Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology End-of-Year Exam 2022-2023

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Human heart cells require a constant release of energy to function continuously. Which structure would be numerous in such cells to meet this demand? (a)  

Choose from the below words
mitochondria
Golgi bodies
nuclei
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2.

Which statement describes ALL prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm.

b)

Materials are stored in vacuoles.

c)

Chloroplasts are used for photosynthesis.

d)

Cell walls provide shape and support.

3.
Which of the following statements identifies the cell below?
a)
This is a plant cell because it contains mitochondria.
b)
This is an animal cell because it contains mitochondria.
c)
This is a plant cell because it contains a cell wall.
d)
This is an animal cell because it contains a cell wall.
4.

Unicellular organisms, such as bacteria, and many protists, can survive as one cell in their environment, while a cell from a multicellular organism (such as you skin or liver cell), could not survive without the other cells in your body.

Which term refers to why this is the case?

a)

Cell specialization

b)

Endosymbiosis

c)

photosynthesis

d)

None of the these

e)

It is impossible to tell

5.
The image below shows how Eukaryotes most likely evolved to contain chloroplasts, and mitochondria. What is the name of the process?
a)

Cell specialization

b)

phagocytosis

c)

cell lysis

d)

Endosymbiosis

6.

Which statement correctly describes cells produced through asexual reproduction?

a)

They are genetically identical to their parents.

b)

They do not grow and divide.

c)

They do not contain genetic material.

d)

They have a unique set of genetic instructions, unlike their parents.

7.

Which process can be a source of genetic variation?

a)

copying of chromosomes

b)

binary fission

c)

mitosis

d)

crossing over

8.

Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture below?

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

prophase

d)

anaphase

9.

Which statement describes the products of meiosis I and meiosis II?

a)

Meiosis I produces two haploid cells, and meiosis II produces four haploid cells.

b)

Meiosis I produces four diploid cells, and meiosis II produces four haploid cells.

c)

Meiosis I produces two diploid cells, and meiosis II produces four haploid cells.

d)

Meiosis I produces two diploid cells, and meiosis II produces two haploid cells.

10.

Which statement correctly compares the roles of different types of organic molecules in the body?

a)

Carbohydrates provide insulation for the body, while nucleic acids provide long-term energy storage.

b)

Nucleic acids provide support and structure for the body, while carbohydrates provide insulation.

c)

Lipids provide long-term energy storage for the body, while carbohydrates provide quickly available energy.

d)

Proteins provide cushioning for organs, while lipids carry the body’s genetic information.

11.

A runner needs a quick boost of energy while running a marathon. Which snack is the BEST option?

a)

A hard-boiled egg, because it is rich in amino acids.

b)

A hamburger, because fats store long-term energy.

c)

An apple, because it contains fructose, a monosaccharide.

d)

A piece of cheese, because proteins speed up chemical reactions.

12.

Which statement is true regarding cell size?

a)

The surface area to volume ratio of very large cells makes it inefficient to move nutrients in, and waste out of them

b)

Large cells are much more likely to become cancer

c)

Large organisms, like whales, have proportionately larger cells than smaller organisms, like humans.

d)

All of these choices are true

13.

Which number, from the image above, represents the fatty acid tails of phospholipids?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

None of these

14.

Which process is an example of facilitated diffusion?

a)

The cell membrane wraps around a large molecule and forms a vesicle that takes the molecule into the cytoplasm.

b)

A protein embedded in the cell membrane allows a specific type of protein to move to a region of lower concentration.

c)

Waste materials from cellular processes are moved to a region of higher concentration outside the cell.

d)

A carrier protein moves water across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient.

15.

Which type of cellular transport requires a cell to use energy?

a)

facilitated transport

b)

active transport

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

16.

Which way does exocytosis differ from the pumping of calcium ions against a concentration gradient?

a)

Exocytosis is a form of passive transport.

b)

Exocytosis does not involve a carrier protein.

c)

Exocytosis occurs with the concentration gradient.

d)

Exocytosis requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

17.

Which of the following is true of the solution below?

a)

Water will move out of the cell, and the cell will decrease in size.

b)

Water will move out of the cell, and the cell will increase in size.

c)

Water will move into the cell, and the cell will increase in size.

d)

Water will move into the cell, and the cell will decrease in size.

18.

Which substance is a product of cellular respiration?

a)

ADP

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

ATP

19.

