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PZ Salesforce CDP Quiz B

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Amazon S3 web services connector accommodates which retrieval cadence?

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

e)

every 15 minutes

2.

Which connector helps you ingest user profiles and behavioral events from MC PZ in data cloud?

a)

MC Data Source and Connector

b)

Google Cloud Storage Connector

c)

B2C Connector

d)

MC PZ Connector

3.

The MC PZ connector requires that you

a)

Like the color blue

b)

Create a starter bundle

c)

Prefer dogs to cats

4.

Starter data bundles allow you to to go from importing the data set to automatically introducing it to the data model layer

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

Within the Marketing Cloud Data Sources and Connector the behavioral and engagement oriented data sets retrieved refresh

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

6.

Within the Marketing Cloud Data Sources and Connector the profile data sets retrieved refresh

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

7.

Within the Marketing Cloud Data Connector, you can access custom data sets which can be imported once you've provisioned them in your instance. There are two options to export your data extension from Marketing Cloud are:

a)

Full Refresh

b)

New/ Updated Data

c)

Cut and Paste

8.

If your Marketing Cloud data extension is set to 'full refresh' of the data, this will be retrieved by Data Cloud

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

9.

If your Marketing Cloud data extension is set to 'new/ updated data only' of the data, this will be retrieved by Data Cloud

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

10.

Do the Marketing Cloud Data Extensions require an additional step to complete data modeling? Or is it done automatically?

a)

automatically

b)

unlike the data starter bundles, the extensions require additional work to model the data into the customer 360 model

11.

Salesforce CRM data connector refreshes _____ but ______ there's also a full refresh of the data

a)

hourly, weekly

b)

daily, monthly

c)

weekly, weekly

d)

monthly, hourly

12.

True or false: Data model objects have attributes that represent information related to the object.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

True or false: The individual ID value helps link DMOs to other DMOs in Data Cloud.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

What cardinality would you use to map the contact point email field to the individual ID field?

a)

OneToOne

b)

ManyToOne

c)

OneToMany

d)

ManyToMany

15.

Which of these interactions might generate data that is linked to an Email Engagement data model object?

a)

A user opens their phone

b)

A user looks at a banner ad on a website

c)

A user sends an SMS message

d)

A user clicks a link emailed to them

16.

True or false: The Engagement data model includes data model objects for multiple channels of communication.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

True or false: You don’t need to know how often your data streams are updated.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

Which process links data sources to data model objects?

a)

Data linking

b)

Data chaining

c)

Data mapping

d)

Data pathing

19.

What do you do when datasets have fields that align to one DMO and another portion aligns to another DMO?

a)

Denormalize the data

b)

Transpose the single records to multiple records

c)

Create formula fields

d)

Use a subscriber key value

20.

Which objects must be mapped to the Individual DMO to enable the unification and activation process to work? (choose all that apply)

a)

Contact Point

b)

Unified Individual

c)

Customer Profile

d)

Party Identification

e)

Purchase Order

21.

Data modeling occurs after which step when establishing the data model in the Data Cloud platform?

a)

Activation

b)

Identity Resolution

c)

Ingestion

d)

Segmentation

22.

You have a short time to create a DMO and the requestor needs this Data Cloud data available for segmentation as soon as possible. Which type of data model object would you build?

a)

Hybrd

b)

Standard

c)

Custom

23.

You need to integrate new data sources with custom attributes that will be added to a standard data model object. Which type of data model objects would you build? 

a)

Hybrid

b)

Standard

c)

Custom

24.

How is the Individual Object referenced in other DMOs within a data model?

a)

Via Individual.Id Attribute

b)

Via Party Identification Object

c)

Via Contact Point Identifier

d)

Via Party Attribute

25.

Why should a cardinality setting of 1:M be set for objects such as Contact Point Phone, Email, or  Party Identification?

a)

Is the default field for all relationship definitions

b)

Requires the same cardinality as the Individual object

c)

Allows a relationship to multiple objects

d)

Allows a relationship to multiple records

26.

What is the purpose of Data Explorer? (choose all that apply)

a)

To inspect initial values and validate formula fields for DSOs

b)

To inspect calculated insights

c)

To view over 250 records and 25 attributes

d)

To enable validation of the configured mappings for DMOs

27.

Select the two statements that are benefits or features of the standard data model.

a)

If well-planned, it fuels harmonization by mapping the ingested data in alignment with the Master Data Management (MDM) system.

b)

It includes default data mappings for various Salesforce cloud products.

c)

It’s a canonical data model, because it prepares a list of objects, fields, metadata, and relationships to ensure consistency across applications and business processes.

d)

Extensive customization of it is encouraged for segmentation, insights, and coverage gaps.

28.

At which point in the data model configuration process can you add custom attributes?

a)

Inventory Data

b)

Inspect Field-Level Data

c)

Configure Mapping

d)

Configure Relationships

29.

