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ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2 FINAL

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Nociceptors are not protected by accessory structures, so they are stimulated by many different types of stimuli.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The ____ the receptive field, the ___ difficult it is to localize the pain.

a)

Larger; more

b)

Larger; less

c)

Smaller; less

d)

Smaller; more

3.

_____ order-neurons synapse with ___ order-neurons, in the ____ or brain stem.

a)

First; Second; Spinal Cord

b)

First; Third; Cerebellum

c)

First; Second; Thalamus

d)

Second; Third; Spinal Cord

4.

The ____ pathway provides voluntary control over skeletal muscles.

a)

Lateral pathway

b)

Corticospinal pathway

c)

Spinothalamic pathway

d)

Medial pathway

5.

When a person has a heart attack they may feel pain in their left arm. This is a concept known as ____.

a)

Referred pain

b)

Inferred pain

c)

Viscerally transferred pain

d)

Referenced pain

6.

_____ adapting receptors respond strongly at first, then action potentials decrease in frequency.

a)

Slow

b)

Intermediate

c)

Fast

d)

None of these

7.

____ pathways take sensory information to the brain, and ___ pathways send motor commands from the brain to the rest of the body.

a)

Primary; Secondary

b)

Efferent; Afferent

c)

Arriving; Exiting

d)

Afferent; Efferent

8.

Glucose concentration is usually high in ____. Creatine concentration is usually high in ___.

a)

Plasma; Urine

b)

Urine; Plasma

c)

Plasma; Plasma

d)

Urine; Urine

9.

Which of the following is a function of the kidneys?

a)

Excrete metabolic wastes

b)

Produce hormones

c)

Filter Lymph

d)

Regulate blood glucose levels

e)

Regulate blood volume

10.

In the nephron, most of the absorption of water occurs at the ____.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

PCT

c)

DCT

d)

Collecting Duct

11.

____ is the most abundant organic waste excreted in urine, and it comes from the breakdown of ____.

a)

Urea; nucleic acids

b)

Urea; proteins

c)

Creatine; amino acids

d)

Creatine; nucleic acids

12.

Carbohydrates FIRST begin to be digested in the ____ by the enzyme ____.

a)

Duodenum; pancreatic amylase

b)

Small intestine; pancreatic amylase

c)

Stomach; salivary amylase

d)

Oral cavity; salivary amylase

13.

Parietal cells secrete ____ which activates ____.

a)

Pepsin; HCL

b)

Mucus; pepsinogen

c)

HCL; pepsinogen

d)

Amylase; HCL

14.

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called

a)

Excretion

b)

Digestion

c)

Absorption

d)

Ingestion

15.

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ____.

a)

Carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract

b)

Collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver

c)

Rectum glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low

d)

Distribute hormones throughout the body

16.

Digestion and absorption of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged.

a)

Starches

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

17.

Which hormone stimulates insulin release and mildly inhibits HCL production?

a)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

b)

Gastrin

c)

Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

d)

Secretin

18.

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help you digest the meal?

a)

Trypsin

b)

Gastrin

c)

Amylase

d)

Pepsin

19.

Which hormone increases HCL secretion and stimulates Gi tract motility?

a)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

b)

Gastrin

c)

Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

d)

Secretin

20.

Boyle's law states that the pressure of gas is ____.

a)

directly proportional to the atmospheric pressure

b)

directly proportional to the volume of its container

c)

inversely proportional to volume of the lungs

d)

always higher in the atmosphere that in the lungs

21.

The ____ measures the volume of air moved in or out of the lungs upon the contraction or relaxation of the diaphragm.

a)

Inspiratory Reserve Volume

b)

None of these

c)

Tidal Volume

d)

Total Lung Capacity

22.

Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ____.

a)

rapidly decreasing

b)

equal to the pressure in the atmosphere

c)

not fluctuating

d)

less than the pressure in the atmosphere

e)

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

23.

