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Worksheets

AP MCQ-alooza

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 3hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following has the glassware from most (top) to least (bottom) precise?

a)

Beaker

Graduated cylinder

Burette

b)

Burette

Graduated cylinder

Beaker

c)

Graduated cylinder

Beaker

Burette

d)

Graduated cylinder

Volumetric flask

Beaker

2.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
3.

Given the following: 42.07% Na, 18.89% P, and 39.04% O, determine the empirical formula.

a)

NaPO2

b)

Na2PO3

c)

Na3PO4

d)

NaPO4

4.
What is the mass of 0.75 moles of (NH4)3PO4?
a)
101.75 g
b)
121.75 g
c)
111.75 g
d)
131.75 g
5.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
6.
How many electrons can the d sublevel hold?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
2
d)
4
7.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
8.
As you move across the periodic table from left to right, the atomic radius decreases.  This is because - 
a)
the number of protons increases, so attraction to electrons increases
b)
the number of energy levels increases
c)
the number of electrons increases
d)
the atomic mass increases
9.
The energy required to remove electrons is the definition of: 
a)
Electronegativity
b)
Atomic Number
c)
Atomic Radius
d)
Ionization
10.

What element has the following mass spec data?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon

11.

Based on the mass spec data, which Iron isotope is the most abundant?

a)

Fe-54

b)

Fe-56

c)

Fe-57

d)

Fe-58

12.

The PES spectrum below is for the element _______________.

a)

O

b)

Ne

c)

N

d)

F

13.

What does the 4th peak from the left represent?

a)

The 2s electrons

b)

The 3d electrons

c)

The 2p electrons

d)

The 3s electrons

14.

Which peak (or peaks) correspond to the valence electrons?

a)

The peak at 1

b)

The peaks at 1 and 2.05

c)

The peak at 239

d)

The peaks at 239 and 22.7

15.

Which of the following pairs of elements could NOT react to form an ionic compound?

a)

Carbon and Oxygen

b)

Potassium and Fluorine

c)

Silver and Oxygen

d)

Aluminum and Chlorine

16.

Which of the following is NOT a property of ionic compounds?

a)

They conduct electricity when molten

b)

They conduct electricity when in solution

c)

They have high boiling points

d)

They are insoluble in water

17.

In this molecule, Carbon has a formal charge of ____ and Nitrogen has a formal charge of _____.

a)

0, 0

b)

1, 0

c)

0, -1

d)

-1, 0

18.

What type of alloy is this?

a)

Interstitial

b)

Substitutional

19.

What is the bond angle in BF3?

a)

90

b)

120

c)

109.5

d)

180

20.

What is the hybridization of carbon in CH4?

a)

sp3

b)

sp

c)

sp2

21.

Count the number of sigma and pi bonds in this molecule:

a)

13 sigma, 1 pi

b)

14 sigma, 2 pi

c)

1 sigma, 14 pi

d)

2 sigma, 13 pi

22.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
23.

When a molecular solid melts or boils, which breaks?

a)

Intermolecular forces

b)

Intramolecular bonds

24.

Chromatography separates mixtures based on what property?

a)

particle size

b)

intermolecular forces

c)

boiling points

d)

state of matter

25.

In paper chromatography, if water is the mobile phase, what kind of substance will move up the farthest?

a)

polar substance

b)

non polar substance

26.

List the 4 Intermolecular forces from weakest to strongest

a)

hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, london dispersion, dipole dipole

b)

london dispersion, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, dipole dipole

c)

london dispersion, dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole

d)

dipole dipole, hydrogen bonding, ion-dipole, london dispersion

27.

“More polarizable” refers to which Intermolecular Force?

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

london dispersion

c)

dipole dipole

28.

The dotted line is a representation of a hydrogen bond.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Name a property that decreases as Intermolecular Forces increase.

a)

Vapor pressure

b)

Conductivity

c)

Melting point

d)

Solubility

30.

What is an example of a covalent network solid?

a)

Salt

b)

Diamond

c)

Sugar

d)

Water

31.

What type of alloy is made when the radii of one element are similar in size with the other element making up the alloy?

a)

interstitial

b)

substitutional

32.

What causes gas pressure?

a)

large space between the molecules

b)

random motion of particles

c)

collisions with the walls of the container

33.

