)

AUG CAU

57.

Where does Translation occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

ER

d)

Chloroplast

58.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

59.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

60.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

61.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

62.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

63.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
64.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
65.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
66.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
67.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
68.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
69.

If two alleles are the same for a certain trait they are considered

a)

Homozygous

b)

Twins

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Common

70.

Physical traits that are expressed are known as ____________

a)

Mutation

b)

Personality

c)

Genotype

d)

Phenotype

71.

Sections of DNA that have instructions for a specific trait are called _______________

a)

Blueprints

b)

Genes

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Fragments

72.

In science, mutations are

a)

The reason the X-Men exist

b)

Genetically engineered creatures that you fight in the Hunger Games

c)

A change in the DNA of an organism that produces new traits

d)

Always helpful for survival

73.

True or false: Mutations only harm chances of survival:

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The passage of genetic instructions from one generation to the next is known as

a)

Alleles

b)

Ancestry

c)

Heredity

d)

Variation

75.

The genes of an organism that are written with capital or lowercase letters

a)

Pant size

b)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

c)

Genotype

d)

Gretchentype

76.

If a gene is always expressed or always shown with a capital letter it is

a)

Bossy

b)

Recessive

c)

Yelling

d)

Dominant

77.

If a certain trait has two different alleles (one dominant and one recessive) it is called __________________

a)

Homozygous

b)

Confused

c)

Differentiated

d)

Heterozygous

78.

This variation of a gene can only be expressed if it is received from both parents

a)

Shy

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Variation

d)

Recessive

79.
incomplete dominance means that there traits are,,,
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
80.

What is NOT a possible genotype for someone with type B blood?

a)

IBIB

b)

IAIB

c)

IBi

81.

What is the genotype of a person with type A blood, who had a father with type O blood?

a)

IAIB

b)

IAi

c)

IAIA

d)

ii

82.

What is the phenotype of a person with the genotype IBi?

a)

type A

b)

type O

c)

type B

d)

type AB

83.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

84.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

85.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

86.

Snap dragon color is a incomplete dominant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed with white flower (R'R')? What color are flowers that are RR'?

a)

Red

b)

Red and White

c)

White

d)

Pink

87.

There are many different alleles for fur color in cats. What is this an example of?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Traits

88.

Which genotype do females have?

a)

XX

b)

XY

c)

AA

d)

Aa

89.

If hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, what genotype would a carrier female have?

a)

XH XH

b)

XH Xh

c)

Xh Xh

90.

If hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, what genotype would a normal male have?

a)

XH XH

b)

XH Y

c)

Xh Xh

d)

Xh Y

91.

If hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, what genotype would a female with hemophilia have?

a)

XH XH

b)

XH Xh

c)

Xh Xh

d)

Xh Y

92.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

93.
What is the genotype of the father?
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA or aa
94.
What is the genotype of the mother?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
BB or Bb
95.

Natural selection results in change in a population's _____________ traits over time.

a)

inherited

b)

acquired

96.

Individuals undergo evolution.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

98.

Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?

a)

People selectively breeding hamsters for size.

b)

Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.

c)

Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.

d)

Male birds of certain species inheriting colorful feathers that are more attractive to females.

99.

Eyes that can see in the dark is a(an) _______ inherited by nocturnal animals.

a)

adaptation

b)

acquired trait

c)

learned ability

100.

How does a species change over time?

a)

by adapting to the environment

b)

changes in the gene frequencies in a population

c)

acquiring new traits

d)

they do not change

101.

Below are the % similarities of DNA between whales and other species. Based on this, which are whales most closely related to?

a)

Pig, 68.4%

b)

Hippo, 83.4%

c)

Mouse, 38.4%

102.

Which best describes the phrase survival of the fittest?

a)

strongest in a population are most successful

b)

fastest in a population are most successful

c)

those that can survive and reproduce are most successful

d)

those that can live the longest are most successful

103.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
104.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
105.
In the graph shown, how many species of lizards seem to have beneficial adaptations?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
106.

Which is true?

a)

allele Z increased in the population over time

b)

allele Z decreased in the population over time

c)

the frequency of allele Z remained constant in the population over time

107.

What is a population?

a)

One individual member of a species

b)

a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area

c)

a community of different species and their environment

108.

Which definition best fits the term BIOTIC?

a)

The study of the interactions between animals and their environment

b)

Factors in the environment that are considered not alive

c)

Factors in the environment that are considered living or the remains of living things

109.

One species benefits, the other is unaffected

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

110.

Honey guide birds alert and direct badgers to bee hives. The badgers then expose the hives and feed on the honey first. Then, the honey guide birds eat as well.

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

111.

The ecological role an organism performs in their specific environment is considered the organism's...

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Biome

d)

Niche

112.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)

They point to the organism that is being eaten.

b)

It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.

c)

They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 

d)

They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.

113.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
114.
What are plants called in a food chain?
a)

Producers /Autotrophs

b)

Consumers /Heterotrophs

c)

Decomposers

d)

Scavengers

115.
Where does the energy start in this food chain?
a)
Plant
b)
Sun
c)
Deer
d)
Wolf
116.

Match the following

a)

Decomposer

1.

This is an organism that breaks down and gains nutrients from dead organisms.

b)

Predator

2.

This is an animal that lives by preying on other animals.

c)

Producer

3.

This is an organism that supplies matter and energy, also known as an autotroph.

d)

Consumer

4.

This is an organism that relies on other organisms for its food and energy supply; heterotroph

e)

Parasite

5.

This is an organism which feeds on, but usually does not kill, a larger organism

117.

What happens to the amount of available energy in the pyramid as it moves up through the different levels?

a)

it increases

b)

it decreases

c)

it remains the same

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