An antigen is ____.

a)

any molecule that the body recognizes as foreign

b)

the DNA or RNA of an infected pathogen

c)

an alternate term for an MHC complex

d)

the collection of circulating proteins which kill or tag microbes

24.

The transfer of antibodies from mom to the growing fetus during a pregnancy is ____ ____ immunity. Whereas the generation of antibodies after immunization via a vaccine is ____ ____ immunity.

a)

Naturally acquired passive; naturally acquired passive

b)

Artificially acquired passive; artificially acquired active

c)

Naturally acquired passive; artificially acquired active

d)

Artificially acquired active; naturally acquired passive

25.

Memory cells play a vital immune role ____.

a)

in the primary immune response

b)

when you are exposed to a disease for the second time

c)

when you are first exposed to a disease for the second time

d)

in non-specific immunity

26.

During a ____ immune response there are more memory cells, so the response will be ____.

a)

Primary; faster and stronger

b)

Secondary; slower and weaker

c)

Secondary; faster and stronger

d)

Primary; slower and weaker

27.

These cells are involved in innate immunity and destroy infected tumor cells: ____. These cells are activated by Helper T cells: ____.

a)

NK cells; T cells

b)

NK cells: T and B cells

c)

NK cells; B cells

d)

T and B cells; NK cells

e)

NK, T, and B cells; NK cells

28.

Why is a moderate fever helpful in fighting infection?

a)

The increase of temperature inhibits somatic cell biochemical reactions

b)

The increase in temperature may inhibit pathogen growth.

c)

The increase in temperature results in the denaturation of somatic cell proteins.

d)

The increase in temperature speeds up repair reactions

29.

T cells are:

a)

made and mature in the thymus

b)

made and mature in the bone marrow

c)

made in the bone marrow but mature in the thymus

d)

made in the thymus but mature in the bone marrow

30.

Herd immunity refers to:

a)

Low rates of infection within a population due to an immunized majority of the population.

b)

High rates of infection due to lack of immunization.

c)

A situation where an individual will not contract disease.

d)

Low rates of infection within a population due to lack of virulence.

31.

Mast cells release ____; this along with other chemicals that cause ____. These symptoms may also be present in response to pollen resulting in allergies.

a)

Histamines; vasoconstriction

b)

Histamines; vasodialation

c)

Anti-histamines; vasodialation

d)

Anti-histamines; vasoconstriction

32.

____ cells mature into ____ to produce antibodies.

a)

B cells; T cells

b)

Plasma cells; B cells

c)

T cells; Plasma cells

d)

B cells; Plasma cells

33.

Total peripheral resistance (TPR):

a)

Increases with increasing the length of blood vessel

b)

Increases as blood vessel diameter increases

c)

Decreases as blood viscosity increases

d)

Is not a major factor in blood pressure

34.

Which of the following would have the LEAST influence on blood pressure?

a)

White blood cell count

b)

Blood volume

c)

Cardiac output

d)

Total peripheral resistance

35.

The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ____.

a)

Shock that results from large scale loss of blood volume or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

b)

The form caused by anaphylaxix

c)

Always fatal

d)

Any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally

36.

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ____.

a)

Capillaries

b)

Arteries

c)

Arterioles

d)

Veins

37.

This structure helps to control the pressure of blood into the capillary beds.

a)

Precapillary anastomose

b)

Precapillary vessel

c)

Precapillary sphincter

d)

Precapillary regulator

38.

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

a)

Tunica adventia

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica intima

d)

Tunica externa

39.

In fetal circulation, the ____ allows blood to flow from the right to the left atrium.

a)

Pulmonary arteries

b)

Foramen ovale

c)

Ligamentum arteriosus

d)

Ductus arteriosus

e)

Pulmonary veins

40.

