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THEORY II

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Each of the following is a liquid from which repeated prolonged exposure results in early childhood caries (ECC) EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? 

a)

Breast milk 

b)

Fluoridated water 

c)

Infant formula 

d)

Fruit juice 

2.

The ___________________ teeth in the primary dentition are the MOST susceptible to dental caries; however, other teeth may be affected.

a)

Mandibular anterior 

b)

Mandibular first molar 

c)

Maxillary second molar 

d)

Mandibular second molar

e)

Maxillary anterior

3.

The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends children seek their first dental visit at the eruption of the first tooth, or no later than ________months. 

a)

6

b)

12

c)

24

d)

36

4.

Which one of the following microorganisms is associated with dental caries? 

a)

Candida albicans 

b)

Neisseria sicca 

c)

Streptococcus mitis 

d)

Streptococcus mutans

5.

(6) Each of the following can be recommended to a mother who discusses her daughter’s discomfort due to teething when she brings her 10-month-old daughter in for her first dental visit EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Use of FDA approved teething devices

b)

Cold damp cloth 

c)

Benzocaine-based teething gels

d)

OTC analgesics as needed

6.

(9) Each of the following can be used to describe symptoms of herpes simplex virus (HSV-1) in an infant or young child EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Fever 

b)

Oral pain 

c)

Irritable 

d)

Nausea

7.

(8) Vertical transmission refers to indirect exposure of saliva via eating utensils. Horizontal transmission is saliva passed from mother-child.

a)

Both statements are true. 

b)

Both statements are false.

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false. 

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true.

8.

Each of the following is an acceptable oral hygiene instruction for caregivers for babies from birth to 1 year of age EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? 

a)

Clean infant’s gums after each feeding with a water-soaked washcloth 

b)

Brush the primary teeth once visible. 

c)

Use soft bristle children’s toothbrush. 

d)

Use a pea-size smear of fluoride toothpaste. 

e)

Allow the child to brush his or her teeth

9.

(7) Infants and toddlers can be put to bed with a bottle. The bottle can contain infant formula, milk, or water. 

a)

Both statements are true. 

b)

Both statements are false. 

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false. 

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true

10.

Each of the following is a nonnutritive habit that should be discouraged due the risk of malocclusion EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? 

a)

Thumbsucking 

b)

Pacifier

c)

Breast-feeding after 1 year 

d)

Tongue thrust

11.

Children are susceptible to toxicity when proper dosing and instructions are not followed. The most common symptom of acute toxicity is __________. 

a)

irritability 

b)

fluorosis

c)

crippling skeletal fluorosis 

d)

gastrointestinal irritation

12.

Dietary fluoride supplements in the United States are available over-the-counter (OTC). Infants 6 months and older should receive the supplement in liquid form (drops), while children and adolescents should receive the dosing in chewable tablets. 

a)

Both statements are true. 

b)

Both statements are false. 

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false. 

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true.

13.

When using DMFT and dmft, scores for adults (in full permanent dentition) can range________, whereas pediatric patients (in full primary dentition) will range__________. 

a)

0-32, 0-20

b)

0-26, 0-10 

c)

0-17, 0-5 

d)

0-28, 0-8

14.

When using the DMFS and dmfs, scores for adults (in full permanent dentition) can range________, whereas pediatric patients (in full primary dentition) will range__________. 

a)

0-128, 0-88

b)

0-64, 0-44 

c)

0-26, 0-10 

d)

0-17, 0-5 

15.

Infants whose mothers having high levels of mutans streptococci (MS) as a result of untreated dental caries are at greater risk of acquiring the organisms earlier than children whose mothers having low levels. Pregnant women should have all carious lesions restored prior to delivery to reduce MS levels. 

a)

Both statements are true. 

b)

Both statements are false. 

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false. 

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true.

16.

Evidence shows a cause and effect relationship between periodontal disease and adverse pregnancy outcomes. Oral healthcare during pregnancy has been shown repeatedly to be safe. 

a)

vBoth statements are true. 

b)

Both statements are false. 