The purpose of the Inventory Data step is to create an inventory of ____ ingested into the Data Cloud.

a)

Data objects

b)

Data streams

c)

Data source objects

d)

Data lake objects

30.

What are the two main objectives when inspecting field-level data?

a)

Establish what data identifies individuals uniquely.

b)

Transpose data so that duplicate emails are unique.

c)

Identify the relationship between records and identify unique primary keys.

d)

Create subscriber key values by using formula fields.

31.

____ drives value across harmonization, unification, and activation

a)

Extending the Data Model

b)

Required Mappings

c)

Data Category

32.

_____ adds new custom attributes to extend the standard objects

a)

Extending the Data Model

b)

Required Mappings

c)

Data Category

33.

____ is inherited from the first data source mapped to it.

a)

Data Category

b)

Extending the Data Model

c)

Required Mappings

34.

Which two statements are true about configuring relationships?

a)

Ensure all objects are tied back directly or indirectly to an entity that will be used in segmentation.

b)

Setting cardinality value is optional if it isn’t an Individual object.

c)

Use a graph to identify orphan objects when the relationships haven’t been configured yet.

d)

Configure relationship mapping by clicking the add button from the Data Model tab.

35.

Identify the activities possible on the Data Explorer. (choose 3)

a)

Preview data.

b)

Inspect multiple object types.

c)

Display up to 50 records and 20 attributes.

d)

Inspect only DSOs and DMOs.

e)

Validate formula fields.

36.

What is the unification process called? 

a)

Identity Resolution

b)

Mapping

c)

Ingestion

d)

Modeling

37.

Match Rules rules can make use of ________ and _________ attributes mapped to the data model.

a)

unified individual and unified contact

b)

standard and custom

c)

unified and custom

d)

unified individual and standard

38.

Which of these fields directly impact matching during the unification process? Choose three.

a)

Party Identification Id (PK)

b)

Party Identification Type

c)

Identification Name

d)

Identification Number

39.

For anonymous profiles to be counted correctly, set the value of the Is Anonymous field to ____.

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

40.

What reconciliation rule is defined by default when selecting profile attributes in the Unified Individual?

a)

Last updated 

b)

Source sequence

c)

Most occurring

d)

Oldest record

41.

When ingesting data into Data Cloud you have the option to extend your data through a formula field, which category of formula functions include: EXTRACT (), FIND (), LEFT(), SUBSTITUTE ()?

a)

Data Calculations

b)

Type Conversions

c)

Text Manipulation

d)

Logical Expressions

42.

When ingesting data into Data Cloud you have the option to extend your data through a formula field, which category of formula functions include: ABS (), MD%(), NUMBER (), PARSEDATE()?

a)

Data Calculations

b)

Type Conversions

c)

Text Manipulation

d)

Logical Expressions

43.

When ingesting data into Data Cloud you have the option to extend your data through a formula field, which category of formula functions include: DATE(), DATEDIFF(), DAYPRECISION()?

a)

Date Calculations

b)

Type Conversions

c)

Text Manipulation

d)

Logical Expressions

44.

When ingesting data into Data Cloud you have the option to extend your data through a formula field, which category of formula functions include: IF(), AND(), NOT()?

a)

Data Calculations

b)

Type Conversions

c)

Text Manipulation

d)

Logical Expressions

45.

When do you use key qualifier fields to identify, target and analyze customer data accurately? (choose 4)

a)

calculated insights

b)

segmentation

c)

query API

d)

data ingestion: extend your data

e)

identify resolution

46.

What makes up a fully qualified key?

a)

Source key + first name

b)

Key qualifier + field formula

c)

Source key + Key Qualifier

47.

To ingest data from Amazon S3 into Data Cloud you'll need the following items:

a)

access key

b)

secret key

c)

directory name

d)

file name

e)

all of the above

48.

Which customer 360 data model provides information about trading relationships, such as customer and supplier information?

a)

product data model

b)

party data model

c)

sales order data model

d)

case data model

49.

Which customer 360 data model provides information about on a product available for sale or service?

a)

product data model

b)

party data model

c)

sales order model

d)

case data model

50.

Which customer 360 data model provides information about on future revenue or quantity for an opportunity, including product family, territory, and other information?

a)

product data model

b)

party data model

c)

sales order data model

d)

case data model

51.

Which customer 360 data model provides information about on interactions with a specific party, such as an email message or telephone call?

a)

product data model

b)

party data model

c)

engagement data model

d)

case data model

52.

Which customer 360 data model provides information about on any recorded issue, such as a mobile phone repair problem?

a)

product data model

b)

party data model

c)

engagement data model

d)

case data model

53.

Which customer 360 data model provides information about on the complete set of experiences for a party when they interact with your company?

a)

product data model

b)

party data model

c)

engagement data model

d)

journey data model

54.