The closing of the ____ valves produce the second heart sound known as the ____. The closing of the ____ valves produce the first heart sound known as the ____.

a)

Atrioventricular; Lubb; Semilunar; Dubb

b)

Atrioventricular; Dupp; Semilunar; Lubb

c)

Semilunar; Dubb; Atrioventricular; Lubb

d)

Semilunar; Lubb; Atrioventricular; Dubb

41.

____ sensory receptors are distributed throughout the body whereas ____ receptors are more localized.

a)

General; specialized

b)

Specialized; common

c)

Specific; general

d)

Specialized; general

42.

____ are to pain receptors as ___ are to receptors that monitor the positions of skeletal muscles and joints.

a)

Nociceptors; proprioceptors

b)

None of these

c)

Proprioceptors; nociceptors

d)

Nociceptors; baroreceptors

43.

____ is the major processing and sorting center for sensory information.

a)

Primary sensory cortex

b)

Thalamus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Solitary nucleus

44.

In the sympathetic division of the ANS, preganglionic axons are ____ and postganglionic axons are ____.

a)

Short; medium

b)

Short; long

c)

Long; short

d)

Medium; long

45.

Which of the following adrenergic receptors plays the major role in heart activity?

a)

Alpha 1

b)

Beta 2

c)

Beta 1

d)

Alpha 2

46.

The ____ contains the integrative centers for the ANS.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Nucleus Basalis

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Thalamus

47.

Sympathetic division stimulation causes ____.

a)

Increased blood glucose, increased GI tract motility, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

b)

Decreased blood glucose, increased Gi tract motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Increased blood glucose, decreased GI tract motility, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

d)

Decreased blood glucose, increased Gi tract motility, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

48.

Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ____.

a)

Visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons

b)

Visceral arcs do not use inegrations centers

c)

Somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not posess

d)

Visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

49.

Which of these brain regions is involved in memory consolidation and access?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Nucleus basalis

d)

Cerebral cortex

e)

Hypothalamus

50.

Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers, EXCEPT:

a)

Increased blood flow to skeletal muscles

b)

Increased blood flow to the digestive tract

c)

Increased sweat secretion

d)

Dilation of the pupils

e)

Increased breakdown of lipids by adipose cells

51.

What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?

a)

Iris

b)

Pupil

c)

Cornea

d)

Lens

52.

Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary ____, and sympathetic activation causes ____.

a)

Dilation; constriction

b)

Constriction; constriction

c)

Vasoconstriction; vasodilation

d)

Constriction; dilation

53.

Light passes through the following structures in which order?

a)

Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor, retina

b)

Cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, retina

c)

Aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor, retina

d)

Vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea, retina

54.

____ is not one of the primary tastes.

a)

Unami

b)

Sweet

c)

Bitter

d)

Sour

55.

In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ____.

a)

Medial retina

b)

Optic chiasm

c)

Primary visual cortex

d)

Lateral geniculate body

56.

Odorants bind to the ____ on the receptor cells which will generate an ____ potential, and the signal will be carried to the brain via the CN #____.

a)

Stereocilia; action potential; CN 1

b)

Olfactory cilia; action potential; CN 1

c)

Olfactory cilia; graded potential; CN 2

d)

Stereocilia; action potential; CN 2

e)

Olfactory cilia; action potential; CN 8

57.

Ordinarily. it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ____.

a)

Does not contain connective tissue

b)

Has no nerves supply

c)

Is not a living tissue

d)

Has no blood supply

58.

The order of sound moving into the ear is:

a)

Round window; tympanic membrane; stapes; incus; malleus

b)

Oval window; tympanic membrane; stapes; incus; malleus

c)

Tympanic membrane; malleus; incus; stapes; oval window

d)

Tympanic membrane; malleus; incus; stapes; round window

59.

The pineal gland produces ____ which influences circadian rhythms, but also serves as an ____.

a)

Melanin; antioxidant

b)

Melatonin; oxidant

c)

Melatonin; antioxidant

d)

Melanin; oxidant

60.