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false. 

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true.

17.

When is pregnancy gingivitis likely to peak? 

a)

In the first trimester 

b)

Early in the second trimester 

c)

vLate in the second trimester 

d)

In the third trimester

18.

In what percentage of pregnancies is a pyogenic granuloma likely to occur? 

a)

1% 

b)

3%

c)

5%

19.

Optimally fluoridated drinking is fluoridated at 

a)

0.3 ppm. 

b)

0.7 ppm.

c)

1.0 ppm. 

d)

1.7 ppm.

20.

The prevalence of gestational diabetes is as high as 

a)

5.2%. 

b)

7.2%. 

c)

9.2%. 

d)

11.2%.

21.

When providing oral healthcare to pregnant women, it is best to appoint women at which time during the first trimester and early part of the second trimester? 

a)

Early morning 

b)

Late morning

c)

Midday 

d)

Afternoon

22.

Dental hygienists should teach pregnant women, new mothers, and other caregivers how to clean an infant’s mouth using a 

a)

children’s toothbrush. 

b)

clean, damp infant washcloth.

c)

hydroflosser

d)

small piece of dental floss.

23.

When should a child caregiver first introduce toothpaste to a child?

a)

When the first tooth erupts

b)

When it is apparent that caries are present 

c)

As soon as the child returns from the hospital or place of delivery

d)

When the child has permanent teeth

24.

Pregnancy is an ideal time for interprofessional collaboration because of the impact of pregnancy on the woman’s oral health. Thus dental hygienists working with obstetricians, family medicine physicians, nurses, and nurse-midwives are essential for optimal health for gravid women. 

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false. 

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false. 

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true.

25.

Which of the following best explains the rise in number of elderly in the U.S. population?

a)

Improved medical care and technology

b)

Obesity

c)

Women live longer than men 

d)

An excess of vitamin D

26.

Functional assessment of the older individual includes evaluation of which of the following activities of daily living (ADLs)?

a)

Ability to bathe and dress independently 

b)

Ability to manage own money

c)

Ability to arrange transportation for medical visits

d)

Ability to prepare own meals 

27.

Knowledge of the older adult's functional ability allows the dental hygienist to

a)

Recommend realistic homecare programs.

b)

Provide resources to meet existing needs.

c)

Identify issues needing support.

d)

All of the above

28.

Which of the following is true regarding wellness behaviors in older adults?

a)

Older adults are less likely to receive routine healthcare than younger individuals.

b)

Older adults are less likely to exercise than younger individuals.

c)

Older adults are more likely to use alcohol.

d)

Older adults are more likely to smoke.

29.

Which of the following definitions describe senescence?

a)

Normal physiologic process of growing old

b)

Interdisciplinary perspective on aging

c)

Pathologic or disease conditions in aging

d)

Environmental factors that affect aging

30.

How do teeth change in aging?

a)

Enamel becomes darker due to stain and formation of secondary dentin.

b)

Secondary cementum is deposited along the entire length of root in greater amounts in aging.

c)

Aged dentin becomes more sensitive due to formation of secondary dentin.

d)

Pulpal blood supply increases due to increase of pulp calcifications with advancing age.

31.

Each of the following explains the change in the pattern of total tooth loss in the elderly EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Change in professional treatment philosophies among dentists

b)

Cultural view of beauty among elderly

c)

Advances in prevention of dental disease

d)

Better daily oral hygiene practices by the elderly

32.

Each of the following is true regarding root caries experience among the elderly EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Older adults are more likely to develop new root caries at a greater rate than younger population.

b)

Increased chewing ability in elderly increases risk for root caries.

c)

Exposed root surfaces place elderly at greater risk for root caries.

d)

Inability to thoroughly complete oral hygiene increases risk for root caries.

33.

