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MCQ - 225

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The basic taxonomic unit in microbiology:

a)

genus

b)

family

c)

Species

d)

order

e)

class

2.

A distinctive feature of a prokaryotic cell:

a)

with nuclear substance (nucleoid)

b)

reproduces by meiosis

c)

has a nucleus

d)

has mitochondria

e)

ribosome size is 80S

3.

How long do bacterial spores live in the environment?

a)

several years

b)

a few minutes

c)

a few hours

d)

several days

e)

several weeks

4.

Bacterial organelles involved in adhesion and conjugation processes:

a)

capsule

b)

Pili

c)

flagella

d)

spores

e)

mesosome

5.

Ribosomes are:

a)

cytoplasmic membrane derivative

b)

supply of nutrients

c)

to save the species

d)

protein synthesis center

e)

protects the cell from adverse external influences

6.

Functions of flagella:

a)

provides movement

b)

gives bacteria a certain shape

c)

protects the cell from adverse external influences

d)

transports solutes into the cell

e)

is involved in cell division

7.

Cocci are arranged in chains:

a)

micrococci

b)

Streptococci

c)

sarina

8.

Importance of bacterial spore formation:

a)

ability to reproduce

b)

participates in nutrition

c)

the ability to move

d)

ability to survive in the environment

e)

the ability to protect the human body

9.

Cocci are arranged like grapes:

a)

sarcins

b)

streptococci

c)

Staphylococci

d)

bacillus

e)

micrococci

10.

Chlamydia and rickettsia are different from other bacteria:

a)

they cannot breed in an oxygen environment

b)

forms spores under unfavorable conditions

c)

does not cause infectious disease in humans

d)

are intracellular parasites

e)

has no cell wall

11.

Color staining of Gram-positive bacteria:

a)

brown

b)

Blue

c)

yellow

d)

green

e)

red

12.

In what unit is the size of bacteria measured?

a)

in nanometers

b)

in millimeters

c)

in micrometer

d)

in angstroms

e)

in centimeters

13.

For what purpose smears are fixed?

a)

for the detection of flagella

b)

for degreasing preparations

c)

to identify spores

d)

for attaching bacteria to a glass slide

e)

to identify capsules

14.

The location of cocci in the smear depends on:

a)

to the number and arrangement of fibers

b)

to the size of cocci

c)

to the feature of the capsule

15.

The main forms of bacteria:

a)

spherical, rod-shaped, spiral

b)

conical, crimped, cubic

c)

bullet-shaped, filiform, cubic

d)

rod-shaped, crimped, cubic

e)

spherical, filiform, cubic

16.

Spore formation conditions:

a)

A. adverse external environment

b)

B. when ingested

c)

C. when exposed to sulfuric acid

d)

D. with volumetric oxygen access

e)

E. depends on the morphology of bacteria

17.

Bacteria without a cell wall:

a)

rickettsia

b)

mycoplasma

c)

spirochetes

d)

actinomycetes

e)

chlamydia

18.

The bacterial cell wall is characterized by:

a)

includes cholesterol

b)

contains chitin

c)

consists of a bilipid layer

d)

includes a complex biopolymer – peptidoglycan

e)

consists of individual protein subunits - capsomeres

19.

Peritrichous are bacteria that have:

a)

flagella over the entire surface of the cell

b)

polar single flagella

c)

polar beams of flagella

d)

single polar flagellum

e)

flagella on both sides

20.

The purpose of applying Gram stain:

a)

identification of flagella, determines mobile activity

b)

difference of gram-negative bacteria from gram-positive

c)

identification of protoplasts, spheroplasts, L-form bacteria

d)

detection of viruses in the patient’s material

e)

used to identify fungi

21.

Fixation of a smear made from a microbial culture is carried out:

a)

in the Nikiforov mixture

b)

with acetone

c)

in flame burner

22.

Bacterial division occurs:

a)

by budding

b)

by binary fission

c)

by fragmentation

d)

to the conjugation process

e)

from divisions in different planes

23.