Which is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

a)

electron transport -> Krebs cycle -> glycolysis

b)

glycolysis -> Krebs cycle -> electron transport

c)

Krebs cycle -> electron transport-> glycolysis

d)

Krebs cycle -> glycolysis -> electron transport

20.

Students wanted to compare the rate of oxygen production in flowers that were watered daily to the rate of oxygen production in flowers that were not watered. Which question were these students most LIKELY investigating?

a)

Do flowers carry out photosynthesis?

b)

Does the amount of water a plant receives affect cellular respiration?

c)

Is the rate of oxygen production in photosynthesis related to the amount of water a flower receives?

d)

Do pea plants carry out cellular respiration?

21.

Which of the following is a reactant in the chemical reaction of photosynthesis? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY!

a)

CO₂

b)

O₂

c)

C₆H₁₂O₆

d)

H₂O

22.

Suppose that a strand of DNA has the following sequence of bases: AAG-TTC. What sequence of bases will the complementary strand of DNA have?

a)

GGC-AAT

b)

GGT-CCA

c)

TTA-CCG

d)

TTC-AAG

23.

Which statement correctly distinguishes DNA from RNA?

a)

DNA contains uracil and RNA does not.

b)

DNA contains nitrogenous bases and RNA does not.

c)

RNA contains the sugar ribose and DNA does not.

d)

RNA is arranged in a double helix and DNA is not.

24.

Transcription creates an mRNA molecule using DNA as a template.

Where does this process occur in cells of eukaryotes?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

in the cytoplasm

c)

in the ribosomes

d)

in the Golgi apparatus

25.

Which DNA sequence produces an mRNA strand with the sequence AGU-ACA?

a)

CAG-TAC

b)

GUA-CAG

c)

TCA-TGT

d)

UCA-UGU

26.

What is a mutation?

a)

a change in the genetic material of a cell

b)

the specific sequence of bases in a molecule of DNA

c)

the process by which a molecule of DNA makes a copy of itself

d)

the perfect replication of a DNA molecule

27.

Consider this DNA nucleotide sequence: ACG GTT CTA GAC

Which mutation will result in a frame shift?

a)

substitution of T for the first A in the sequence

b)

deletion of GTT from the sequence

c)

insertion of C at the start of the sequence

d)

substitution of ATA for ACG in the sequence

28.

Which event results in a change in the number of chromosomes in a cell?

a)

crossing over

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

d)

nondisjunction

29.

Researchers studying rice plants are using radiation to cause random mutations. Which statement best describes the goal of the researchers?

a)

to destroy viral diseases that affect rice plants

b)

to create beneficial traits that can be passed on to offspring

c)

to reduce the amount of fertilizer that the rice plants will need

d)

to eliminate the rate of insect infestation among the rice plants

30.

Which term best describes the combination of alleles shown?

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

d)

recessive

31.

Which combination of alleles represents the same phenotype but different genotypes?

a)

Aa and AA

b)

Aa and aa

c)

AA and aa

d)

Aa and Aa

32.

Which statement summarizes the law of independent assortment?

a)

A parent can pass on only one allele of each gene to any one offspring.

b)

A recessive trait will only be expressed if two recessive alleles are present.

c)

The chance of inheriting an allele is not affected by inheriting any other allele.

d)

The probability of offspring inheriting either allele from a parent is 50 percent.

33.

A red-flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white-flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.

What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

34.

The Punnett square below shows the genotypic results of a cross between two pea plants. R represents the dominant gene for round seeds, and r represents the recessive gene for wrinkled seeds.

Which phrase describes the parents’ genotypes for this trait.

a)

both heterozygous

b)

one homozygous recessive and one heterozygous

c)

one homozygous dominant and one heterozygous

d)

one homozygous recessive and one homozygous dominant

35.

The Punnett square below shows the genotypic results of a cross between two pea plants. R represents the dominant gene for round seeds, and r represents the recessive gene for wrinkled seeds.

What is the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring?

a)

1 round: 3 wrinkled

b)

2 round: 2 wrinkled

c)

3 round: 1 wrinkled

d)

4 round: 0 wrinkled

36.

The following Punnett square shows a cross between two organisms that are heterozygous for a particular fur color.

Based on this cross, what percentage of the offspring are likely to show the recessive phenotype?

a)

0 %

b)

25 %

c)

50%

d)

100%

37.

Based on the information provided, what is the probability that these parents will produce an offspring who cannot taste PTC?

a)

0 %

b)

25 %

c)

50%

d)

100%

38.