Steroid hormones exert their action by ____.

a)

entering the cell and activating the release of protein hormones

b)

Activating the hypothalamic release of regulating hormones

c)

Binging to cell receptors and initiating cAMP activity.

d)

Entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

61.

In the pancreas, ____ cells produce insulin which ____ blood glucose levels.

a)

Alpha cells; decrease

b)

Alpha cells; increase

c)

Beta cells; increase

d)

Beta cells; decrease

62.

The Zona ____ produces glucocorticoids that affect glucose metabolism.

a)

Zona glomerulasa

b)

Zona reticularis

c)

Zona fasciculata

d)

Zona islets

63.

If blood clots too slowly, a ____ can occur. However, if blood clots to easily ____ can form.

a)

Hemorrhage; thrombus

b)

Thrombus; hemorrhage

c)

Hemorrhage; hemophilic

d)

Thrombus; atherosclerosis

64.

The universal donor is type ____: so it has ____ antigens on the surface of the RBCs.

a)

O-; no

b)

O+; Rh

c)

AB+; A,B, and Rh

d)

AB-; A and B

65.

Thrombocytes or ____ are cell fragments derived from a ____ involved in ____.

a)

Platelets, megakaryocyte; clotting

b)

Platelets; magnakaryocyte; clotting

c)

Leukocytes; megakaryocytes; lymphopoiesis

d)

Erythrocytes; megakaryocyte; erthropoiesis

66.

____ measures the percentage of RBCs in centrifuged whole blood. An acceptable value for a male would be ____.

a)

Hematocrit; 45%

b)

Blood count; 40%

c)

Hematocrit; 40%

d)

Hematocrit; 60%

67.

RBCs contain ____, which has ____ that helps to readily transport O2.

a)

Hemoglobin, Fe2+

b)

Hemoglobin, I+

c)

Globulin, Fe2+

d)

Globulin, I-

68.

These are two types of agranular leukocytes:

a)

Lymphocytes and monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes and neutrophils

c)

Monocytes and neutrophils

d)

Monocytes and basophils

69.

A person that has blood type A- could receive blood from a donor that is:

a)

A-

b)

O-

c)

A+

d)

O+

e)

AB+

70.

The thickest layer of the heart wall is the ____. It is the thickest in the ____ ____ because it is used to pump out blood for the ____ circuit.

a)

Endocardium; left ventricle; systemic

b)

Myocardium; left ventricle; systemic

c)

Myocardium; left atrium; systemic

d)

Epicardium; left atrium; pulmonary

e)

Endocardium; left ventricle; pulmonary

71.

Cardiac muscle can be differentiated from other muscle types because it is ____, it has ____ and is excited by ____.

a)

Branched; intercalated disks; Ach

b)

Unbranched; intercalated disks; NE

c)

Branched; intercalated disks; NE

d)

Branched; intercalated disks; Ach

e)

Branched; actin and myosin; NE

72.

____ blood arrives at the Left Atrium via the ____. From there blood travels to through the ____ valve to reach the Left Ventricle.

a)

Oxygenated; pulmonary veins; bicuspid valve

b)

Oxygenated; pulmonary veins; mitral valve

c)

Oxygenated; pulmonary veins; tricuspid valve

d)

Deoxygenated; pulmonary veins; bicuspid valve

e)

Deoxygenated; vena cava; mitral valve

73.

If a patient has high cholesterol they probably have high levels of ____. Their physician may ask them to modify their diet with the goal to ____ LDLs, and ____ HDLs. They could do this through ____.

a)

HDL; decrease; increase; going on a strict exercise regiment

b)

HDL; decrease; increase; going on a reduced lipid diet

c)

LDL; decrease; increase; going on a strict exercise regimen

d)

LDL; increase; decrease; diet and exercise

e)

LDL; decrease; increase; diet and exercise

74.