The morphology of bacteria is:

a)

ability to dye with aniline dyes

b)

feature of growth in nutrient medium

c)

relation to air composition

d)

the ability to ferment carbohydrates

e)

size, shape, nature of arrangement

24.

To study the morphology of bacteria in a colored state, use:

a)

luminescent microscope

b)

phase contrast microscopy

c)

immersion lens

d)

dry lens

e)

dark field of view

25.

The method of studying bacteria in a living state:

a)

simple coloring

b)

according to Neisser

c)

according to Burri

d)

complex coloring

e)

hanging drop

26.

The function of the cell wall:

a)

energetic

b)

Defense

c)

participates in metabolism

d)

participates in breathing

e)

participates in reproduction

27.

The following reagents are used for Gram stain:

a)

hydrogen peroxide

b)

vesuvin

c)

crystal violet

d)

azur-eosin

e)

methylene blue

28.

A nucleoid is:

a)

accumulation of ribosomes

b)

information RNA

c)

single-stranded DNA

d)

double-stranded DNA molecule

e)

fragmented RNA

29.

Which of the following is the main problem in modern microbiology?

a)

overcoming antibiotic resistance of bacteria

b)

obtaining microorganisms for the purification of petroleum products

c)

obtaining genetically modified food

d)

study of intestinal microflora in animals

e)

development of a vaccine for cattle

30.

The main functions of the cytoplasmic membrane:

a)

carries out transport of nutrients into the cell

b)

gives a certain form to bacteria

c)

does not form mesosomes

d)

protects the cell

e)

does not contain respiratory chains

31.

While microscoping smear, stained by India ink method. What can be seen:

a)

chaotic mobility of bacteria

b)

the process of sporulation

c)

gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

d)

elementary and reticular bodies of chlamydia

e)

colorless capsules on a dark background

32.

Gram stain: filter paper impregnated with crystal violet was placed on a fixed smear, then what will you do:

a)

washing with water

b)

discoloration with alcohol

c)

fixed with iodine solution

d)

fuchsin stain

e)

microscopy

33.

A laboratory technician discovered a spherical purple colored bacteria, arranged in clusters, during microscopy of a smear from the sputum of a patient with pneumonia stained by the Gram method. Indicate which microorganisms have these characteristics:

a)

E.coli

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Staphylococci

d)

Spirochete

e)

Mold fungus

34.

In a stained sputum smear of a patient with tuberculosis, red slightly curved rods were found against the background of fibrin filaments, other microorganisms in blue. Specify coloring method:

a)

Gram

b)

Neisser

c)

Burri-Hins

d)

Ziehl-Neelsen

e)

Albert

35.

Acid resistance of microorganisms depends on:

a)

with the presence of a nucleic acid

b)

with the presence of fatty-wax substances in the cell wall

36.

When preparing a smear, the researcher applied a drop of sodium chloride to a glass slide and introduced a bacterial culture into it, dried it, and fixed it on Bunsen burner. Microscopy did not detect bacteria. Indicate the reason:

a)

distilled water was used

b)

after fixation, the bacteria dissolved in sodium chloride

c)

the wrong way to fix the smear

d)

microscopy was performed without using immersion oil

e)

bacteria were not stained

37.

Significance of immersion microscopy system:

a)

distorts ray refraction

b)

increases the resolution ability of the microscope

c)

the refractive index of immersion oil is close to the refractive index of air

d)

the same refractive index of oil and glass

e)

the different refractive index of oil and glass

38.

Divisions of the prokaryotic kingdom:

a)

aerobes and anaerobes

b)

lactose negative and lactose positive

c)

photobacteria and scotobacteria

d)

heterotrophs and autotrophs

e)

eukaryotes and viruses

39.

The purpose of the bacterioscopic diagnostic method is:

a)

smear preparation and microscopy

b)

isolation of pure culture

c)

identification of the selected culture

d)

infection of experimental animals

e)

determination of antigenic structure

40.