Each of the following is a cause of xerostomia EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Normal aging

b)

Prescription medications, such as anti-hypertensives or anti-psychotics

c)

Sjogren’s disease

d)

Salivary Gland disease

34.

Which of the following is associated with diminished saliva?

a)

Enhanced ability to taste

b)

Increased denture retention

c)

Increased plaque formation

d)

Enhanced swallowing 

35.

Management strategies to stimulate salivary flow include

a)

Use of lemon candy

b)

Chewing gum

c)

Oral lubricants

d)

Medications, including cevimeline or pilocarpine

e)

*she said there was more than one correct answer so no one got counted off

36.

Which of the following describes age-related changes in the tongue?

a)

Decrease in number and sensitivity of taste papilla

b)

Smooth, shiny, and denuded surface 

c)

Decrease in size and number of sublingual varicositites

d)

Increase in tongue size

37.

After dental hygiene care is completed, dental hygienists should slowly return the dental chair to a seated position and allow the older adult to sit for a short time to avoid

a)

confused mental state.

b)

postural hypotension.

c)

transient hypertension

d)

post-treatment hemorrhage.

38.

Diagnosis of epileptic syndromes are made from all of the following, except:

a)

Clinical signs and symptoms

b)

Functional neuroimaging

c)

EEG

d)

ECG

e)

History 

39.

The HIV virus infects what type of cell?

a)

CD4+ T lymphocyte

b)

CD8+ T lymphocyte

c)

Natural cell killer

d)

Macrophage

40.

HIV is called a retrovirus because, once it is within the cell it uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert viral 

a)

DNA TO DNA

b)

DNA TO RNA

c)

RNA TO DNA

d)

RNA TO RNA

41.

Which is the first stage in HIV life cycle?

a)

Fusion

b)

Budding

c)

Binding

d)

Integration

42.

Where are most of the people who are lying with HIV?

a)

Africa

b)

Asia

c)

North America 

d)

South America

43.

About how many Americans are living with HIV infection?

a)

100,000

b)

1 million

c)

5 million

d)

10 million 

44.

Which is true of HIV-1?

a)

Primarily Found in west africa 

b)

More closely related to simian immunodeficiency virus 

c)

Predominant in most of the world

d)

Has three known subtypes

45.

Acute HIV infection syndrome occurs how many days following exposure?

a)

1 to 3

b)

3 to 6

c)

6 to 24

d)

6 to 56

46.

The asymptomatic HIV period has been reported to lead to the loss of approximately what percentage of CD4+ T lymphocytes per year?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

47.

Each of the following is a benefit of antiretroviral therapy (ART) used as a daily treatment for HIV EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Improves the quality of life

b)

 Targets HIV at various stages in its life cycle

c)

Reduces the amount of circulating HIV

d)

Cures HIV

48.

Opportunistic infections (OIs) can be the result of exposure to a variety of pathogens and may be treated ________ to prevent an OI or _______ to resolve one.

a)

Prophylactically; prophylactically

b)

Prophylactically; therapeutically*

c)

therapeutically ; prophylactically

d)

Therapeutically; therapeutically 

49.

Overall, the HIV infection rate has been ____ since 1977 and the absolute number of cases or prevalence continues to ______.

a)

Increasing; increase

b)

Increasing; decrease

c)

Decreasing; increase

d)

Decreasing; decrease 

50.

HIV is considered which kind of disease?

a)

Fatal

b)

Chroni

c)

Transient 

d)

Curable

51.

The CDC estimates that approximately which percentage of all people living with HIV (PLWH) are over the age of 50?

a)

20%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

50%

52.

Extraoral assessment may reveal purplish-red nodules on the skin that indicative of

a)

Lymphoma (Burkitt, immunoblastic, or primary brain)

b)

Disseminated or extrapulmonary histoplasmosis

c)

Kaposi sarcoma

d)

Recurrent salmonella septicemia

53.

 The use of a sonic/ultrasonic is prohibited for an HIV-positive patient. Aerosols are among the modes of exposure to HIV.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true

54.

