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Pharmacology Exam 2

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the characteristics of the endocrine system.

a)

releasing hormones into the systemic circulation to act at a distance

b)

regulation is slower

c)

widespread sites over periods of minutes to hours or days

d)

neurotransmitters

e)

responsible for rapid adjustments to changes in the environment

2.

Choose the characteristics of the nervous system.

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

responsible for rapid adjustments to changes in the environment

c)

hormones modify neural transmission

d)

neural feedback modifies endocrine function

3.

Choose the characteristics of system crosstalk (feedback loop).

a)

hormones modify neural transmission

b)

neural feedback modifies endocrine function

c)

releasing hormones into the systemic circulation to act at a distance

d)

responsible for rapid adjustments to changes in the environment

4.

Which of the following make up the central nervous system?

a)

brain

b)

spinal cord

c)

motor nerves

d)

sensory nerves

5.

Afferent

a)

incoming nerves impulses; sensory nerve impulses; internal and external environment to the CNS

b)

outgoing nerve impulses; CNS to the body

6.

Efferent

a)

incoming nerves impulses; sensory nerve impulses; internal and external environment to the CNS

b)

outgoing nerve impulses; CNS to body

7.

Choose the characteristics of neurons

a)

cells that receive the signal at one end

b)

transmit the signal by chem-electric activity down their axon

c)

release the signal via neurotransmitters at the other end

d)

cells at the end of the neuron

e)

receive the released neurotransmitters

8.

Choose the characteristics of effector cells

a)

cells at the of the neuron

b)

receive the released neurotransmitters

c)

respond to the neuron's signal

d)

may be another neuron or non-neuronal cell

e)

cells that receive the signal at one end

9.

Which part of the motor nervous system is involuntary?

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

somatic nervous system

10.

The somatic nervous system is ___________.

a)

voluntary

b)

involuntary

11.

What are the 2 anatomical divisions of the ANS?

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

c)

cholinergic

d)

adrenergic

12.

What are the 3 chemical divisions of the ANS?

a)

cholinergic

b)

adrenergic

c)

noncholinergic and nonadrenergic

d)

sympathetic

e)

parasympathetic

13.

Parasympathetic division

a)

rest and digest

b)

fight or flight

14.

Sympathetic division

a)

rest and digest

b)

fight or flight

15.

What is required for signal transduction?

a)

neuron

b)

action potential

c)

synapse

d)

receptors

e)

neurotransmitters

16.

When does ANS pathology occur?

a)

hyper/hyposensitivity to signal

b)

over- or under-production of signal

c)

dysfunctional signaling transduction components

17.

Action potential in the nervous system:

a)

conveys information over long distances

b)

conveys information over short distances

18.

Generation of an action potential:

a)

caused by depolarization of membrane beyond threshold

b)

"all-or-none"

c)

chain reaction

19.

Put these in order:

a)

5, 4, 6, 1, 2, 3

b)

4, 6, 1, 3, 2, 5

c)

6, 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

20.

A neurotransmitter is which type of synapse?

a)

chemical

b)

electrical

21.

Gap Junctions (membrane channels connecting two cells) are which type of synapse?

a)

chemical

b)

electrical

22.

What do excitatory neurotransmitters cause?

a)

depolarization

b)

hyperpolarization

23.

Choose examples of excitatory neurotransmitters.

a)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

acetylcholine

c)

glutamate

d)

GABA

e)

glycine

24.

What do inhibitory neurotransmitters cause?

a)

depolarization

b)

hyperpolarization at the postsynaptic neuron

25.

Choose examples of inhibitory neurotransmitters.

a)

GABA

b)

Glycine

c)

Enkephalins

d)

epinephrine and NE

e)

glutamate

26.

Which type of neurotransmitter open Cl- channels?

a)

excitatory

b)

inhibitory

27.

A single EPSP usually is unable to produce an action potential at the postsynaptic neuron.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

Neurons can integrate signals from other neurons through spatial and temporal summation.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

Presynaptic receptors:

a)

regulate the release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal

b)

induces responses, relay impulses away from synapses

30.

Postsynaptic receptors:

a)

induce responses, relay impulses away from synapses

b)

regulate the release of neurotransmitters from the axon terminal

31.

1. Neurotransmitter crosses synapse

2. Calcium channels open

3. Action potential reaches axon terminal

4. Ca2+ causes vesicles to release neurotransmitter

5. Trigger signal in post-synaptic neuron

6. Neurotransmitter binds to neuroreceptors


Put them in order.

a)

3, 2, 4, 1, 6, 5

b)

4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3

c)

3, 5, 6, 4, 2, 1

d)

5, 4, 1, 2, 3, 6

32.