What coloring method is used to identify the capsule:

a)

Ziehl-Neelsen

b)

Neisser

c)

Gram

d)

Burri-Hins

e)

Romanovsky-Giemsa

41.

What coloring method is used to detect volutin grains?

a)

Ziehl-Neelsen

b)

Burri-Hins

c)

Neisser

d)

Gram

e)

Romanovsky-Giemsa

42.

Which of the following is a method for isolation of pure culture and identification?

a)

smear preparation and microscopy

b)

allergic test of the selected culture

c)

infection of experimental animals

d)

determination of antigenic structure

e)

isolation of pure culture and identification

43.

Pure culture is:

a)

a collection of bacteria of the same species

b)

a collection of bacteria of the same family

c)

a collection of viruses and bacteria of different species

d)

a collection of bacteria of two species

e)

a collection of bacteria of the same genus

44.

The thermostat uses:

a)

to grow microorganisms

b)

to sterilize laboratory dishes

c)

to sterilize surgical instruments

d)

to sterilize nutrient media

e)

to strengthen spore formation of bacteria

45.

Who suggested the use of the bacteriological method (isolation of pure culture):

a)

L.Pasteur

b)

I.Mechnikov

c)

R.Koch

d)

A.van-Levenguk

e)

C.Ebert

46.

On yolk-salt agar can be distinguished:

a)

enterobacteria

b)

Staphylococci

c)

streptococci

d)

mycobacteria

e)

rickettsia

47.

Saccharolytic activity is determined:

a)

on bismuth-sulfite agar

b)

on blood agar

c)

on Hiss medium

d)

on blood-tellurite agar

e)

on serum agar

48.

Elective media:

a)

blood agar

b)

meat-pepton agar

c)

Endo medium

d)

yolk-salt agar

e)

meat-pepton broth

49.

The transport of nutrients into the cell according to the concentration gradient is called:

a)

passive diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

translocation

e)

osmosis

50.

The transport of nutrients into the cell against the concentration gradient occurs due to:

a)

passive diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

translocation

e)

osmosis

51.

The transport of nutrients into the cell according to the concentration gradient with the participation of permeases is called:

a)

passive diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

translocation

e)

osmosis

52.

Enzymes released into the environment are called:

a)

Exoenzymes

b)

endoenzymes

c)

lyases

d)

ligases

e)

hydrolases

53.

The substrate for saccharolytic enzymes are:

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

hydrogen peroxide

d)

carbohydrates

e)

amino acids

54.

Using the energy of sunlight is typical for:

a)

autotrophs

b)

Phototrophs

c)

heterotrophs

d)

chemotrophs

e)

metotrophs

55.

Select differential diagnostic media:

a)

MPA and blood agar

b)

Rapopport and glycerin mixture

c)

Mac Conkey and alkaline agar

d)

Leffler medium and serum agar

e)

Endo and Hiss

56.

A set of differential-diagnostic media used for the isolation of enterobacteriaceae:

a)

meat-peptone agar, sugar broth, Levin

b)

blood agar, yolk-salt agar, serum agar

c)

alkaline agar, bile broth, selenite broth

d)

Endo, Mac Conkey, bismuth-sulfite agar+

e)

Roux, Leffler medium and serum agar

57.

The main method of reproduction of bacteria:

a)

sporulation

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

binary division

e)

fragmentation

58.

Growth factors for bacteria include:

a)

isotonic sodium chloride solution

b)

sulfuric acid

c)

Vitamins+

d)

high oxygen concentration

e)

antibiotics

59.

Which group of bacteria can be classified according to temperature:

a)

auxotrophy

b)

autotrophs

c)

anaerobes

d)

eukaryotes

e)

Mesophiles+

60.

Obligate anaerobe:

a)

botulism causative agent

b)

diphtheria causative agent

c)

scarlet fever

d)

causative agent of brucellosis

e)

plague causative agent

61.

Obligate anaerobes:

a)

need free oxygen

b)

have the enzyme superoxide dismutase

c)

in the presence of oxygen die +

d)

form catalase

e)

grows on serum agar

62.