The more molar mass a gas has, the_________________ it moves

a)

faster

b)

slower

34.

Real gases behave most like an ideal gas at what conditions of temperature and pressure?

a)

High T, Low P

b)

High P, Low T

c)

High V, Low T

35.

Under STP, how many liters is 1 mol?

a)

1 L

b)

11.2 L

c)

22.4 L

d)

6.02 x 102310^{23} L

36.
Which of the following assumption of kinetic molecular theory describes why gases are extremely fluid?
a)
particles do  not attract or repel one another
b)
particles have elastic collisions
c)
gases are made of tiny particles that are far apart
d)
particles travel in straight line, continuous rapid, random motion
37.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
38.
A certain photon of light has a wavelength of 4.22x10-7nm. What is the frequency? (v=c/λ)
a)
7.11x1014 Hz
b)
7.11Hz
c)
1.41x10-15
d)
-1.41x1015
39.

Which of the following will be the least soluble in water?

a)

CH3CH2CH2OH

b)

CH3OH

c)

CH3CH2OH

d)

None of them are soluble in water.

e)

They are all equally soluble in water.

40.
As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, the amount of energy in that wave...
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
41.

What is a limiting reactant?

a)

The reactant that runs out first

b)

The reactant that has the lowest mass

c)

The reactant with the smallest coefficient

d)

The reactant with the lowest molar mass

42.

1.What type of reaction is this?

3O2 + 2FeCl3 --> 2Fe2O3 + 3Cl2

a)

Single Displacement

b)

Decomposition

c)

Double Displacement

d)

Combustion

43.

What formula do we use for dilution calculations?

a)

M1V1=M2V2

b)

D=m/V

c)

V1=M2

d)

Total Volume/Partial Volume

44.

What is the oxidation number of P in PO43-?

a)

0

b)

4

c)

5

d)

-2

45.

What is the oxidation number of N in NO21-?

a)

0

b)

-1

c)

2

d)

3

46.

Which of the following represents the net ionic equation for the precipitation reaction between sodium carbonate and magnesium sulfate?

a)

Na2CO3 + MgSO4 --> MgCO3 + Na2SO4

b)

2Na+ + CO3-2 + Mg+2 + SO4-2 --> Mg+2 + CO3-2 + 2Na+ + SO4-2

c)

2Na+ + SO4-2 --> Na2SO4

d)

CO3-2 + Mg+2 --> MgCO3

47.

Chemical or physical change? H2O(l) → H2O(g)

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

48.

Boiling is an example of a __________

a)

Physical change because bonds are broken

b)

Physical change because IMFs are overcome

c)

Chemical change because bonds are broken

d)

Chemical change because IMFs are overcome

49.

An acid is defined as a...

a)

proton donor

b)

proton acceptor

50.

In the following example, CH3CH2COOH(aq) + H2O(l) ⇄ CH3CH2COO-(aq) + H3O+(aq) what would be considered a conjugate acid-base pair?

a)

CH3CH2COOH(aq) and H2O(l)

b)

CH3CH2COO-(aq) and H3O+(aq)

c)

CH3CH2COO-(aq) and CH3CH2COOH(aq)

d)

CH3CH2COOH(aq) and H3O+(aq)

51.

Which of the following represent a Brønsted-Lowry conjugate acid-base pair?

a)

HF and H2O

b)

NaOH and H2O

c)

HF and NaOH

d)

HF and F-

52.
     In the reaction Zn + H2O --> ZnO2 + H2
 which element, if any, is oxidized? 
a)
Zinc
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
None
53.
Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction of AgNO3 and CaCl2?
a)
Ca2+(aq) +  2Cl- (aq) → CaCl(s)
b)
Ag+(aq)  +  Cl- (aq) → AgCl(s)
c)
Ag +  Cl  →  AgCl
d)
Ag+  +  Ca2+   →Ag2Ca (s)
54.
2 KClO3 → 2 KCl + 3 O2
How many moles of oxygen are produced when 6.7 moles of KClO3 decompose completely?
a)
6.7 mol
b)
1.0 mol
c)
10.1 mol
d)
4.5 mol
55.
2H2   +   O2  →  2H2O
How many moles of water can be produced if 8 moles H2 are used?
a)
4 moles
b)
8 moles
c)
16 moles
d)
2 moles
56.
9. Complete the equation for the percent yield of a chemical reaction:
Percent yield=(________)
÷(________)×100%
a)
actual yield; theoretical yield
b)
theoretical yield; actual yield
57.