Which statement would BEST support an argument that sexual reproduction provides an advantage over asexual reproduction in a changing environment?

a)

Sexual reproduction provides greater variation.

b)

Sexual reproduction takes less energy and time.

c)

Sexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring.

d)

Sexual reproduction produces more offspring.

39.

Which of the following does NOT accurately describe asexual reproduction?

a)

Asexual reproduction can produce many offspring quickly.

b)

Asexual reproduction can help organisms that cannot move around to reproduce.

c)

Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical.

d)

Asexual reproduction generally produces less diversity in offspring.

40.

Which of the following statements does not describe an advantage of meiosis?

a)

Variation is aided by crossing over which occurs during meiosis.

b)

Meiosis ensures daughter cells receive one of each kind of gene and half the chromosome number.

c)

Meiosis occurs often because it allows growth and repair of body tissues in multicellular organisms.

d)

Independent assortment provides a huge number of possible genetic combinations in daughter cells.

41.

When offspring produced by sexual reproduction move into different environments, new species sometimes emerge over time.

Which characteristic of sexual reproduction allows this result to occur?

a)

number of offspring produced

b)

speed with which offspring are produced

c)

size of the offspring produced

d)

diversity of the offspring produced

42.

The illustration below shows the external features of a prokaryotic organism. Which of the following can be concluded about the internal cellular contents of this prokaryote?

a)

The cell does not contain ribosomes.

b)

The cell does not contain a nucleus.

c)

The cell contains mitochondria.

d)

The cell contains a vacuole.

43.

A student looks at a cell under a microscope. Which of the following observations would indicate that the cell is from a plant rather than an animal?

a)

a nucleus located inside of the cell

b)

numerous cilia on the outside of the cell

c)

chloroplasts in the cytoplasm of the cell

d)

a thin membrane around the edge of the cell

44.
What numbered square represents mammary glands?
a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

45.

The diagram below shows a phylogenetic tree of 9 species.

Which living species are most closely related?

a)

species ID09 & ID01

b)

species ID06 & ID07

c)

species IDO9 & ID02

d)

species ID03 & ID08

46.

What are the names of the three domains of life?

a)

Animalia, Eukarya, and Bacteria

b)

Plantae, Animalia, and Protista

c)

Eukarya, Archaea, and Bacteria

d)

Protista, Bacteria, and Animalia

47.

Which feature is common to both living cells AND viruses?

a)

capsid

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleic acid

d)

ribosome

48.

A student researched the similarities and differences between viruses and organisms. Which statement BEST supports the argument that viruses share some similarities with living things?

a)

They both get energy from their environment.

b)

They both contain proteins and nucleic acids.

c)

They both reproduce on their own.

d)

They both have a shell called a capsid.

49.

Students carried out an investigation related to population size. They grew a population of bacteria in a flask with a set amount of nutrients. The graph shows the general trends in the data they recorded. Analyze the graph. To which of these factors does the value of X on the graph correspond?

a)

mass of nutrients provided

b)

population density

c)

carrying capacity

d)

size of the flask

50.
About how much energy is available to the frog if the grass contains 300,000 kilocalories of available energy?
a)
about 300 kilocalories
b)
about 3,000 kilocalories
c)
about 30,000 kilocalories
d)
about 300,000 kilocalories
51.

How do scientists account for the decrease in available energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level?

a)

The energy is available to organisms at lower tropic levels.

b)

The energy of the sun cannot be fully exploited by producers.

c)

The energy is stored in molecules for decomposers.

d)

The energy is used by organisms for life functions or is lost as heat.

52.

In the food web, which organism can be considered a primary consumer?

a)

grasses

b)

carrots

c)

birds

d)

owls

53.

Which list orders the levels of ecological organization from simplest to most complex?

a)

biome, ecosystem, community, population, organism

b)

community, ecosystem, biome, organism, population

c)

organism, population, biome, ecosystem, community

d)

organism, population, community, ecosystem, biome

54.

Two closely related forms of the fruit fly Drosophila mate at different times of the day. One type mates only in the morning, while the other mates only in the afternoon. Which statement MOST likely describes the two forms of Drosophila?

a)

They share the same gene pool.

b)

They belong to the same species.

c)

They make up two separate species.

d)

They are part of populations in genetic equilibrium.

55.

Suppose an earthquake changes the course of a river, splitting a population of field mice into two groups. Half the mice now live east of the river, and the other half live west of the river. After 500 years, the climate changes, and the river dries up. The two populations of mice mix together again but are not able to interbreed. Which term describes what has occurred?

a)

equilibrium

b)

migration

c)

resistance

d)

speciation

56.

