wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AUBF- Prelims Exam

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Urine specific gravity is an index of the ability of the kidney to:

a)

Reabsorb sodium ion concentration

b)

Alter the hydrogen ion concentration

c)

Filter plasma

d)

Concentrate urine

2.

Which of the following is not detected by the reagent strip for ketone bodies?

a)

Acetoacetic acid and acetone

b)

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

c)

Diacetic acid only

d)

Acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid

3.

Which of the following is a positive result for Guthrie test?

a)

Presence of bacterial growth

b)

Absence of bacterial growth

c)

Red precipitate

d)

Yellow precipitate

4.

False-positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet high in:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Tomatoes

c)

Meat

d)

Green leafy vegetables

5.

The reason that an albumin: creatinine ratio can be run on a random specimen is:

a)

The reaction is sensitive to any level of albumin

b)

A first morning specimen maybe too concentrated

c)

Albumin corrects for over or under hydration

d)

Creatinine corrects for over or under body hydration

6.

Two different methods are used to assess the presence of glucose in a urine specimen. A reagent test strip yields a negative result, but a positive result is obtained with Benedict+IBk-s test. What is the best explanation for these results?

a)

A non-glucose, reducing substance is present in the urine sample

b)

The urine sample has been contaminated by hypochlorite

c)

The urine sample has been contaminated by peroxide

d)

Benedict+IBk-s test is more sensitive than the strip method

7.

Which of the following is the primary reagent in the Clinitest tablet?

a)

Diazonium salt

b)

. Glucose oxidase

c)

Copper sulfate

d)

Sodium carbonate

8.

A urine specimen that exhibits white foam on being shaken should be suspected of having an increased concentration of

a)

Protein

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Nitrite

9.

Which of the following is formed from the reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria?

a)

Nitrite

b)

Ketone Bodies

c)

Urobilin

d)

Urobilinogen

10.

Refractive index compares:

a)

Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids

b)

Light scattering by particles in solution

c)

Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

d)

Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions

11.

The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is:

a)

Hoesch reagent

b)

Tetramethylbenzidine

c)

A diazonium salt

d)

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

12.

Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the countercurrent multiplier system depends on all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Reabsorption of water in the ascending loop of Henle

b)

High salt concentration in the medulla

c)

Reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the ascending loop of Henle

d)

Water-impermeable walls of the ascending loop of Henle

13.

Which of the following is NOT analyzed in urine specimen?

a)

Protoporphyrin

b)

Aminolevulinic acid

c)

Uroporphyrin

d)

Porphobilinogen

14.

What is the primary goal of OSHA?

a)

Provide all employees with day off

b)

Provide all employees with health benefits.

c)

Provide all employees with a safe work environment

d)

Provide all employees with enough salary

15.

What are the two pathologic causes of a clear red urine?

a)

Hematuria and hemoglobinuria

b)

Ketonuria and hematuria

c)

Myoglobinuria and hemoglobinuria

d)

Bilirubinuria and myoglobinuria

16.

The reagent in the Multistix reaction for blood is:

a)

A diazonium salt

b)

Hoesch reagent

c)

Tetramethylbenzidine

d)

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

17.

Which of the following pairs of metabolic condition and urine odor is correctly matched?

a)

Tyrosinemia- sulfur

b)

Isovaleric acidemia- sweaty feet

c)

Trimethylaminuria- mousy

d)

Phenylketonuria- rotting fish

18.

Which urinalysis reagent strip test will never be reported out as negative?

a)

Nitrite

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Protein

19.

In Ferric chloride test, presence of transient blue indicates:

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

Tyrosinuria

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Melanuria

20.

Which following is the CORRECT procedure for Reagent Strip Testing?

a)

Hold the strip horizontally> Start timing once you remove the reagent strip from the urine>Wait for the reading time specified in the product insert>Compare the color of dipped reagent strip with the color chart provided>Report the result

b)

Hold the strip horizontally> Start timing once you remove the reagent strip from the urine>Wait for the reading time specified in the product insert>Compare the color of dipped reagent strip with the color chart provided by the internet >Report the result

c)

Hold the strip vertically> Start timing once you remove the reagent strip from the urine>Wait for the reading time specified in the product insert>Compare the color of dipped reagent strip with the color chart provided>Report the result

21.

The urine submitted by a 60 year old male patient has a specific gravity of 1.028. It contains 3 g/dL protein, and 2 g/dL glucose. What is the correct specific gravity of the urine?

a)

1.028

b)

1.010

c)

1.015

d)

1.011

22.

