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Veterinary Diseases Tests 1 & 2

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Inflammation is...

a)

The body's response to tissue damage

b)

A specific varied response to each type of pyrogen

c)

Occurring in healthy animals all the time

d)

The body's 3rd line of defense

2.

T-cells mature in the

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Bursa of Fabricius

c)

Thymus

d)

Peyer's patches

3.

Pyrogens cause...

a)

Fever

b)

Inflammation

c)

Diapedesis

d)

Auto-immune disease

4.

Which of the following is a clinical sign?

a)

Cerebral edema

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Intestinal foreign body

d)

Bladder tumor

5.

These chemical signs cause symptoms of asthma such as bronchospasm and vasoconstriction

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Histamine

d)

Leukotrienes

6.

Antibodies are produced by...

a)

B-cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

T-cells

d)

Basophils

7.

Which of the following causes the redness and heat associated with inflammation?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Bronchoconstriction

c)

Increased vascular permeability

d)

Margination

8.

Juno was just diagnosed with feline calcivirus. The owner wants to know the probability of recovery. She would like to know the...

a)

Prognosis

b)

Mortality rate

c)

Definitive diagnosis

d)

Morbidity rate

9.

A/an (a)   is a foreign molecular structure that the immune system can recognize and respond to.

10.

Examining lesions microscopically is called...

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Gross pathology

c)

Histopathology

d)

Clinical pathology

11.

Which of the following is an inflammatory condition?

a)

Prostatitis

b)

Hyperpnea

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Chemosis

12.

Which of the following exudates is best described by low cellularity, low protein, and clearness

a)

Fibrinous

b)

Purulent

c)

Serous

d)

Suppurlative

13.

Species resistance refers to...

a)

The genetic ability of a particular species to provide defense against certain pathogens

b)

The immune system's ability to recognize a foreign pathogen

c)

The ability of antigens to get past protective barriers in certain species

d)

The immune system's inability to control itself and attack its own species

14.

When the immune system attacks its own tissues, it has a/an (a)   disease.

15.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of inflammation?

a)

Trauma

b)

Infection

c)

Foreign body

d)

Anomalies of development

16.

An increase in cell size with normal organization

(a)  

17.

Transfer of antibodies from one individual to another is called (a)   immunity

18.

Humoral immunity primarily utilizes all of the following EXCEPT

a)

B-cells

b)

Immunoglobulin

c)

IgM

d)

Fibrin

19.

These inflammatory cells release histamine to activate the vasculature

a)

Macrophages

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Mast cells

d)

Neutrophils

20.

Which of the following produces prostaglandins most responsible for inflammation?

a)

COX-1

b)

COX-2

c)

COX-3

d)

COX-4

21.

Type I Hypersensitivity reactions are typically acute reactions mediated by _____ releasing ________.

a)

IgE; histamine

b)

IgG; fibrin

c)

IgE; antibodies

d)

IgG; leukotrienes

22.

Leukocytes are called to the site of inflammation by...

a)

Chemokines

b)

Histamine

c)

Mast cells

d)

Pyrogens

23.

What is the term used for medical testing that further investigates or confirms a disease diagnosis? Examples may include urinalysis or ultrasound.

a)

Histopathology

b)

Lesions

c)

Diagnostic testing

d)

Prognostic testing

24.

Which of the following is true regarding cell-mediated immunity?

a)

It often has a delayed response of up to 72 hours

b)

It utilizes IgA the most

c)

It is the predominant cause of Type I hypersensitivity reactions

d)

None of the above

25.

NSAIDs help reduce inflammation by reducing

a)

Protaglandins

b)

Histamine

c)

Eosinophils

d)

COX

26.

The (a)   side of the immune system is responsible for fighting viruses, cancer, and intercellular bacteria.

27.

A collection of tissue found in the small intestine of ruminants that participates in the immune response is/are the _________.

a)

Thymus

b)

Peyer's patches

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

T-cells

28.

The body recognizes "self" from "non-self" via...

a)

T-cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Surface proteins

29.

Which of the following is NOT a first line of defense for the body?

a)

Skin

b)

Inflammation

c)

Enzymes

d)

Body temperature

30.

Which of the following results from macrophages organized in closely-packed sheets at sites of chronic irritation or inflammation?

a)

Exudate

b)

Abscess

c)

Granuloma

d)

Neoplasia

31.

Which is the most common antibody in the blood?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

32.