Blood arrives to the right ventricle when the ____ valve opens. From the right ventricle, blood is sent to the ____ as blood passes through the ____ valve.

a)

Right AV valve; aorta; aortic semilunar vavle

b)

Tricuspid valve; pulmonary trunk; pulmonary semilunar valve

c)

Bicuspid valve; pulmonary trunk; pulmonary semilunar valve

d)

Tricuspid valve; aorta; aortic semilunar valve

75.

Urine formation involves ____.

a)

Turbulence

b)

Reabsorption

c)

Filtration

d)

Secretion

76.

In the nephron, most of the secretion of wastes occurs at the:

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

DCT

c)

Rectum

d)

Collecting Duct

e)

PCT

77.

Glycosuria indicates which of the following:

a)

Damage to the filtration membrane

b)

High levels of gluconeogenesis in the cells

c)

Above normal levels of sugar in the plasma

d)

Damage to Bowman's capsule

78.

A doctor consulting a patient that recently has had their gallbladder removed would likely advise ____.

a)

A low to no carb diet

b)

Fewer but large meals

c)

Increasing unsaturated fats while eliminating trans fats in their diets

d)

Eating foods that are low in fat

79.

Part of the enteric nervous system (ENS) is composed of the ____, which controls secretions.

a)

None of these

b)

Submucosal plexus

c)

Myenteric plexus

d)

Enteric nervous system

80.

The law that applies to the amount of CO2 you could dissolve in a soda is called ____ law.

a)

Dalton's

b)

Murphy's

c)

Henry's

d)

Boyle's

81.

Which cells secrete surfactant into a thin tissue fluid surrounding the alveoli?

a)

Type 1 alveolar cells

b)

Epithelial cells

c)

Septal cells

d)

Macrophages

82.

The alveolar membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of:

a)

Simple squamous epithelium

b)

Moist cuboidal epithelium

c)

Ciliated squamous epithelium

d)

Mesothelium and endothelium

e)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

83.

Hypoventilation triggers the activity of:

a)

Central chemoreceptors

b)

Central and peripheral chemoreceptors

c)

Protective reflexes

d)

Peripheral chemoreceptors

84.

Sensory input is routed to the respiratory reflex center in the medulla via:

a)

Peripheral chemoreceptors

b)

Baroreceptors

c)

Central chemoreceptors

d)

Proprioceptors

e)

Pulmonary stretch receptors

85.

During normal brathing:

a)

Inhalation and exhalation involve muscular contractions

b)

Inhalation involves muscular contractions and expirations is passive

c)

Inhalation and expiration are both passive

d)

Inhalation is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions

86.

An accumulation of H+ ions as a result of hypercapnia and hypoxemia is called:

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic Acidosis

87.

Which are the contributing factors to Total Peripheral Resistance?

a)

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

vascular resistance

c)

Blood viscocity

d)

Turbulence

e)

Venous pressure

88.

Which hormones contribute to raising arterial blood pressure?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Angiotensin II

c)

Natriuretic peptides

d)

Anti-diuretic hormone

89.

This type of cellular communication transfers information from cell to cell within the same tissue.

a)

Exocrine

b)

Holocrine

c)

Paracrine

d)

Endocrine

90.

Which of these hormones are tropic hormones?

a)

ACTH

b)

GH

c)

ADH

d)

FSH

e)

LH

91.

Long term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called:

a)

Tertiary memories

b)

Reflexive memories

c)

Consolidated memories

d)

Secondary memories

e)

Quaternary memories

92.

Increased lacrimal secretions are in response to increased ____ activity.

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Limbic system

c)

Sysmpathetic

d)

Pain receptor

93.

During this stage of sleep you are the least receptive to outside stimuli.

a)

REM sleep

b)

Non-REM sleep

c)

Slow-wave sleep

d)

Deep sleep

94.

Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ____.

a)

Brain stem reflex centers

b)

Motor cortex

c)

Visual cortex

d)

Back muscles

95.