Which customer 360 data model provides information , programs, or apps designed for an end user?

a)

software application data model

b)

party data model

c)

engagement data model

d)

journey data model

55.

The Marketing Cloud Email Studio Bundle that is automatically mapped to the data model includes which standard data model objects (Choose 3)?

a)

engagement data model

b)

party data model

c)

journey data model

d)

product data model

56.

Fields related to address, phone number, email or other contact points don't belong on the Individual object, instead there are specific reserved objects for these: ____ , ____ , and ____.

a)

Contact Point Address

b)

Contact Point Phone

c)

Contact Point Email

d)

Contact Point City

57.

On the Contact Point Email Object there are 3 fields that are required to properly map within the data model

a)

Individual ID

b)

Contact Point Email ID

c)

Party

d)

Email Address

58.

Data can be ingested from the Salesforce CRM connector in 3 ways, what are they?

a)

Starter Data Bundles

b)

Direct Object Ingestion

c)

Data Kits

d)

Email Address

59.

Which do the standard data bundles consist of?

a)

Sales Cloud Data

b)

Web and Mobile Data

c)

Loyalty Management Data

d)

Service Cloud Data

60.

Can you have multiple CRM connections configured to a single Data Cloud org?

a)

Yes

b)

No

61.

The Sales Cloud Standard Data Bundle includes data streams for the following :

a)

Case

b)

Contact

c)

Lead

d)

Account

62.

At the deployment step for data streams, is it possible to make any changes to the bundle configuration?

a)

Yes

b)

No

63.

The Service Cloud Standard Data Bundle includes data streams for the following (choose 3):

a)

Case

b)

Contact

c)

Lead

d)

Account

64.

The Loyalty Management Cloud Standard Data Bundle includes (but not limited to) data streams for the following :

a)

Loyalty Tier

b)

Member Benefit

c)

Account

d)

Transaction Journal

e)

Voucher

65.

At the deployment step, the dialog allows for a data stream name update, defaulting its value to:

a)

 <Individual ID>_<Salesforce Org Id>

b)

 <Party>_<Salesforce Org Id>

c)

 <Object Name>_<Salesforce Org Id>

d)

 <Object Name>_<Individual Id>

66.

Salesforce CRM DataObject Ingestion automatically defaults to 

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

67.

Salesforce CRM data stream is fully refreshed on a _____ basis

a)

hourly

b)

daily

c)

weekly

d)

monthly

68.

Data Cloud has connectors for

a)

Marketing Cloud Data Extensions, Salesforce CRM, Ingestion API

b)

Marketing Cloud Email Studio, Mobile Connect, Mobile Push

c)

Ingestion API & Cloud Storage Providers

d)

Marketing Cloud Email Studio, Mobile Connect, Mobile Push, Marketing Cloud Data Extensions, Saloesforce CRM, Ingestion API, Interaction Studio & Cloud Storage Providers

69.

What is a streaming data transfer?

a)

reads one record in a source data lake object, reshapes the record data, and writes one or more records to a target data lake object. The source and target objects must be different objects

b)

you can choose to generate more fields, these supplemental fields can be hard-coded or derived from other fields in the data stream.

c)

assess your field-level data to establish how to transform and map the source data to the standard data model

70.

What is true about formula fields?

a)

reads one record in a source data lake object, reshapes the record data, and writes one or more records to a target data lake object. The source and target objects must be different objects

b)

you can choose to generate more fields, these supplemental fields can be hard-coded or derived from other fields in the data stream.

c)

assess your field-level data to establish how to transform and map the source data to the standard data model

71.

The standard data model for Data Cloud is normalized, how would you do this?

a)

reads one record in a source data lake object, reshapes the record data, and writes one or more records to a target data lake object. The source and target objects must be different objects

b)

you can choose to generate more fields, these supplemental fields can be hard-coded or derived from other fields in the data stream.

c)

assess your field-level data to establish how to transform and map the source data to the standard data model

72.

The Customer 360 data model includes different ___, used to describe types of information in the data model. The information used to describe those data model objects are ____ (contained in fields in the Data Cloud app)

a)

Data Model Objects (DMOs), Attributes 

b)

Data Model Objects (DMOs), Individual ID

c)

Individual IDs, Data Model Object

d)

Data Lake Objects, Data Model Objects

73.

Data Cloud requires that all data models include ____

a)

individual, party identification

b)

individual, party identification, contact point email, contact point phone, and contact point address

c)

contact point email, contact point phone, and contact point address

74.

____ represents an instance of a person or an organization and can include contact information, how that role relates to your business and other pertinent information

a)

Individual

b)

Party

c)

Contact Point Email

75.

What reconciliation rule is defined by default when selecting profile attributes in the Unified Individual?

a)

Last updated 

b)

Source sequence

c)

Most occurring

d)

Oldest record