Types of bacterial respiration:

a)

chemical and physical

b)

aerobic and anaerobic

c)

chemical and biological

d)

oxidative and reducing

e)

physical and biological

63.

Facultative anaerobes grow:

a)

only in oxygen nutrient medium environment

b)

in oxygen-free nutrient medium environment

c)

in the presence of inert gases

d)

in the presence of carbon dioxide

e)

in oxygen and oxygen-free nutrient medium environment

64.

The cultural properties of bacteria are:

a)

the ability to be stained

b)

biochemical activity

c)

the antigenic composition

d)

growth property on nutrient media

e)

form of the bacterial cell

65.

The bacteriological method of research is:

a)

preparation of smear

b)

infection of animals

c)

preparation of the vaccine

d)

determination of immune status

e)

the isolation of the pure culture

66.

The colony is:

a)

accumulation of one microbial cell on a nutrient medium

b)

factor of pathogenicity of microorganisms

c)

the increase in the size of bacterial cells

d)

sporulation

e)

capsule formation

67.

Two-component bacterial enzymes consist of:

a)

protein and lipopolysaccharide

b)

protein and DNA

c)

protein and coenzyme

d)

protein and carbohydrate

e)

protein and peptidoglycan

68.

One of the functions of bacterial pigments is:

a)

high temperature protection

b)

protection from UV rays

c)

low temperature protection

d)

protect bacterial morphology

e)

protection from antibiotics

69.

Bacteria that synthesize growth factors themselves:

a)

auxotrophs

b)

Prototrophs

c)

heterotrophs

d)

microaerophiles

e)

saprophytes

70.

Bacteria that require the presence of a growth factor in the nutrient medium:

a)

Auxotrophs

b)

prototrophs

c)

heterotrophs

d)

parasites

e)

autotrophs

71.

Methods for growing strict anaerobes include:

a)

histological, chemical, biological

b)

therapeutic, prophylactic, radiation

c)

physical, chemical, radiation

d)

physical, chemical, biological

e)

innovative, biochemical, natural

72.

Nutrient media are divided by origin:

a)

domestic, foreign

b)

universal, special

c)

sterile, non-sterile

d)

liquid, dense

e)

natural, artificial

73.

Anaerobic jar is commonly used to grow:

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Klebsiella spp.

c)

Clostridium tetani

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Streptococcus pyogenes

74.

Obligate aerobes:

a)

they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen

b)

they may even die on exposure to oxygen

c)

grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen

d)

they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%)

e)

does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source

75.

Obligate anaerobes:

a)

they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen

b)

they may even die on exposure to oxygen

c)

grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen

d)

they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%)

e)

does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source

76.

Facultative anaerobes:

a)

they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen

b)

they may even die on exposure to oxygen

c)

grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen

d)

they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%)

e)

does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source

77.

Microaerophiles are called microorganisms:

a)

they have an absolute or obligate requirement for oxygen

b)

they may even die on exposure to oxygen

c)

grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen

d)

they grow best at low oxygen tension (~5%)

e)

does not use atmospheric oxygen as an energy source

78.

Selective media:

a)

contain substances that inhibit all but a few types of bacteria and facilitate the isolation of a particular species

b)

contains substances which help to distinguish differing characteristics of bacteria

c)

contain an indicator which changes colour when a bacterium grows in them

d)

some substances are incorporated in the liquid medium which have a stimulating effect on the bacteria to be grown

e)

used to isolate auxotrophic species of bacteria

79.

Differential nutrient media:

a)

allow you to select certain types of bacteria while suppressing the growth of others

b)

allow to distinguish some types of bacteria from others by biochemical activity

c)

allow you to get the growth of different types of bacteria

d)

used to isolate auxotrophic species of bacteria

e)

used to highlight prototrophic bacteria

80.

Device for cultivation of obligate anaerobes:

a)

anaerobic jar

b)

centrifuge

c)

oven

d)

Krotov's apparatus

e)

water bath

81.