The ____ is for hearing sounds, and the ____ is for detecting angular acceleration.

a)

Vestibule; cochlea

b)

Cochlea; semicircular canal

c)

Cochlea; vestibule

d)

Semicircular canal; vestibule

96.

Which are the two hormones that are NOT released by the Adenohypophyses?

a)

Oxytocin and FSH

b)

ADH and FSH

c)

GH and Oxytocin

d)

Oxytocin and ADH

97.

In the pancreas, ____ cells produce glucagon which ____ blood glucose levels.

a)

Alpha cells; decrease

b)

Alpha cells; increase

c)

Beta cells; decrease

d)

Beta cells; increase

98.

Hormones released from the adenohypophyses are made in the ____.

a)

Thymus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Anterior pituitary

d)

Thalamus

e)

Posterior pituitary

99.

Describe the hormone interaction between PTH and calcitonin.

a)

Countering

b)

Synergystic

c)

Antagonistic

d)

Intergrative

100.

____ secretes erythropoietin (EPO) and renin in the kidneys and it's composed of _____.

a)

Glomerulus; macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

b)

Juxtaglomerular complex; macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

c)

Juxtaglomerular complex; juxtaglomerular cells

d)

Juxtaglumerular complex; macula densa

101.

The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following?

a)

Too much protein in the diet

b)

High levels of transcription and translation by the body tissues

c)

Damage to the renal tubules

d)

Damage to the filtration membrane

102.

The ____ has the greatest variation among vessel types.

a)

Reticular fibers

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica externa

d)

Tunica interna

103.

In the EKG, the P-wave corresponds to:

a)

Atrial systole

b)

Atrial contraction

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Atrial diastole

e)

Atrial depolarization

104.

A patient with B- blood could give blood to:

a)

AB+

b)

B+

c)

AB-

d)

B-

105.

Which of these are the functions of blood?

a)

Store lipids

b)

Transportation of dissolved substances

c)

Thermoregulation

d)

Defense against pathogens

e)

Restriction of fluid loss at injury sites

106.

____ is responsible for the condition known as cardiac arrest. This can quickly be deadly as the body enters ____ and is unable to generate ____ via ____.

a)

Ventricular fibrillation; Hypoxia; ATP; aerobic respiration

b)

Atrial fibrillation; Hypoxia; ATP; aerobic respiration

c)

Ventricular fibrillation; Hyperoxia; Amino acids; aerobic respiration

d)

Atrial fibrillation; hyperoxia; lipids; anaerobic respiration

e)

Atrial quivering; hyperoxia; carbohydrates; anaerobic respiration

107.

Whole blood is composed of ____ and formed elements. In order of highest prevalence first, the 3 formed elements are: ___, ___, and ___.

a)

Plasma; erythrocytes, platelets, WBCs

b)

Plasma; leukocytes, RBCs, platelets

c)

Water; hemoglobin, leukocytes, RBCs

d)

Water; RBCs, hemoglobin, leukocytes

108.

In an EKG, during the QRS complex, what is happening in the heart?

a)

Atrial diastole

b)

Ventricular systole

c)

Ventricular depolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization

e)

Ventricular diastole

109.

When the left AV valves do not close fully this is called _____, which is a type of ____. This tends to ____ cardiac output.

a)

Semilunar valve prolapse; valve insufficiency; decrease

b)

Mitral valve prolapse; valve insufficiency; decrease

c)

Tricuspid valve prolapse; valve insufficiency; decrease

d)

Mitral valve prolapse; valve insufficiency; increase

e)

Tricuspid valve prolapse; valve insufficiency; increase

110.

If the diameter of the afferent arterioles leading to the glomerulus increases (vasodilation) which of the following will likely occur?

a)

Glomerular hydrostatic pressure will decrease

b)

Systemic blood pressure will go up

c)

Urine output will increase

d)

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will increase