Which term describes parts of organisms that have a similar structure but a different function?

a)

analogous structures

b)

embryological structures

c)

homologous structures

d)

fossilized structures

57.

Fossils of an animal called Ichthyostega show that it had lungs and legs. It also had gills and teeth and a tail similar to that of a fish. Ichthyostega is considered to be one of the first amphibians. Other fossils show that amphibians lost these fish-like features. How might scientists interpret the fossil of Ichthyostega?

a)

It was an early type of primitive fish.

b)

It was the last example of an amphibian with lungs.

c)

It might be an animal that could live on land and in the water.

d)

It might be a connection to birds that were also efficient swimmers.

58.

Which of these lines of evidence would NOT be used by biologists to determine the relationship between two organisms?

a)

bone structure

b)

fossil age

c)

embryology

d)

population size

59.

The diagram shows the corresponding limbs of a whale and a bat. These homologous structures provide evidence about how whales and bats evolved. Which statement about another pair of organisms is MOST similar to the evidence about whale and bat evolution?

a)

Butterfly wings and bat wings both enable an animal to fly.

b)

Carrots and sweet potatoes are both underground structures that store food for the plant.

c)

Cats and horses are both animals that humans have domesticated.

d)

The needles of pine trees and the spines of cacti are both structures that come from a common ancestor.

60.

A single population of lizards living on an island in the Pacific Ocean becomes separated into two populations due to volcanic activity. Which statement describes the most likely outcome of this event after several generations?

a)

One population will become extinct.

b)

Different traits will appear in each population.

c)

Each population will begin to breed at a different time.

d)

The two populations will maintain the same genotypes.

61.

Populations of a European salamander, Proteus anguinus, live in underground caves that have a limited food supply. One of the salamander’s adaptations is the ability to significantly reduce its rate of metabolism when food is scarce. Which of the following statements best describes how the process of natural selection led to this adaptation?

a)

Salamanders with the ability to slow their metabolism grew more slowly than other salamanders.

b)

Salamanders with the ability to slow their metabolism were more likely to emigrate than other salamanders.

c)

Salamanders with the ability to slow their metabolism underwent more rapid mutation than other salamanders.

d)

Salamanders with the ability to slow their metabolism were more likely to survive and reproduce than other salamanders.

62.

One of the major elements of natural selection is that all species have genetic ____________.

a)

digression

b)

melanism

c)

stability

d)

variation

63.

Which of these is required for natural selection?

a)

All individuals of a population must be identical.

b)

There must be a small number of individuals in a population.

c)

There must be variation among members of a population.

d)

A population of individuals must be forced out of their natural habitat.

64.

Why do some strains of bacteria become resistant to antibiotics?

a)

The bacteria grow in habitats protected from antibiotics.

b)

The bacteria develop a method of surviving without energy.

c)

Some bacteria that live in host organisms are not affected by antibiotics.

d)

Some bacteria develop an adaptation that enables them to survive in the presence of antibiotics.

65.

Many insects have become resistant to pesticides. In which population of insects would you MOST likely expect pesticide resistance to develop?

a)

A population that reproduces quickly.

b)

A population that reproduce very slowly.

c)

A population that is never exposed to a pesticide.

d)

A population that is completely killed off by a pesticide.

66.

What is the independent (manipulated) variable in this experiment?

a)

The growth rate of the tomato plants

b)

The type of soil being used

c)

The caffeine

d)

The plants that got exposed to caffeine

67.

Which of the following is an example of a constant (controlled variable) in this experiment?

a)

The type of soil

b)

The amount of sunlight

c)

The number of plants in each group

d)

The amount of water used

e)

All of these are constants

68.

What does the data suggest about the effect of caffeine on tomato plant growth?

a)

A. Caffeine does not significantly affect plant growth in low doses

b)

B. Caffeine increases the rate of plant growth

c)

C. Above a certain concentration, caffeine is damaging/deadly to the plant

d)

D. Caffeine stunts a plant's growth

e)

Answers A and C

69.

How could scientists increase their confidence that the results of this experiment are reliable?

a)

Ignore the 0.5 mg/L and 1.0 mg/L

b)

Repeat the experiment

c)

Add another chemical into the test, like Taurine

d)

Put one plant in the dark

70.

What is one major flaw in this experiment?

a)

Scientists should have given the plants more sunlight

b)

It is backwards; the scientists should be testing the affect of plant growth on caffeine

c)

There should be less than four plants in each condition

d)

The experiment lacks a control group