Which of the following urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilution tests to assess renal tubular function?

a)

Sodium and osmolality

b)

Urea, nitrogen and creatinine

c)

Osmolality and specific gravity

d)

Sodium and chloride

23.

Which of the following amino acid disorders is an overflow-inherited type?

a)

Cystinuria

b)

Hartnup

c)

Cystinosis

d)

Melanuria

24.

Which of the following color and likely cause is correctly matched?

a)

Blue: homogentisic acid

b)

orange-Pyridium

c)

Straw: urobilin

d)

Brown-black: Bilirubin

25.

The yellow color of urine is primarily due to:

a)

Urochrome

b)

Urobilin

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Uroerythrin

26.

Which of the following would NOT be given to a patient prior to the collection of a midstream clean catch specimen?

a)

Instructions

b)

Iodine cleanse

c)

Sterile container

d)

Antiseptic towelette

27.

Possible cause of glycosuria:

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

increased renal threshold

c)

renal tubular dysfunction

d)

increased GFR

28.

What is Ehrlich's test positive color reaction?

a)

Pinkish to Red

b)

Bloody red

c)

Brick red

d)

Cherry red

29.

Confirmatory test for bilirubin

a)

Acetest

b)

Schwartz-Watson test

c)

Ictotest

d)

Ammonium Blondheim test

30.

What is wrong in the picture?

a)

Inadequate reading time

b)

Incomplete PPE

c)

Wrong orientation of the reagent strip

d)

Wrong orientation of the comparator block

31.

An advantage to using cystatin C to monitor GFR is that cystatin is freely filtered by the glomerulus, not reabsorbed and not secreted by the tubules.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Presence of leucine crystals in urine correlates with:

a)

MSUD

b)

Alkaptonuria

c)

Cystinuria

d)

Phenylketonuria

33.
a)

Correct screw

b)

Knob

c)

Adjustment knob

d)

Screw

34.

A patient admitted following an accident involving massive crush injuries has the following urine chemistry results: Red brown Clear Sp gr: 1.015 pH: 6.0 protein 1 +- Glucose Negative, Blood Large, Ketones Negative, Nitrite Negative, Leukocytes negative, Bilirubin negative, urobilinogen negative. Which of the following conditions correlates with the result?

a)

urinary tract infection

b)

renal tubular acidosis

c)

myoglobinuria

d)

liver disease

35.

Hurler, Hunter, and Sanfilippo syndromes are hereditary disorders affecting metabolism of:

a)

Tryptophan

b)

Purines

c)

Porphyrins

d)

Mucopolysaccharides

36.

A urinalysis performed on a 2-week-old infant with diarrhea shows a negative reaction with the Glucose oxidase reagent strip. Clinitest should be performed to check the urine sample for presence of:

a)

Galactose

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Ketones

d)

Glucose

37.

Which of the following specific gravity reading correlates with straw urine?

a)

1.005

b)

1.035

c)

1.025

d)

1.015

38.

Excessive lipid metabolism, as is seen in diabetes mellitus, is indicated by the presence in the urine of

a)

Protein

b)

Ketone bodies

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Glucose

39.

Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (CTAB) is a test for

a)

Argentaffinoma

b)

Hartnup Disease

c)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

d)

Mucopolysaccridoses

40.

A patient's urinalysis revealed negative bilirubin and a 4+- urobilinogen level. These results are associated with:

a)

Biliary obstruction

b)

Hepatic disease

c)

UTI

d)

Hemolytic diseases

41.

Presence of pink in the reagent strip indicates presence of:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Ketone bodies

c)

Glucose

d)

Nitrite

42.

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated creatinine clearance calculations include:

a)

serum creatinine, urine creatinine, age, sex

b)

Age, weight, sex, serum creatinine

c)

serum creatinine, age, sex, race

d)

Serum creatinine, urine creatinine, Weight, age

43.

The most accurate test to determine renal concentration is

a)

osmolarity

b)

sp gr

c)

tubular reabsorption rate

d)

GFR

44.

Which of the following regulates the final urine concentration by controlling tubular permeability?

a)

antidiuretic hormone

b)

aldosterone

c)

renin

d)

angiotensin

45.

The hormone aldosterone is responsible for:

a)

secretion of chloride

b)

secretion of sodium

c)

reabsorption of potassium

d)

reabsorption of sodium

46.