Which viral infection is associated with Epstein-Barr virus?

a)

Human papillomavirus (HPV) 

b)

Herpes simplex virus (HIV) 

c)

Hairy leukoplakia

d)

Cytomegalovirus

55.

 The risk of acquiring HIV infection from occupational exposure is estimated to be approximately.

a)

3.0%

b)

0.3%

c)

0.03%

d)

0.003% 

56.

Which medication is approved for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis?

a)

Zidovudine (ZDV)

b)

Tenofovir and emtricitabine (Truvada)

c)

Fostemsavir

d)

Emtricitabine (NRTI)

57.

Any form of care that focuses on decreasing disease symptom severity in individuals with life-limiting illnesses, rather than trying to delay or reverse disease progression is called.

a)

Hospice care

b)

End-of-life care

c)

Palliative oral care

d)

Palliative care

58.

All of the following are standard oral hygiene care procedures for patients undergoing palliative care except one. Which one is the exception?

a)

Brushing all teeth and cleaning the tongue twice daily 

b)

Using an alcohol-based fluoride rinse with a suction toothbrush

c)

Removing and cleaning dentures using soap, water, and a denture brush

d)

Lubricating the lips with gauze moistened with water-based products  

59.

Saliva substitutes can be used to help with xerostomia, but provide only temporary relief. Additional options that can help provide temporary relief from xerostomia include baking soda and saline rinses, frequent sips for water, ice chips, or sugar free popsicles.

a)

Both statements are false

b)

Both statements are true

c)

The first statement is  false, the second is true

d)

The first statement is true, the second is false

60.

Which consequences can occur if the dental hygienist takes a patient’s blood pressure reading in an arm with dialysis access?

a)

Patient may faint

b)

Occlusion of vascular access

c)

False blood pressure reading

d)

Cause tachycardia 

61.

Which laboratory test is the means of measuring renal function and renal damage?

a)

Glomerular filtration rate

b)

Prothrombin time

c)

Complete blood count

d)

Partial prothrombin time 

62.

Which organ type accounted for the MOST organ transplants in 2017?

a)

Lung

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

kidney

63.

Which glomerular filtration rate (GFR) correlates with the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

a)

<60

b)

30-59

c)

15-29

d)

<15

64.

Signs and symptoms of chronic kidney disease (CKD) include all of the following except

a)

Urticaria

b)

Infections

c)

Fatigue

d)

Edema

65.

Hemodialysis is a method of dialysis treatment in which the patient’s blood is cleansed

a)

Using heat

b)

A few ounces at a time while pumped through a special filter

c)

Using a dialysate solution

d)

Through the peritoneal lining of the stomach 

66.

Which of the following is a sign of mineral and bone disorder that may be evident on dental radiographs?

a)

Narrowing of the pulp chamber

b)

Calcification of the carotid arteries

c)

All are applicable

d)

Radiopaque lesions in soft tissue

67.

 What systemic factors increase the risk for developing CKD?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension 

c)

Obesity

d)

Cardiovascular disease

e)

Family history of CKD

68.

____ is altered or impaired taste perception that often includes a metallic taste.

a)

Pruritis

b)

dyguesia

c)

Nephrotoxicity

69.

 The most current test to accurately measure renal function is:

a)

Computed tomography scan

b)

Alanine transaminase test

c)

Glomerular filtration rate

d)

Abdominal ultrasound

70.

Each of the following is true about the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

COPD can be cured

b)

Antibiotics are often prescribed during the acute attack of symptoms

c)

Bronchodilators, such as those used by people with asthma, have been used commonly as treatment 

d)

Beta2-agonist used to treat COPD are fast acting and in addition to relaxing the bronchial tubes, improve mucus clearance 

71.

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for patients who have a history of asthma?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Xylocaine

d)

erythromycin

72.

Which of the following terms has been associated with emphysema?

a)

Blue bloater 

b)

Mantoux skin screening 

c)

Barrel chest

d)

Apnea

73.

