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2nd Semester Final Review Accel Bio

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT in DNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
2.
What type of bond holds together the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA/RNA?
a)
covalent
b)
hydrogen
c)
ionic
d)
James
3.
What type of bond holds together the nitrogenous bases in DNA?
a)
covalent
b)
hydrogen
c)
ionic
d)
James
4.
What is the complementary base pair to Adenine in DNA?
a)
Cytosine
b)
Guanine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
5.
What is the complementary base pair to Cytosine in DNA?
a)
Cytosine
b)
Guanine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
6.
How many hydrogen bonds form between Cytosine and Guanine?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
7.
How many hydrogen bonds form between Adenine and Thymine?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
8.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
9.
A scientist observes a base sequence of AGCTAGCTAGCT.  Which of the following would be the complimentary strand?
a)
TGCATGCATGCA
b)
TCGATCGATCGA
c)
TAGCTAGCTAGC
d)
TTAAGGCCTTCC
10.
The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in
a)
none of these
b)
Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands
c)
two exact copies with new strands
d)
two identical molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.
11.
Which of the following must happen first in order for DNA replication to occur?
a)
DNA polymerase binds to the leading strand
b)
DNA is unwound
c)
Hydrogen bonds form between bases
d)
chromosomes condense
12.

DNA replication creates two strands of DNA from one. If pink is parental DNA and blue is new DNA - which picture demonstrates the accepted model of DNA replication after the SECOND replication cycle?

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.

DNA contains the template to make RNA

a)

True

b)

False

14.

RNA is double-stranded.

a)

true

b)

false

c)

it depends on the type

15.

What is the process that makes a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA strand?

a)

protein synthesis

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

DNA Polymerase

16.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
17.
What does mRNA do?
a)
provides information from DNA to ribosomes
b)
transfers amino acids to the ribosomes
c)
makes up ribosomes
d)
builds proteins
18.
What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
a)
phosphate
b)
nitrogenous base
c)
deoxyribose
d)
sugar
19.

Which statement is true about RNA?

a)

RNA is usually single stranded and contains the base uracil

b)

RNA is usually double stranded and contains the base thymine

c)

RNA is made in the nucleus and stays there to carry out its function

d)

All of the above are true.

20.

After transcription mRNA goes from the nucleus to the _________.

a)

Ribosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Vacuoles

21.

What best explains the interaction between tRNA and mRNA during translation?

a)

anticodons on the mRNA line up with complementary codons on the tRNA

b)

anticodons on the tRNA line up with complementary codons on the mRNA

c)

tRNA attach amino acids to the complementary mRNA sequence

d)

mRNA attach amino acids to the complementary tRNA sequence

22.

What does tRNA "transfer"?

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

AUG

23.

codons are located on __________

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

24.

How many nucleotides make up a single codon?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

1

25.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
26.
Using the codon identify the amino acid sequence:
AUG-CCA-GUA-GGG-UAA
a)
MET-HIS-ALA-GLY-STOP
b)
MET-PRO-GLY-VAL-STOP
c)
MET-PRO-VAL-GLY-STOP
d)
MET-THR-SER-ASP-STOP
27.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
28.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Tyrosine
29.
Process in which amino acids are assembled into proteins at the ribosome?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription
c)
Meiosis
d)
Replication
30.

What is the correct sequence of protein synthesis?

A. tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome

B. DNA molecules serve as the templates for mRNA.

C. mRNA molecules move to ribosomes.

D. Polypeptides are formed on ribosomes.

a)

A-B-C-D

b)

B-C-A-D

c)

C-B-A-D

d)

D-B-A-C

31.

What type of gene mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-C-C-A-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

32.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

33.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Inversion

34.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
35.

A point mutation in which the amino acid does not change.

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Deletion

d)

Silent mutation

36.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

37.

This type of substitution codes for a stop codon

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silent

d)

Deletion

38.

The physical appearance or visible traits

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

39.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be black?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

40.

When an organism has two of the SAME alleles for a trait

a)

Phenotype

b)

Genotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

41.

gene most likely to stay hidden or covered up;

shown with a lowercase letter

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

phenotype

d)

offspring

42.

Which of the following is most likely being shown in the image?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

43.

Which of the following is most likely being shown in the image?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

44.

The different forms of a gene are called ---

a)

traits

b)

hybrids

c)

alleles

45.

Which of the following is most likely being shown in the image?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

46.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
47.

genetic code for a trait;

genes that produce a phenotype

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

48.

How many alleles do you inherit from EACH parent for a specific trait?

a)

1

b)

2

49.

Cross 2 heterozygous tall pea plants. Tall (T) is dominant to short (t). What fraction of the offspring do you predict will be tall?

a)

1/4

b)

2/4

c)

3/4

d)

4/4

50.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
51.
What do you call the non-Mendelian inheritance pattern that states that neither trait is dominant and the traits appear to blend together?
a)
Codominance
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Polygenic traits
52.