What is the unit for the rate constant (k) for 2nd order reactions?

a)

s-1

b)

M/s

c)

M-1s-1

58.

How does a catalyst speed up a reaction?

a)

Adding more reactant

b)

Providing a pathway that has a lower activation energy

c)

Increasing the activation energy

d)

Increasing binding energy

59.

What are the 2 characteristics that an effective collision must have? SELECT TWO

a)

Enough energy to overcome Ea

b)

Molecules in the correct orientations

c)

High enough temperature

d)

Apporpriate intermediates present

60.

What is the rate law for the reaction with this slow elementary step? A + A --> B + B

a)

rate = k[A]2

b)

rate = k[B]2

c)

rate = k[A][B]

d)

rate = k[A]

61.

Which curve represents the most particles in this Maxwell-Boltzmann curve (# of particles vs. speed)?

a)

Black (peak on the left)

b)

Red (peak in the middle)

c)

Blue (peak on the right)

d)

They all have the same number of particles

62.
Consider the following rate law: Rate = k[A]n[B]m
How are the exponents n and m determined?
a)
by using balanced chemical equation
b)
By using the subscripts for the formulas
c)
By educated guess
d)
By experiment 
63.
step 1: O3 → O2 + O
step 2: O3 + O → 2 O2

The oxygen atom (O) is considered to be a(n)...
a)
reactant
b)
catalyst
c)
reaction intermediate
d)
activated complex
64.
A compound has a half-life of 14 min. How much time will it take a 12 mol sample to decay to 1.5 mol?
a)
14 min
b)
28 min
c)
42 min
d)
56 min
65.
Increasing temperature of a chemical reaction:
a)
increases the number of collisions per second of chemical reactants
b)
increases the speed of reaction
c)
can increase the pressure of reactants
d)
all of the above
66.
The rate law for a reaction is rate = k [A][B]2 Which one of the following statements is false? 
a)
A) If [B] is doubled, the reaction rate will increase by a factor of 4. 
b)
B) The reaction is second order in B.
c)
C) The reaction is first order in A.
d)
D) The reaction is second order overall.
67.
Multi-step (Consecutive) Reactions:
Mechanisms in which one elementary step is followed by another are very common.
step 1:              A + B → Q
step 2:              B + Q → C
net reaction:    A + 2B → C
Which of the following is false?
a)
The net reaction is just the sum of its elementary steps.
b)
The species Q is an intermediate, usually an unstable or highly reactive species. 
c)
Intermediates such as Q can appear in the rate law of a net reaction.
d)
If both steps proceed at similar rates, rate law experiments on the net reaction would not reveal that two separate steps are involved here.The rate law for the reaction would berate=k[A][B]2
68.
The reaction of (CH3)3CBr with hydroxide ion proceeds:
(CH3)3CBr(aq) + OH-(aq) → (CH3)3COH(aq) + Br-(aq)
What will the initial rate (in mol/L*s) be in Experiment 4?
a)
0.003
b)
0.006
c)
0.009
d)
0.018
69.

What is the rate law for this reaction?

a)

rate = k[X]0

b)

rate = k[X]

c)

rate = k[X]2

d)

rate = -k[X]2

70.

In an exothermic reaction, the sign of ΔH is ____ and the reaction feels ______

a)

(-), hot

b)

(+), hot

c)

(-), cold

d)

(+), cold

71.

Freezing is an _________________________ process

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

72.

Breaking bonds is _________________. Forming bonds is ______________________

a)

endothermic, exothermic

b)

exothermic, endothermic

73.

According to Hess' Law, if you double the coefficients of a reaction, ΔH will ________________________

a)

Stay the same

b)

Double

c)

Quadruple

d)

Halve

74.

According to Hess' Law, if you reverse a reaction, ΔH will ________________________

a)

Change signs

b)

Double

c)

Be inversed

d)

Halve

75.

What are the units of ΔHrxn?

a)

kJ

b)

J

c)

kJ/mol

d)

J/mol

76.

A temperature is placed in a calorimeter. A solid is dissolved in water in the calorimeter and the temperature of the thermometer increases. The dissolution reaction must be

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

77.