Diagnosis of epileptic syndromes are made from all of the following, except:

a)

Clinical signs and symptoms

b)

Functional neuroimaging

c)

EEG

d)

ECG

e)

History 

74.

When recognizing an aura, a patient may:

a)

go into a trancelike state.

b)

seek a safe place to sit or lie down.

c)

take medication.

d)

leave the treatment room.

75.

If a tonic-clonic seizure continues without recovery, it may progress to:

a)

a postictal seizure.

b)

status epilepticus.

c)

a preictal seizure.

d)

teratogenesis.

76.

What type of diet may be recommended for patients with epilepsy?

a)

Ketogenic

b)

Low calorie

c)

Vegetarian

d)

Macrobiotic

77.

When a seizure occurs, the dental hygienist should:

a)

call emergency medical services.

b)

restrain the patient.

c)

move all sharp objects out of the way.

d)

put a bite block between the teeth.

78.

The emergency medical system should be activated if the seizure is still occurring or has reoccurred within:

a)

5 minutes.

b)

30 minutes.

c)

1 hour.

d)

emergency medical systems should be activated immediately for all seizures.

79.

A) The immune system consists of two parts called the acquired and primate immune systems. B) Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system cells attack parts of the body instead of protecting it.

a)

Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b)

Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c)

Both statements are true.

d)

Both statements are false.

80.

 Each of the following is a common risk factor for disorders associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? 

a)

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency 

b)

Occupational irritants

c)

Marijuana use

d)

Underdeveloped lungs

81.

Which of the following terms best defines a severe asthma attack that does not respond to treatment with an adequate dose of commonly used bronchodilators?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Cavitation

c)

Status asthmaticus

d)

Xerostomia

82.

The management of COPD begins with reducing the risk factors associated with COPD, particularly smoking cessation. As the disease progresses, a patient’s physician must implement a plan to manage exacerbations.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

The first statement is true, the second is false

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true

83.

Each of the following is an appropriate precaution to be taken when treating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Place the patient in a semi-supine position

b)

Nitrous oxide inhalation sedation should be used to reduce anxiety

c)

Assess salivary flow related to medication-induced xerostomia 

d)

Plan fewer, shorter appointments to reduce anxiety

84.

A patient with active tuberculosis can be treated in a dental office using universal precautions. Patients reporting latent tuberculosis infection will always have a positive PPD test. 

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

  The first statement is true, the second is false

d)

The first statement is false, the second is true.

85.

What condition is defined as difficulty breathing?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

asthma

c)

pulmonary hypertension

d)

occupational lung diseases

86.

Each of the following is a symptom of an asthma attack EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Perspiration

c)

A need to lie down

d)

Feeling pressure of tightness in the chest

87.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about alpha-1 antitrypsin?

a)

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency involves a genetic predisposition to emphysema

b)

Alpha-1 antitrypsin is a fatty acid found in the blood that promotes the activity of elastase in the lungs

c)

Those with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency may not have any other predisposition factors that would lead to the severe emphysema 

d)

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can be diagnosed by a blood test. 

88.

Which of the following is not a connective tissue autoimmune disease?

a)

Oral lichen planus.

b)

Scleroderma

c)

Sjorgen’s syndrome

d)

All of these are connective tissue autoimmune diseases.

e)

RA

89.

OLP is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the:

a)

Teeth.

b)

Gingiva.

c)

cheeks and teeth.

d)

cheeks and gingiva.

90.

OLP tends to mostly commonly affect women aged:

a)

20 to 30 years.

b)

30 to 40 years.

c)

40 to 60 years.

d)

30 to 60 years.

e)

40 to 60 years.

91.

A) OLP can be confused with leukoplakia and lichenoid reactions. B) These have the potential for progression to oral cancer.

a)

Statement A is true and statement B is false.

b)

Statement A is false and statement B is true.

c)

Both statements are true.

d)

Both statements are false.