Biological method for cultivating obligate anaerobes:

a)

Fortner method

b)

Burri-Hins method

c)

Koch method

d)

Gram method

e)

Morozov's method

82.

Chemical method for cultivating obligate anaerobes:

a)

uses pyrogaloll to absorb oxygen

b)

uses reducing enzymes

c)

uses oxidative enzymes

d)

uses a bacterial culture of aerobes

e)

uses temperate bacteriophages

83.

Method for isolating a pure culture of aerobic bacteria:

a)

Burri-Hins method

b)

Castellani method

c)

Streak culture method

84.

Method for isolating a pure culture of aerobic bacteria:

a)

Burri-Hins method

b)

Pour plate culture method

c)

Castellani method

d)

Gram method

e)

Robertson method

85.

The methods of cultivating obligate anaerobes include:

a)

cultivation on Robertson’s cooked meat

b)

cultivation in blood agar

c)

cultivation under radiation

d)

cultivation in a CO2 incubator

e)

cultivation with O2 under pressure

86.

Day 1: Isolation of a pure culture of aerobic bacteria:

a)

inoculates pathological material on meat-peptone agar

b)

inoculates pathological material into meat-peptone broth

c)

studies cultural properties of microbe

d)

isolation a pure culture of microbe

e)

specifies antibiotic susceptibility of microbe

87.

Day 2: Isolation of a pure culture of aerobic bacteria:

a)

inoculates pathological material on meat-peptone agar

b)

inoculates pathological material into meat-peptone broth

c)

studies cultural properties of microbe

d)

isolation a pure culture of microbe

e)

specifies antibiotic susceptibility of microbe

88.

Day 3: Isolation of a pure culture of aerobic bacteria:

a)

inoculate a pure culture on Hiss medium

b)

inoculates pathological material on meat-peptone agar

c)

inoculates pathological material into meat-peptone broth

d)

studies cultural properties of microbe

e)

specifies antibiotic susceptibility of microbe

89.

Day 1: pure culture isolation of anaerobic bacteria:

a)

inoculates material into Robertson’s cooked meat medium

b)

inoculates on blood or sugar agars

c)

inoculates a pure culture on Hiss medium

d)

specifies antibiotic susceptibility

e)

studies cultural properties of anaerobic microbe

90.

Day 2: pure culture isolation of anaerobic bacteria:

a)

inoculates material into Robertson’s cooked meat medium

b)

inoculates on blood or sugar agars

91.

Sterilization is:

a)

acquisition of diagnostic antigens of the bacterium

b)

preparation of therapeutic serums

c)

complete destruction of the microorganism

d)

vaccine preparation

e)

method of culturing bacteria

92.

The fight against insects that transmit infectious diseases is called:

a)

disinfection

b)

deratization

c)

Disinsection

d)

sterilization

e)

pasteurization

93.

The struggle with rodents, the source of pathogens of infectious diseases, is called:

a)

disinsection

b)

Deratization

c)

disinfection

d)

sterilization

e)

pasteurization

94.

Antiseptics is:

a)

a set of measures aimed at the destruction of bacteria on damaged or intact areas of the skin and mucous membrane

b)

a set of measures aimed at preventing the introduction of microorganisms from the environment into the tissues of the human body

c)

set of measures aimed at disinfecting environmental objects

d)

a set of measures aimed at providing security

e)

substances that selectively inhibit the growth and development of infectious foci in the human body

95.

Sterilisation is:

a)

complete destruction of spore and vegetative forms under the influence of biological factors

b)

complete destruction of spore forms under the influence of chemicals (lysol, chloramine)

c)

the destruction of only vegetative forms

d)

complete destruction of spore and vegetative forms under the influence of chemical and physical factors

e)

complete destruction of vegetative forms under the influence of chemicals (lysol, chloramine)

96.

Disinfection by moist heat at temperature below 100°C (temperature is 63°C for 30 minutes or 72°C for 15-20 seconds followed by rapid cooling) is termed called:

a)

tyndallization

b)

pasteurization

97.