Which of the following correlates with an increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone?

a)

isosthenuria

b)

Polyuria

c)

Oliguria

d)

Nocturia

47.

Reading time for glucose is

a)

45 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

40 seconds

d)

60 seconds

48.

A patient with diabetes insipidus will most likely has:

a)

Concentrated urine with a high sp gr

b)

Dark urine with a high sp gr

c)

Pale urine a low sp gr

d)

Pale urine with a high sp gr

49.

Silver Nitroprusside test detects

a)

Cystinosis

b)

Cystinuria, cystinosis, homocystinuria

c)

Homocystinuria

d)

Cystinuria

50.

What is the principle involved in nitrite test using a reagent strip?

a)

Ehrlich reaction

b)

Pseudoperoxidase reaction

c)

Griess reaction

d)

Peroxidase reaction

51.

For active transport to occur, a chemical must

a)

be in higher concentration in the blood than in the filtrate

b)

combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy

c)

be in higher concentration in the filtrate than in the blood

d)

be filtered through the proximal convoluted tubule

52.

Urine which produces a red or orange -red fluorescence under UV light contains

a)

Porphobilinogen

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Uroporphyrin

d)

Aminolevulinic acid

53.

A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a pass-through reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops water. This is a dilution of:

a)

1:8

b)

1:4

c)

1:5

d)

1:6

54.

What are the two enzymes utilized in Double sequential reaction for glucose?

a)

Reductase and Peroxidase

b)

Reductase and Oxidase

c)

Oxidase and Peroxidase

d)

Lactase and Reductase

55.

When employing the Exton method, false positive protein result may occur in the presence of:

a)

Ascorbic acid

b)

Large amounts of glucose

c)

Highly alkaline urine

d)

X ray contrast media

56.

Urine osmolality is related to:

a)

volume

b)

odor

c)

specific gravity

d)

pH

57.

The physician wants to determine if the fluid collected during an abdominal surgery could be urine. The specimen should be tested fo

a)

bacterial culture

b)

protein and glucose

c)

odor and clarity

d)

urea and creatinine

58.

What analyte is being determined by this test?

a)

Ketones

b)

Urobilinogen

c)

Blood

d)

Bilirubin

59.

What are the screening tests for UTI?

a)

pH and ketone bodies

b)

Blood and leukocytes

c)

Nitrite and leukocytes

d)

Bilirubin and urobilinogen

60.

Which of the following components are present in serum but not present in the glomerular filtrate?

a)

amino acids

b)

urea

c)

large molecular weight proteins

d)

large molecular weight proteins

61.

A Watson-Schwartz test is performed on a urine specimen. The following results are seen: In the tube with chloroform, the top layer is red while in the tube with butanol, the bottom layer is red. These results indicate the presence of

a)

urobilinogen and other Ehrlich's reactive substances

b)

porphobilinogen

c)

urobilinogen

d)

porphobilinogen and other Ehrlich's reactive substances

62.

The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:

a)

Before mixing the specimen

b)

Using glass tubes only, never plastic

c)

After thorough mixing of the specimen

d)

Before the specimen cools to room temperature

63.

The test which differentiates urobilinogen and porphobilinogen

a)

Schwartz-Watson test

b)

Ammonium Blondheim test

c)

Acetest

d)

Ictotest

64.

Which of the following is measured to assess glomerular function?

a)

osmolality

b)

pH

c)

specific gravity

d)

creatinine clearance

65.

Metastatic carcinoid tumors arising from the Argentaffin cells of the gastrointestinal tract are characterized by increased excretion of urinary

a)

Serotonin

b)

5-hydroxyindole acetic acid

c)

Homogentisic acid

d)

Indican

66.

Osmolality is a measure of:

a)

Total salt concentration

b)

Molecule size

c)

Undissociated molecules only

d)

Dissolved particles, including ions

67.

Which of the following reagent strip tests can be affected by ascorbic acid, resulting in falsely low or falsenegative results?

a)

Protein, Bilirubin, Glucose, Nitrite, pH

b)

Bilirubin, Urobilinogen, Glucose, Ketone bodies, Leukocytes

c)

Blood, pH, Glucose, Nitrite, Specific gravity

d)

Blood, Bilirubin, Glucose, Nitrite, Leukocytes

68.

Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of

a)

Tyrosine

b)

Homogentisic acid

c)

Phenylalanine

d)

5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid

69.