+Ligand-gated ion channels:

-binding of ligand directly opens the channels

-faster synaptic transmission in CNS

a)

ionotropic receptors

b)

metobotropic receptors

33.

+Indirectly linked with ion channels:

-slower than ionotropic

-G-protein coupled receptors:

-second messengers are generated to modulate voltage-gated channels (Ca+ channels and K+ channels)

a)

ionotropic receptors

b)

metobotropic receptors

34.

Acetylcholine

1. Action potential arrives at terminal and activates voltage-gated Ca++ channels

2. Influx of Ca2+ into the nerve terminal trigger the release

3. Synthesized in the nerve terminal from choline and acetyl-CoA: choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)

4. Transported from the cytoplasm into vesicles by a vesicle-associated transporter (VAT).

5.Acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft: hydrolysis of acetylcholine to choline and acetate (inactivate).

a)

3, 4, 1, 2, 5

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

c)

4, 2, 1, 3, 5

d)

2, 1, 3, 5, 4

35.

Acetylcholine neurotransmitters can be blocked via synthesis inhibition (hemicholinimus). What does this do?

a)

block CHT transporter

b)

blocks vesicle associated transport (VAT)

c)

interferes with vesicles fusion to the membrane

36.

Acetylcholine neurotransmitters can be blocked via Vesamicol causing storage inhibition- what does this do?

a)

block CHT transporter

b)

blocks vesicle associated transport (VAT).

c)

interfere with vesicles fusion to the membrane

37.

Acetylcholine neurotransmitters can be blocked via transmitter release inhibition (Botulinum toxin or BOTOX)- what does this do?

a)

block CHT transporter

b)

block vesicle associated transporter (VAT)

c)

interfere with vesicles fusion to the membrane

38.

Ach is released by all neurons that exit the CNS.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

Choose the 2 Ach effector cell receptors.

a)

muscarinic

b)

nicotinic

c)

beta blockers

d)

alpha 1 antagonist

40.

What type of receptors are muscarinic receptors (M1-M5)?

a)

metabotropic

b)

ionotropic

c)

coupled via G proteins

d)

subdivided into Nm and Nn

41.

What type of receptors are nicotinic receptors?

a)

ionotropic

b)

subdivided into Nm and Nn

c)

metabotropic

d)

coupled via G proteins

42.

Where are M1, M4, and M5 receptors located?

a)

the CNS

b)

heart

c)

autonomic ganglia

43.

Where are M2 receptors located?

a)

CNS

b)

heart

c)

autonomic ganglia

44.

Where are M1 receptors located?

a)

CNS

b)

heart

c)

autonomic ganglia

45.

Where are Nm receptors located?

a)

muscles at the neuromuscular junction

b)

CNS and autonomic ganglia

46.

Where are Nn receptors located?

a)

muscles at the neuromuscular junction

b)

CNS and autonomic ganglia

47.

Which type of receptor permits the passage of Na+ and other cations?

a)

muscarinic

b)

nicotinic

48.

Which type of receptor lead to produce a depolarizing potential?

a)

muscarinic

b)

nicotinic

49.

Which type of receptor affects the effector cells?

a)

muscarinic

b)

nicotinic

50.

What drug class are the following medications? Acetylcholine, Methacholine, Carbachol, Bethanechol

a)

acetylcholine receptor stimulants (direct)

b)

cholinesterase inhibitors (indirect)

51.

What does the B-methylcholin of bethanechol (beta-CH3) do?

a)

increase hydrolysis resistance

b)

reduce potency at nicotinic receptors

c)

reduce potency at muscarinic receptors

d)

reduce hydrolysis resistance

52.

Choose the tertiary natural alkaloids (which are all also acetylcholine receptor stimulants):

a)

nicotine

b)

pilocarpine

c)

lobeline

d)

muscarine

e)

bethanechol

53.

Choose the quaternary natural alkaloid (acetylcholine receptor stimulant)

a)

nicotine

b)

pilocarpine

c)

lobeline

d)

muscarine

54.

Which of the two is less absorbed from GI and BBB but enough to still cause toxicity?

a)

nicotine

b)

muscarine

55.

Which receptors activate the IP3 DAG cascade?

a)

M1, M3, M5

b)

M2, M4

56.