Using bond energies to solve for enthalpy, 

a)

ΔH\Delta H  =  Bond broken - bonds formed

b)

undefined =  Bond formed- bonds broken

c)

undefined =  products - reactants

d)

undefined =  reactants- products

78.
A substance with a high specific heat:
a)
Is always extremely hot.
b)
Requires a lot of energy to become hot.
c)
Is not heavy.
d)
Does not requires a lot of energy to become hot.
79.
Which letter corresponds to the activation energy of the forward reaction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
80.
If the reactant particles collide with less than the activation energy, the particles will be rebound, and no reaction will occur.
a)
True
b)
False
81.
Temperature is a measure of the...
a)
total energy in a substance
b)
total kinetic energy in a substance
c)
average potential energy in a substance
d)
average kinetic energy of molecules in a substance
82.
A substance with a high specific heat:
a)
Is always extremely hot.
b)
Requires a lot of energy to become hot.
c)
Is not heavy.
d)
Does not requires a lot of energy to become hot.
83.
The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is
a)
created
b)
destroyed
c)
conserved
d)
created and destroyed
84.
What is the activation energy?
a)
The energy of the products
b)
The energy of the reactants
c)
The minimum energy needed by the reactants to form the products.
d)
The energy lost in the reaction
85.
Which letter corresponds to the energy of the products?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.
Which letter corresponds to the activation energy of the forward reaction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
87.
In an endothermic reaction the system is releasing energy.
a)
True
b)
False
88.
Refer the the following question:
2N2 + 3H2 --> 2NH3 + 46 kJ
How much energy would be produced if only 1 mol of nitrogen was reacted?
a)
92 kJ
b)
0.143 kJ
c)
23 kJ
d)
15 kJ
89.

Which substance would experience the biggest temperature change if each sample absorbed the same energy?

a)

100 grams of water

b)

25 grams of water

c)

5 grams of water

d)

2500 grams of water

90.
H2 + Cl2 --> 2 HCl + 1845 kJ
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Endothermic 
b)
Exothermic
91.
How much heat does an aluminum block absorb if 10.00 grams ae heated from 25.0oC to 50.0oC? the specific heat of aluminum is .900J/goC
a)
450
b)
-450
c)
225
d)
-225
92.
Some average bond enthalpies, in kJ/mol, are as follows:
H-H = 436
Cl-Cl = 242
H-Cl = 431
What is the enthalpy change for the decomposition of hydrogen chloride?
2 HCl --> H2 + Cl2
a)
-184 kJ
b)
+ 184 kJ
c)
- 247 kJ
d)
+ 247 kJ
93.

At equilibrium, rates of the forward and reverse reaction are...

a)

The same

b)

Not the same

94.

At equilibrium, concentrations of reactants and products are

a)

equal

b)

constant

95.

At what time does the system first reach equilibrium?

a)

24s

b)

40s

c)

60s

d)

80s

96.

Which substance(s) would not be included in a equilibrium constant expression?

a)

NaCl(s)

b)

NaCl(aq)

c)

NaCl(l)

d)

NaCl(g)

97.

If a K value is greater than 1,

a)

more products are present at equilibrium

b)

more reactants are present at equilibrium

98.

If a K value is VERY large,

a)

the reaction has essentially gone to completion

b)

there are more reactants present at equilibrium

99.

If K < Q, the reaction will proceed in the...

a)

reverse direction to reach equilibrium

b)

forward direction to reach equilibrium

100.

When a reaction at equilibrium is reversed,

a)

the K value's sign is flipped

b)

the K value is divided by 2

c)

the K value is inverted

101.

To calculate the K of an overall reaction from individual reaction K values, the individual K values are

a)

added

b)

subtracted

c)

multiplied

d)

divided

102.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH > 0, which of the following changes will increase the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Decreasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Removing a small amount of B

d)

Decreasing the pressure

103.

Given the following equilibrium equation,

A (g) + 2B (g) ⇄ AB2 (g) ΔH < 0, which of the following changes will decrease the amount of AB2 in the vessel?

a)

Increasing the temperature

b)

Increasing the concentration of A

c)

Increasing the pressure

d)

Adding a catalyst

104.

In a Ksp expression, we always assume that the reactant is made up of

a)

the solid precipitate

b)

the aqueous ions

105.

If Ksp >1, we say the salt is...

a)

soluble

b)

insoluble

106.