Isosthenuria is a term applied to a series of urine specimens that exhibit a

a)

Specific gravity of exactly 1.000

b)

Fixed specific gravity of approximately 1.010

c)

Specific gravity greater than 1.020

d)

Specific gravity less than 1.007

70.

The purpose of routinely screening DM patients for microalbuminuria is to monitor the development of:

a)

UTI

b)

diabetes insipidus

c)

renal disease

d)

Yeast infection

71.

Which of the following is a function of the kidneys?

a)

regulate acid base balance?

b)

regulate blood pressure

c)

remove waste products of metabolism

d)

All

72.

Which of the following could produce a false-positive reaction with Clinitest?

a)

Alkaptonuria

b)

Porphyrinuria

c)

Cystinuria

d)

Tyrosinuria

73.

A female patient brought a urine specimen to the physician's office for an annual physical exam. The urinalysis results are as follows: Yellow in color, cloudy, specific gravity of 1.020, pH 7, with traces of protein, negative glucose, negative ketones, negative blood, negative bilirubin, negative urobilinogen, positive nitrite, negative leukocytes. What action should be taken?

a)

Ask patient to collect another specimen at the physician office

b)

Place the patient on antibiotics for 7 days.

c)

Tell the patient to return in a week with a new specimen.

d)

Release the results. All the tests are normal

74.

Read the specific gravity.

a)

1.002

b)

1.20

c)

1.021

d)

1.020

75.

The urine sample from a 24-year-old woman is milky, this correlates with:

a)

bilirubinuria

b)

hematuria

c)

pyuria

d)

proteinuria

76.

A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose by reagent strip and Benedicts test. If both results are positive, which of the following interpretations is correct?

a)

Sucrose is NOT present

b)

Lactose is NOT present

c)

Galactose is present

d)

Glucose is present

77.

A 2 year-old child had a positive urine ketone. This would most likely be caused by:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Biliary tract obstruction

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Anemia

78.

Urobilinogen is stable in

a)

Neutral urine

b)

Acid urine

c)

Alkaline urine

d)

Any pH of urine

79.

After receiving a 24 hr urine for quantitative total creatinine analysis, the laboratory scientist must first:

a)

Add the appropriate preservative

b)

Dip the strip for albumin

c)

Examine urine color and clarity

d)

Measure the total volume

80.

A brown-black urine would most likely contain:

a)

Porphyrins

b)

Homogentisic acid

c)

Bile pigment

d)

Myoglobin

81.

What may cause a false positive reading in protein testing using a reagent strip?

a)

Vitamin C concentration is greater than 0.5 g per day

b)

Dilute urine

c)

Turbid urine

d)

pH is greater than 8.0

82.

Urine samples should be examined within 2 hours of voiding because:

a)

Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure

b)

Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of urine

c)

RBCs, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hours at room temperature

d)

Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

83.

What is the required amount of Benedict's reagent in Benedict's test?

a)

2 ml

b)

5 ml

c)

10 ml

d)

8 ml

84.

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is responsible for all of the following except:

a)

Vasodilation of the efferent arteriole

b)

Reabsorption of sodium

c)

Releasing aldosterone

d)

Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole

85.

The discrepancy between the large amount of blood in the reagent strip and the absence of RBCs microscopically is caused by:

a)

Failure to mix urine before centrifugation

b)

Contaminating oxidizing detergents in the container

c)

Presence of ascorbic acid

d)

Presence of myoglobin in the urine

86.

Which of the following is the most sterile specimen?

a)

Suprapubic aspiration

b)

Midstream clean catch

c)

Catheterized

d)

Three- glass

87.

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine clearance: 24-hour urine volume: 720 mL+ serum creatinine: 5.0 mg/dL urine creatinine: 200 mg/dL

a)

70 ml/min

b)

50 ml/min

c)

25 ml/min

d)

20 ml/min

88.

Hartnup disease is a disorder associated with the metabolism of:

a)

Tryptophan

b)

Glycosaminoglycans

c)

Phenylalanine

d)

Cystine

89.

Excess urine on the reagent strip can turn a normal pH result into a falsely acidic pH when which of the following reagents runs into the pH pad?

a)

Tetrabromphenol blue

b)

Glucose oxidase

c)

Citrate buffer

d)

Copper sulfate

90.

Which of the following is a tryptophan disorder?

a)

Cystinuria

b)

Indicanuria

c)

Alkaptonuria

d)

Phenylketonuria

91.