Which receptors inhibit cAMP production?

a)

M1, M3, M5

b)

M2, M4

57.

Which receptor activates K+ channels?

a)

M1

b)

M2

c)

M3

d)

M4

e)

M5

58.

What happens when nicotinic receptors are activated?

a)

Channels open allowing passage of Ca++, K+, and Na+

b)

inhibition of production of cAMP

c)

IP3 DAG cascade

59.

What happens when a nicotinic receptor is activated and causes skeletal muscle depolarization?

a)

muscle contraction

b)

muscle relaxation

60.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to the sphincter muscle of iris?

a)

contraction (miosis)

b)

relaxation

61.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to the ciliary muscle (eye)?

a)

contraction for near vision

b)

relaxation for far vision

62.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to bronchial muscle?

a)

contraction (bronchoconstriction)

b)

dilation (bronchodilation)

63.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to bronchial glands?

a)

stimulation

b)

nothing

64.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to motility in the GI tract?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

65.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to sphincters in the GI tract?

a)

relaxation

b)

constriction

66.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to GI tract secretion?

a)

stimulation

b)

decrease

67.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to the detrusor of the urinary bladder?

a)

contraction

b)

relaxation

68.

When acetylcholine receptors are stimulated, what happens to the trigone and sphincter of the urinary bladder?

a)

relaxation

b)

constriction

69.

Which drug class terminate the action of AchE and inhibits Ach degradation?

a)

indirect acetylcholine receptor stimulants

b)

acetylcholinesterase enzyme inhibitors

c)

acetylcholine receptor stimulants

70.

What are the three chemical groups the acetylcholinesterase enzyme inhibitors are divided into?

a)

simple alcohols

b)

carbonic acid esters of alcohols

c)

organic derivatives off phosphoric acid (organophosphates)

d)

carboxyls

e)

ethyl esters

71.

Which of the three chemical groups of AEIs (IARS) has a quaternary ammonium group ie Edrophonium?

a)

simple alcohols

b)

carbonic acid esters of alcohols

c)

organic derivatives of phosphoric acid (organophosphates)

72.

Which of the three chemical groups of AEIs (IARS) has a quaternary OR tertiary ammonium group (carbamates) ie drugs neostigmine or physostigmine (which is naturally occurring)?

a)

simple alcohols

b)

carbonic acid esters of alcohols

c)

organic derivatives of phosphoric acid (organophosphates)

73.

Which of the three chemical groups of AEIs (IARS) has the drug Echothiophate in it?

a)

simple alcohols

b)

carbonic acid esters of alcohols

c)

organic derivatives of phosphoric acid (organophosphates)

74.

___________: poor absorption, very poor distribution into the central nervous system (negligible)

a)

quaternary

b)

tertiary

75.

_____________: well absorbed from all sites including skin, distributed well into the CNS, more toxic

a)

quaternary

b)

tertiary

76.

Which of the three chemical groups of AEIs (IARS) binds reversibly (electrostatic and by hydrogen bond) and is short-lived (2-10 minutes)?

a)

simple alcohols bearing a quaternary ammonium group (Edrophonium)

b)

carbonic acid esters (neostigmine and physostigmine)

c)

organophosphates

77.

Which of the three chemical groups of AEIs (IARS) form covalent bonds which are more resistant to hydrolysis (somewhat reversible), prolonged (30 minutes-6 hours)?

a)

simple alcohols bearing a quaternary ammonium group (Endophonium)

b)

carbonic acid esters (Neostigmine and Physostigmine)

c)

organophosphates

78.

Which of the three chemical groups of AEIs (IARS) form covalent phosphorous-enzyme bonds, extremely stable and irreversible, hundreds of hours?

a)

simple alcohols bearing a quaternary ammonium group (Edrophonium)

b)

carbonic acid esters (Neostigmine and Physostigmine)

c)

organophosphates

79.

What do acetylcholine receptor stimulants treat in the eye?

a)

glaucoma

b)

inflammation

c)

conjunctivitis

80.

What is pilocarpine used for?

a)

increasing salivary secretion (dry mouth)

b)

dry mouth associated with Siögren's syndrome

c)

dry mouth caused by radiation damage of the salivary glands

81.

What is cevimeline used for?

a)

dry mouth associated with Siögren's syndrome

b)

dry mouth caused by radiation damage of the salivary glands

c)

increasing salivary secretion (dry mouth)

82.