92.

Many OLP patients have deficiencies of all the following, except:

a)

Iron.

b)

Magnesium.

c)

vitamin B12.

d)

folic acid.

93.

The peak incidence of rheumatoid arthritis is at age:

a)

40 years.

b)

50 years.

c)

60 years.

d)

70 years.

94.

Family history of RA __________ the risk for developing RA.

a)

Doubles

b)

Triples

c)

Quadruples

d)

None of these are correct.

95.

__________ has the strongest association with development of RA.

a)

Smoking

b)

Underweight

c)

Low birth weight

d)

Higher education levels

96.

Which factor should a hygienist consider when planning dental hygiene care for the patient with multiple sclerosis?

a)

Xerostomia

b)

Poor nutrition

c)

Decubitus ulcers

d)

Impaired motor ability

97.

Which of the following involves large areas of the skin on the arms, legs, and trunk that are tight and thick?

a)

Scleroderma

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Lupus

98.

Women are __________ times more likely than men to develop scleroderma.

a)

two

b)

Four

c)

eight

d)

ten

99.

Crohn’s disease environmental factors include all the following, except:

a)

Smoking.

b)

high animal protein diet.

c)

oral contraceptives.

d)

moderate fish diet.

100.

Weakness of eye movements with double vision are initial symptoms of __________. If generalized, it involves muscles of the face, mastication, and tongue.

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Scleroderma

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Sjogren’s syndrome

101.

__________ is a chronic systemic autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies attack healthy cells in the exocrine glands followed by many other organs.

a)

Sjorgren’s syndrome

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Scleroderma

d)

Lupus

102.

All of the following are manifestations of Crohn’s disease, except:

a)

Osteonecrosis.

b)

mucosal tissue tags.

c)

deep linear ulcerations.

d)

weight gain.

103.

All of the following are oral characteristics of scleroderma, except:

a)

thin lips.

b)

unusually firm gingiva.

c)

thick mucosa.

104.

The adrenal glands are located on top of the:

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Stomach.

105.

Which of the following is the master endocrine gland that regulates the output of hormones by other Glands?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Pancreas

d)

Adrenal

e)

Pituitary

106.

Patients with pituitary gland disorders are at increased risk of developing all of the following, except:

a)

Micrognathia.

b)

an open anterior bite.

c)

large pulp chambers.

d)

delayed eruption of primary and secondary teeth.

107.

The absence of spontaneous menstrual periods in a female of reproductive age is:

a)

Amenorrhea,

b)

Dysmenorrhea,

c)

Endometriosis,

d)

Menarche

108.

When counseling a postmenopausal woman about diet, the hygienist should alert the patient to possible deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin B

d)

Vitamin K

109.

Symptoms of adrenal crisis include all the following, except:

a)

abdominal pain.

b)

high fever.

c)

loss of appetite.

d)

slowed respiratory rate.

110.

Diabetes is a disease of metabolism with inadequate production of the hormone insulin. Which endocrine gland is responsible for diabetes?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Pancreas

111.

All of the following are physical changes that may occur as part of the premenstrual syndrome, except:

a)

Bloating.

b)

decreased appetite.

c)

skin breakouts.

d)

Fatigue.

112.

Xerostomia is a symptom of menopause that should be addressed by the hygienist when treating menopausal women. Recommending a saliva substitute is the best oral hygiene instruction that will assist in preventing interproximal caries for the woman going through menopause.

a)

The first Statement is true, and the second statement is false.

b)

The first Statement is false, and the second statement is true.

c)

Both statements are true.

d)

Both statements are false.

113.

All of the following are symptoms of menopause, except:

a)

Irritability.

b)

Anxiety.

c)

hot flashes.

d)

food cravings.

114.

The absence of spontaneous menstrual periods in a female of reproductive age is:

a)

A) amenorrhea,

b)

B) dysmenorrhea,

c)

C) endometriosis,

d)

D) menarche,