If a common ion is present, the solubility of a salt

a)

is increased

b)

is decreased

c)

will remain the same

107.

([H3O] / [HA]) x 100 OR ([OH] / [B]) x 100

a)

Equations for % Ionization

b)

Equations for pH

c)

Equations for nothing

108.

If pH=3.70, [OH]=?. Is the solution acidic, basic, or neutral

a)

5 x 10^-11

Acidic

b)

2 x 10^-14

Acidic

c)

11.5

Basic

d)

14

Basic

109.

If [H] = 1 x10^-7, pH= ?. Is the solution acidic, basic, or neutral

a)

7

Neutral

b)

2.3

Acidic

c)

11.34

Basic

d)

7.5

Basic

110.
What is the pOH of a solution that has a pH of 2?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
14
d)
1
111.
Which combination will form a buffer solution?
a)
100ml of 0.1M HCI with 50ml of 0.1M NaOH
b)
100ml of 0.1M CH3COOH with 50ml of 0.1M NaOH
c)
50ml of 0.1M HCI with 100ml of 0.1M NaOH
d)
50ml of 0.1M CH3COOH with 100ml of 0.1M NaOH
112.

a buffer solution is made of mixture of aqueous methanoic acid, HCOOH, with aqueous sodium methanoate, NaHCOO.


the equilibrium reaction takes place in buffer solution is :

HCOOH ↔ HCOO- + H+


small amount of NaOH is then added to that buffer solution.


What reaction take places at the buffer solution to resist change of pH caused by addition of base?

a)

HCOOH + H+ → HCOOH2

b)

HCOO- + H+ → HCOOH

c)

HCOOH + OH- → HCOO- + H2O

d)

HCOO- + OH- → COO2- + H2O

113.

Which has the HIGHEST entropy change?

a)

1 --> 2 particles

b)

gas --> liquid

c)

solid --> gas

d)

low to high temperature (same phase)

114.

Which has a positive sign for S?

a)

2Na (s) + Cl2 (g) --> 2NaCl (s)

b)

H2O (g) --> H2O (l)

c)

H+ (aq) + NO3- (aq) --> HNO3 (l)

d)

CaCl2 (s) --> Ca2+ (aq) + 2Cl- (aq)

115.

reaction is ALWAYS spontaneous

a)

- H, - S

b)

+ H, + S

c)

+ H, - S

d)

- H, + S

116.

If a reaction occurs, then delta G is

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

can't tell

d)

0

117.

Thermodyncamically unfavorable reactions where cathode and anonde are in the same chamber; Power source needed but no salt bridge

a)

Galvanic Cell

b)

Electrolytic Cell

c)

The answer is not here

118.

If ΔG is zero

a)

Favorable

b)

Unfavorable

c)

Equilibrium

119.

An Increase in Q means an ______ in Ecell

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

No Change

120.
Calculate the cell potential of voltaic cell
a)
–1.51
b)
- 0.03
c)
+0.03
d)
+1.51
121.

What is a cathode?

a)

It is the electrode where oxidation takes place.

b)

It is the electrode where reduction takes place.

c)

It is an aqueous solution containing an electrode.

d)

It is the salt bridge that connects half-cells.

122.

What is an anode?

a)

It is the electrode where oxidation takes place.

b)

It is the electrode where reduction takes place.

c)

It is an aqueous solution containing an electrode.

d)

It is the salt bridge that connects half-cells.

123.
What is the equation and cell potential?
a)
2Al3+ + 3Ni → 2Al + 3Ni2+ EO = 1.89 V
b)
2Al + 3Ni2+ → 2Al3+ + 3Ni EO = 1.89 V
c)
2Al3+ + 3Ni → 2Al + 3Ni2+ EO = 1.43 V
d)
2Al + 3Ni2+ → 2Al3+ + 3Ni EO = 1.43 V
124.

A student is preparing solutions for a laboratory experiment by dissolving solid solutes in liquid solvents. Which action will increase the rate of solubility

a)

lowering the temperature of the solvent

b)

stirring the solute in the solution

c)

increasing the pressure on the solution

d)

increasing the particle size of the solute

125.
What is the molarity of 4 grams of sodium chloride in 3,800 mL of solution?
a)
0.018 M
b)
0.018 mol
c)
1.052 M
d)
1.052 mol