Which of these is a quinuclidine derivative of acetylcholine (direct)?

a)

pilocarpine

b)

cevimeline

83.

Which of these is a selective M3 receptor?

a)

pilocarpine

b)

cevimeline

84.

Which cholinesterase inhibitors are used to diagnose and treat Myasthenia gravis?

a)

pyridostigmine

b)

neostigmine

c)

atropine

d)

pilocarpine

85.

What are the following drugs: donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine?

a)

cholinesterase inhibitors

b)

acetylcholine receptor stimulant

86.

What is the antidote to overdose of acetylcholine receptor stimulants?

a)

atropine

b)

nicotine

c)

pilocarpine

d)

cevimiline

87.

How many mg of nicotine will cause acute toxicity?

a)

10mg

b)

20mg

c)

40mg

d)

80mg

88.

Varenicline:

a)

partial agonist action at a4b2 nicotinic receptors

b)

non-competitive antagonist to nicotine

89.

Bupropion:

a)

partial agonist action at a2b4 nicotinic receptors

b)

non-competitive antagonist to nicotine

90.

Choose the 2 naturally occurring cholinoceptor blocking agents:

a)

atropine (hyoscyamine)

b)

scopolamine (hyoscine)

c)

glycopyrrolate

d)

tiotropium

91.

Which of the following is not a synthetic or semisynthetic cholinoceptor blocking agent?

a)

propantheline

b)

glycophyrrolate

c)

pirenzepine

d)

dicyclomine

e)

atropine

92.

Which of the following is not a synthetic or semisynthetic cholinoceptor blocking agent?

a)

tropicamide

b)

ipratropium

c)

tiotropium

d)

benztropine

e)

scopolamine

93.

Choose the MOA of cholinoceptor blocking agent atropine:

a)

reversible M receptor blockade

b)

prevents release of IP3

c)

prevent inhibition of adenyl cyclase that are caused by muscarinic agonists

d)

causes irreversible M receptor blockade

94.

Which cholinoceptor blocking agents are used to prevent irritation caused anesthesia?

a)

atropine

b)

scopolamine

c)

ipratropium

d)

tiotropium

e)

aclidinium

95.

Which cholinoreceptor blocking agents are used to treat COPD and asthma?

a)

ipratropium

b)

tiotropium

c)

aclidinium

d)

atropine

e)

scopolamine

96.

Which of the COPD/asthma cholinoceptor blocking agents dissociates slowly from M3 receptors? *once daily have a longer bronchodilator action

a)

ipratropium

b)

tiotropium

c)

aclidinium

97.

For urinary urgency M2 and M3 are predominant. Which subtype mediates direct activation of contraction?

a)

M3

b)

M2

98.

For urinary urgency M2 and M3 are predominant. Which subtype acts indirectly by inhibiting relaxation by Ep and NE?

a)

M3

b)

M2

99.

Which cholinoceptor blocking agent has some selectivity for M3 receptors?

a)

oxybutynin

b)

trospium

c)

darifenacin and solifenacin

d)

tolterodine and fesoterodine

100.

Which cholinoceptor blocking agent is a nonselective M antagonist?

a)

oxybutynin

b)

trospium

c)

darifenacin and solifenacin

d)

tolterodine and fesoterodine

101.

Which cholinoceptor blocking agent has greater selectivity for M3 receptors than oxybutynin or trospium- longer half life?

a)

oxybutynin

b)

trospium

c)

darifenacin and solifenacin

d)

tolterodine and fesoterodine

102.

Which cholinoceptor blocking agents are M3-selective antimuscarinics?

a)

oxybutynin

b)

trospium

c)

darifenacin and solifenacin

d)

tolterodine and fesoterodine

103.

What are cholinesterase regenerator compound oximes used for?

a)

treatment of cholinergic poisoning

b)

reversal of anticholinergic effects

104.

Which of the following drugs are cholinesterase regenerator compounds?

a)

pralidoxime (PAM)

b)

diacetylmonoxime (DAM)

c)

obidoxime

d)

chlordiazepoxide

e)

librax

105.

Which type of mushroom poisoning is treated with parenteral atropine 1-2mg?

a)

acute (30 minutes to 2 hours)

b)

delayed-onset (6-12 hours)

106.

Which type of mushroom poisoning is caused by Amatoxins which inhibits RNA polymerase?

a)

acute

b)

delayed-onset

107.

What is the antidote for atropine poisoning?

a)

physostigmine

b)

pilocarpine

c)

bupropion

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