A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer is 1.025, and the temperature of the urine is 10 degrees Celsius. The specific gravity should be reported as:

a)

1.025

b)

1.028

c)

1.022

d)

1.023

92.

Which of the following is NOT done by a collector during urine specimen collection for drug testing?

a)

Perform reagent strip testing

b)

Fill out a chain of custody form

c)

Inspect the specimen color

d)

Read the specimen temp

93.

Which of the following is a source of erroneous results when reagent strips are used?

a)

Dipping the reagent strip briefly into the urine specimen.

b)

Timing using a clock with a second hand

c)

Allowing excess urine to remain on the reagent strip

d)

Testing a refrigerated urine specimen that was brough to room temperature

94.

Which of the following is detected by Obermayer+IBk-s test?

a)

Muccopolysaccharides

b)

Porphyrin

c)

Indican

d)

5 HIAA

95.

A patient collecting a midstream clean-catch specimen voids immediately into the container. How could this affect the clarity and microscopic examination of the specimen?

a)

The specimen becomes turbid because of RBCs and WBCs

b)

The specimen becomes turbid because of bacteria and renal tubular epithelial cells

c)

The specimen becomes turbid because of bacteria and squamous epithelial cells.

d)

There is no effect in the clarity and microscopic results

96.

This test is used to determine what analyte?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Urobilinogen

d)

Ketones

97.

A 20-year-old female decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?

a)

Protein

b)

Ketones

c)

Blood

d)

Glucose

98.

Which of the following is true about glucose?

a)

it is not freely filtered by the glomerulus

b)

it is present in the urine in small amount

c)

it is passively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubules

d)

it is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubules

99.

Which of the following conditions can result in false-positive bilirubin results?

a)

Improper storage of the specimen

b)

Ingestion of ascorbic acid

c)

Exposure to direct light

d)

Ingestion of certain medications

100.

A urine specimen comes to the laboratory eight hours after it is collected. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored:

a)

At room temperature

b)

With formalin preservative

c)

Frozen

d)

In the refrigerator at 4-7 degrees Celsius

101.

Which of the following is hyperosmolar?

a)

proximal convoluted tubules

b)

renal cortex

c)

renal medulla

d)

glomerulus

102.

Glucose will be detected in the urine if the:

a)

Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded

b)

Protein is also present

c)

Glomerular membrane is damaged

d)

Blood level of glucose is 100 mg/dL

103.

Which of the following is associated with presence of uric acid crystals in a pediatric urine?

a)

Lesch-Nyhan disease

b)

Melituria

c)

Sanfilippo syndrome

d)

Hurler syndrome

104.

The results of the routine urinalysis are as follows: Dark yellow, hazy, specific gravity of 1.012, pH 7.0, with traces of protein, negative glucose, negative ketones, negative blood, negative bilirubin, normal urobilinogen, negative nitrite, 1+- leukocytes. Microscopic findings show 8 to 12 RBC/HPF, 40 to 50 WBC/HPF, heavy bacteria, and moderate amount of squamous epithelial cells. The following are discrepant findings, EXCEPT.

a)

Nitrite and bacteria

b)

Blood and RBCs

c)

Bilirubin and squamous epithelial cells

d)

Leukocytes and WBCs

105.

hich of the following results show characteristic urine findings from a patient with an obstruction of the bile duct?

a)

A positive test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen

b)

A negative test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen

c)

A positive test for bilirubin and a decreased amount of urobilinogen

d)

A negative test for bilirubin and an increased amount of urobilinogen

106.

If the urine has free water clearance of 5.0, it means that it is:

a)

dilute

b)

acidic

c)

concentrated

d)

basic

107.

The urine specimen submitted has 10-15 RBCs per high power field but the result for blood using a reagent strip is negative. The results can be because of

a)

dilute urine

b)

diuretics

c)

high blood pressure medicines

d)

ascorbic acid

108.

The test 2,4 Dinitrophenylhydrazine detects which amino acid disorder?

a)

Phenylketonuria

b)

MSUD

c)

Alkaptonuria

d)

Cystinuria

109.

The principle of the reagent strip test for urobilinogen is the:

a)

Peroxidase reaction

b)

Diazo reaction

c)

Ehrlich reaction

d)

Greiss reaction

110.

Ketonuria in a newborn is an indication of:

a)

cystinuria

b)

alkaptonuria

c)

MSUD

d)

phenylketonuria