Which of the following is a plasma protein that helps confine an inflammatory stimulus to prevent spreading?

a)

Prostaglandin

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Fibrin

d)

Plasminogen

33.

10 dogs are infected with parvovirus and one of those dogs dies. The ________ rate in that population is 10%.

a)

Morbidity

b)

Prognosis

c)

Differential

d)

Mortality

34.

Uncontrolled growth of cells is called...

a)

Neoplasia

b)

Hyperplasia

c)

Histopathology

d)

Hypertrophy

35.

A body's network of cells/organs that protect from foreign disease comprise the...

a)

Lymphatics

b)

Pathology

c)

Inflammatory system

d)

Immune system

36.

The key to resolving inflammation is

a)

Using medications

b)

Removing the inciting stimulus

c)

Consistently treating all patients the same

d)

Using antibiotics

37.

The correct order of white blood cell migration to the site of inflammation is...

a)

Transmigration, chemotaxis, rolling, adhesion, margination

b)

Margination, adhesion, chemotaxis, rolling, transmigration

c)

Chemotaxis, adhesion, transmigration, margination, rolling

d)

Margination, rolling, adhesion, transmigration, chemotaxis

38.

Failure of passive transfer may occur for all of the following reasons EXCEPT...

a)

Absorption failure

b)

Production failure

c)

Vaccination failure

d)

Ingestion failure

39.

IgM is capable of crossing the placental barrier to provide passive immunity.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Antibodies peak in the blood 14 days after initial exposure to an antigen.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Purulent exudates usually have a high bacterial count.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

An anamnestic immune response typically occurs after first exposure to an antigen.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Phagocytosis is the process by which leukocytes migrate to the site of injury after leaving the bloodstream.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Foals are only able to absorb antibodies from colostrum during the first 36 hours after birth.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Type II hypersensitivity reactions often result in urticaria.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Cold compresses may reduce inflammation by causing vasoconstriction.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

A differential diagnosis is a possible disease process that is suspected based on history and clinical signs, but is not yet confirmed.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

A biopsy is a surgically excised tissue sample that may be examined for pathology.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Disease occurs when the body is not able to maintain a steady state called

(a)  

50.

The sequence of events during the development of a disease refers to the

(a)  

51.

The movement of white blood cells out of the vasculature occurs in a process called

(a)  

52.

(a)   therapy may be initiated to keep a patient with incurable cancer comfortable.

53.

(a)   are proteins produced in response to a specific antigen to act specifically against that antigen in an immune response.

54.

A post-mortem exam to determine the cause of death of an animal is a/an (a)   .

55.

Organisms with the ability to cause disease are (a)   .

56.

Which 3 options are etiologies of disease?

a)

Iatrogenic

b)

Attenuated

c)

Neoplastic

d)

Nystagmus

e)

Inflammatory

57.

What is the "3-2-1 rule" used for?

a)

The 3 biggest signs that a cat is sick

b)

Remembering the 3 stages of rabies

c)

The 3 signs that a suspected injection site sarcoma in a feline should be biopsied

d)

The countdown used to determine if a patient is breathing or not

58.

Vaccines should be administered weeks prior to boarding rather than the day the dog arrives at the facility due to the body's delayed response (~2 weeks) in creating the appropriate antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What agent causes spongiform degeneration of neurons?

a)

yeast

b)

feline immunodeficiency virus

c)

lactobacillus

d)

prions

60.

Vaccine induced anaphylaxis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

61.

Which of the following may be a component of a vaccine?

a)

Sugars

b)

A live pathogen

c)

Ammonia

d)

All of the above

62.

An antiseptic that stops bacteria from reproducing is 

a)

cytotoxic

b)

sterilizing

c)

bacteriostatic

d)

bactericidal

63.

After a first vaccination, it takes 10-14 days for _____ to elevate and provide protection against the disease but a booster may be necessary for long term protection.  

a)

IgE

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgA

64.

Which of the following is NOT a routine route of vaccine administration?

a)

intraosseous

b)

subcutaneous

c)

intranasal

d)

intramuscular

65.

Which of the following is NOT a shape of bacteria?

a)

bacilli

b)

shigella

c)

cocci

d)

spirochete

66.

A/an ________________ must live inside a living host and always causes disease.

a)

opportunist

b)

obligate parasite

c)

commensal organism

d)

saprophyte

67.