Steam sterilization at 100°C for 20 minutes on three successive days is known as:

a)

Tyndallization

b)

pasteurization

c)

inspissation

d)

antiseptics

e)

sterilisation

98.

Steam Sterilization Under Pressure:

a)

produced in Pasteur furnaces

b)

sterilization is carried out fractionally

c)

is produced in autoclaves

d)

sterilize culture media

e)

material is heated at t 50-65°C

99.

Which of the following scientists is considered the "Father of Chemotherapy"?

a)

P.Ehrlich

b)

A.Fleming

c)

S.Waxman

d)

U.Flory

e)

R.Koch

100.

The sensitivity of a microorganism to antibiotics is determined:

a)

in the agglutination reaction

b)

in the precipitation reaction

c)

in the disc-diffusion method

d)

in Grace titration

e)

in Appelman titration

101.

Find a method to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic:

a)

hanging method

b)

serial dilution method

c)

disc-diffusion method

d)

Grace method

102.

Antibiotics produced by fungi:    

a)

tetracycline 

b)

gentamicin    

c)

Nystatin

d)

erythromycin

e)

penicillin  

103.

Manufacturer of penicillin:

a)

bacillus

b)

micrococci

c)

protozoa

d)

mold fungus

e)

actinomycetes

104.

b-lactam antibiotic:

a)

Cephalosporin

b)

rifampicin

c)

nystatin

d)

gentamicin

e)

tobramycin

105.

The significance of the bactericidal effect of an antibiotic:

a)

microbe growth and reproduction is inhibited

b)

destroys microorganisms

c)

activates the growth and reproduction of microbes

d)

activates the mutation

e)

strengthens the body's defense mechanisms

106.

The significance of the bacteriostatic effect of an antibiotic:

a)

microbe growth and reproduction is inhibited+

b)

destroys microorganisms

c)

activates the mutation

d)

activates the growth and reproduction of microbes

e)

strengthens the body's defense mechanisms

107.

An antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis:

a)

tetracycline

b)

levomycetin

c)

Cephalosporin

d)

rifampicin

e)

polymyxin

108.

Scientist who founded the science of antibiotics:

a)

   Ehrlich

b)

Monasein

c)

Pasteur

d)

Fleming

e)

Koch

109.

When determining sensitivity to antibiotics, a zone of growth delays is determined around the disc. This means:

a)

culture sensitivity

b)

protein denaturation

c)

no toxicity

d)

increased membrane permeability

e)

stimulation of cell metabolism

110.

The mechanism of microbial resistance to antibiotics is associated with:

a)

genetic recombinations in genesA.   genetic recombinations in genes

b)

loss of cell wall permeability for antibiotic

c)

transformation of the active form of antibiotics into inactive

d)

change of antibiotics in the conditions of the macroorganism

e)

the loss of flagella by bacteria on antibiotic media

111.

Beta-lactam antibiotics have a mechanism of action:    

a)

inhibit of the integrity of the membrane    

b)

suppression of protein synthesis in cells  

c)

violation of the synthesis of nucleic acids    

d)

disrupt the formation of spores

e)

inhibit of the synthesis of peptidoglycan cell wall

112.

The predominant microorganism in the vagina of a healthy woman:

a)

clostridia

b)

gonococci

c)

trichomonas

d)

Candida fungi

e)

Lactobacilli

113.

The main microbes (95-99%) normally found in the large intestine are:

a)

bifidumbacteria and bacteroids

b)

staphylococci and streptococci

c)

clostridia and enterobacteria

d)

Escherichia coli and other enterobacteria

e)

Candida fungi and staphylococci

114.

Normally there are no microorganisms in the body:

a)

larynx, esophagus, stomach, skin, vagina

b)

blood, brain, lungs, heart, bladder

c)

vagina, small and large intestines

d)

skin, mucosa, small intestine

e)

mucous membrane, esophagus, stomach

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