WHAT DOES MEIOSIS CREATE?

a)

CHROMOSOMES

b)

GAMETES

c)

DNA

d)

TRAITS

53.

MEIOSIS IS NEEDED BECAUSE...

a)

IT ACTUALLY ISN'T, BUT CAN BE HELPFUL IN SOME ORGANISMS

b)

TO REDUCE THE CHROMOSOME NUMBER BY HALF

c)

SO THAT EVERY CELL IS EXACTLY IDENTICAL

d)

TO MAKE SURE EVERY HUMAN CELL HAS 92 CHROMOSOMES

54.

THE GAMETES ARE CONSIDERED TO HAVE ONE HALF OF THE GENETIC INFO SO IT IS CALL

a)

DIPLOID (2N)

b)

DIPLOID (N)

c)

HAPLOID (2N)

d)

HAPLOID (N)

55.

MALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

56.

A FEMALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

57.

HOW MANY CHROMOSOMES DO HUMAN GAMETES HAVE?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

47

d)

22

58.

CROSSING OVER ALLOWS FOR WHAT TO HAPPEN?

a)

ALL CELLS TO STAY THE SAME

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

REDUCTION OF CHROMOSOMES

d)

CHROMOSOME NUMBER TO INCREASE

59.

FERTILZATION IS ...

a)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND SPERM

b)

THE FUSION OF A DIPLOID EGG AND SPERM

c)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND DIPLOID SPERM

d)

THE FUSION OF TWO EGGS

60.

How many cell divisions does meiosis have?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

61.

Meiosis produces daughter cells that are genetically _________ each other.

a)

identical to

b)

different from

c)

superior to

d)

inferior to

62.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
63.

In mitosis, one parent cell -

a)

Forms two identical daughter cells

b)

Forms four identical daughter cells

c)

Forms two genetically diverse daughter cells

d)

Forms four genetically diverse daughter cells

64.

Full set of chromosomes of a cell arranged with respect to size, shape, and number.

a)

chromatin

b)

karyotype

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

65.

By looking at the chromosomes how can you tell that this person is biologically female?

a)

Because there are two X chromosomes

b)

Because there are more chromosomes than in a male

66.

What is the mutation in this persons chromosomes?

a)

There is only one X

b)

7 is shaped like a hockey stick

c)

There's an extra 21

d)

1 is too curved

67.

This is called Turners syndrome, can you notice the mutation in the chromosomes?

a)

Both chromosomes 1 are bent

b)

There are too many chromosomes

c)

There are too many of chromosome 3

d)

There is no Y chromosome

68.

These are the chromosomes of someone with Kleinfelters syndrome. What is different about their chromosomes?

a)

There is only one Y chromosome

b)

One of the 5th chromosomes is too curved

c)

There is an extra X chromosome

d)

There are too few chromosomes

69.

This person has Angel Mans syndrome. What is different about their chromosomes?

a)

Chromosome 1 is misshapen

b)

Chromosomes 21 is too small

c)

They are missing one of chromosome 15

d)

Chromosomes 7 and 8 look weird

70.
Complete a karyotype analysis on the karyotype provided.
a)
47, XY, +18 
b)
46, XX
c)
47, XY, +21
71.
Complete a karyotype analysis on the karyotype provided.
a)
47, XX, +23
b)
46, X, +22
c)
45, X, +23
d)
46, XX, +21
72.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

73.
Which organisms are most likely to survive?
a)
the best adapted
b)
the fastest
c)
the strongest
d)
the most domesticated (tamed)
74.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
75.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
76.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
77.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
78.

Individuals undergo evolution.

a)

True

b)

False

79.
The change over time in populations of related species.
a)
biological evolution
b)
transition
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
80.

What do you call similar structures that related species have inherited from a common ancestor?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Analogous Structure

c)

Vestigial Structure

d)

Homologous Structure

81.

What do we call structures that no longer perform their original function?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Analogous Structure

c)

Vestigial Structure

d)

Homologous Structure

82.

What do you call different structures with a similar function but NO common ancestor?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Analogous Structure

c)

Vestigial Structure

d)

Homologous Structure

83.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
84.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
85.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
86.

Similarities in the embryos of vertebrates early in development suggests common

ancestry among vertebrates. What study is this?

a)

Biochemistry

b)

Paleontology

c)

Morphology

d)

Embryology

87.

Genetic Diversity is increased through this process.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

88.

Forces in the environment that result in a change in the population.

a)

Selective Pressure

b)

Evolution

c)

Niche Partitioning

89.

A forest fire ignites in the Sam Houston State Forest and kills many members of a population of pigmy rattlesnakes.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

90.

Select the best answer based on the image.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

91.

Genetic diversity is decreased through this process.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

92.

Select the best answer based on the image.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

93.

Select the best answer based on the image.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

94.
What is founder effect?
a)
Any change in the allelic frequencies in a population that is due to chance
b)
›A small sample of a population settles in a location separated from the rest of the population
c)
  The process in which humans select for or against particular features in organisms
d)
›Members of one sex choose mates with particular features

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