Which of the following is not a patient risk variable to consider when vaccinating? 

a)

risk of exposure to the antigen

b)

size

c)

age

d)

health status

68.

This type of pathogen does not stimulate an immune response

a)

prion

b)

virus

c)

protozoa

d)

bacteria

69.

Vaccines that all dogs/cats, regardless of circumstances or geographical location, should recieve are called (a)   vaccines. 

70.

Which of the following is NOT a principle of vaccination?

a)

vaccinate more often than necessary

b)

vaccinate at the appropriate life stage

c)

vaccinate with the most effective vaccine

d)

vaccinate those at risk for infection

71.

Mosquitos and biting flies are examples of arthropod (a)   that may transmit viruses from one animal to another.

72.

All of the following are potential pathogens except

a)

microbes

b)

bacteria

c)

toxins

d)

viruses

73.

All of the following are eukaryotic organisms except

a)

yeast

b)

prions

c)

protozoa

d)

fungi

74.

Which of the following is a potential adverse event caused by vaccination only observed in cats?

a)

Injection site sarcoma

b)

Facial swelling

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Granuloma

75.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for vaccine failure?

a)

active immunization

b)

inappropriate route of administration

c)

immunosuppression

d)

animal already infected

76.

A cellular component that causes harm to the host when the bacterial cell wall is destroyed is called a/an

a)

exotoxin

b)

pathotoxin

c)

cytotoxin

d)

endotoxin

77.

Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease?

a)

streptococcus

b)

neoplasia

c)

parvovirus

d)

prions

78.

A pathogen that consists of a capsid and a nucleic acid is known as a __________.

a)

virus

b)

protozoa

c)

prion

d)

bacteria

79.

A ___________ virus has become dormant after infecting the host cell but may still cause disease when triggered, often by stress. 

a)

commensal

b)

latent

c)

endotoxic

d)

saprophytic

80.

Antibodies transferred from one individual to another refers to 

a)

species resistance

b)

artificial immunity

c)

active immunity

d)

passive immunity

81.

Viral infection within the body may be combated with

a)

antiseptics

b)

antivirals

c)

vaccines

d)

antibiotics

82.

This type of vaccine is an inactivated vaccine produced from a bacterial culture

a)

antiserum

b)

antitoxin

c)

bacterin

d)

subunit

83.

This type of vaccine protects against multiple diseases with one injection

a)

antitoxin

b)

subunit

c)

multivalent

d)

recombinant

84.

Which of the following reproduce by asexual budding?

a)

yeast

b)

prions

c)

cocci

d)

giardia

85.

Antibody testing can be used for

a)

assessment of immunity prior to or following vaccination

b)

identifying previous exposure to a pathogen

c)

diagnosis of infection

d)

all of the above

86.

Which of the following is the best site for feline vaccination administration?

a)

distal forelimb

b)

between the shoulder blades

c)

proximal forelimb

d)

hip

87.

Which of the following is a characteristic of poor vaccine storage? 

a)

Leaving vaccines on the counter for the next appointment

b)

returning vaccines delivered damaged/warm

c)

temperature-controlled environment

d)

using vaccines immediately as they are drawn up

88.

Vaccines prevent disease

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The key to good disinfection is scrubbing surfaces.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Vaccines are dosed to animals of the same species by body weight.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Modified live vaccines are the safest vaccines for pregnant animals. 

a)

True

b)

False

92.

You should have a single vaccination protocol for each species.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Vaccines induce immediate immunity.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Fungi are typically found in cold, dry climates.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Modified live vaccines elicit a humoral and cell-mediated response. 

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Maternal antibodies usually wane around 8 months of age.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Intranasal vaccines are just as effective if they are administered SQ.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Attenuated means reinforced/stronger.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Disinfection is the process by which all viable microorganisms are detroyed in unfavorable conditions. 

a)

True

b)

False

100.

The destruction of pathogenic organisms associated with inanimate objects is called 

(a)  

101.

Viruses living outside a host are called

(a)  

102.

Inanimate objects that can spread infectious agents from one animal to another are called...

(a)  

103.

The study of fungi is called

(a)  

104.

A disease that is capable of being transmitted from one individual to another is...

(a)  

105.

(a)   is a signaling protein released by host cells infected with a virus that communicate with unifected cells to prevent viral replication. 

106.

A/an (a)   enhances the immune response elicited by inactivated vaccines. 

107.

(a)   determine antibody levels in plasma.

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