wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Выполнять правила промышленной и экологической безопасности при

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Choose the incorrect statement: I- One of the most dangerous operations in production is ignition of furnace burners; II- The process includes a significant number of electrical equipment units, including those using voltages up to 6000 V

a)

Both are incorrect

b)

Only I

c)

Both are correct

d)

Only II

2.

What should be done to enable the safe conduct of the process and the protection of maintenance personnel at the installation?

a)

The technological process is carried out in sealed apparatus

b)

All equipment is selected in accordance with technological requirements

c)

All of the answers are correct

d)

The technology is organized in such a way as to prevent the possibility of an explosion

3.

Choose the hazards caused by the violation of the rules of operation of electrical equipment

a)

Violation of the rules for laying cables, grounding devices can lead to failure of cables, fire

b)

Sudden change in temperature, pressure in steam pipeline during their heating or operation can lead to water shocks, thermal shocks

c)

The use of fittings, fittings, plugs, taps, pipes, fasteners that do not comply with the rules can lead to the failure of communication, gas contamination, fires, explosion, poisoning are possible

d)

Failures of devices for monitoring and regulating the temperature at the outlet of the furnaces, the consumption of raw material and VSH in the furnace can lead to overheating of furnace pipes, accidents

4.

Choose the explosive mixture

a)

Iron and benzene mixture

b)

Middle distillates

c)

Benzene and gasoline mixture

d)

Hydrogen and oxygen mixture

5.

Choose the production caused by violations of safety rules by employees

a)

Failure of communication

b)

Overheating of furnace pipes

c)

Coking

d)

Fire, gas comtamination

6.

Choose the hazard caused by the violation of the rules of operation of equipment, communications:

a)

Coking

b)

Fire, gas contamination

c)

Failure of communication

d)

Overheating of furnace pipes

7.

What is a product of the isomerization of heptane?

a)

dimethylpentane

b)

ethylbenzene

c)

methylhexene-1

d)

methylheptane

8.

What is a product of dehydrogenation of methyl cyclohexane?

a)

Xylene

b)

n-Heptane

c)

Toluene

d)

Benzene

9.

Put the steps on the correct answers: Basic safety measures during start-up are: 1. Availability of operational and technical documentation; 2. Release of fire and explosion hazardous system from oxygen; 3. Ready for the operation of the flare system; 4. Equipment of workplaces with means of communication, alarm, fire extinguishing, personal and collective protection

a)

4, 1, 3, 2

b)

1, 4, 2, 3

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

1, 3, 2, 4

10.

Name the process of transforming C7-C10 hydrocarbons with low octane numbers to aromatics and iso-paraffins which have high octane number

a)

Hydrocracking

b)

Cracking

c)

Reforming

d)

Alkylation

11.

Choose the hazard caused by violation of the rules of operation of equipment, communication

a)

The use of fittings, fittings, plugs, taps, pipes, fasteners that do not comply with the rules can lead to the failure of communication, gas contamination, fires, explosion, poisoning are possible

b)

Sudden change in temperature, pressure in steam pipeline during their heating or operation can lead to water shocks, thermal shocks

c)

Violation of the rules for laying cables, grounding devices can lead to failure of cables, fire

d)

Failures of devices for monitoring and regulating the temperature at the outlet of the furnaces, the consumption of raw material and VSH in the furnace can lead to overheating of furnace pipes, accidents

12.

Choose the hazards caused by gases in technological process

a)

Dryness and irritation of the skin

b)

Dustiness of working areas

c)

Rhysical injuries

d)

Poisoning

13.

Raw material, semi-finished products, fuels used and obtained at the reforming are ....

a)

Middle residues

b)

Low molecular organic compounds

c)

Heavy residues

d)

High molecular organic compounds

14.

The hazards caused by the features of the equipment used is ...

a)

Coking, changing the metal structure of the reaction, fumes of lining materials and burners leads to periodic shutdown of the furnace and reactor equipment for the repair

b)

Spills of liquid petroleum products and their ingress into the sewer can lead to gas contamination, poisoning is possible

c)

Inhaling large doses of harmful gases can lead to loss of consciousness, disruption of cardiovascular system and death

d)

The use of open fire for heating raw materials and intermediates in tubular furnaces

15.

Vapors of the substance at high concentrations act narcotic, and have a harmful effect on the nervous system

a)

Cooling liquid

b)

Hydrogen and Oxygen

c)

Benzene

d)

Clay

16.

How many factors are required for the occurrence of combustion ?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

17.

Depending on the properties of the combustible mixture combustion is divided into ___________ and __________.

a)

endothermic, exothermic

b)

oxidation, reduction

c)

homogeneous, heterogeneous

d)
  • active, passive

18.

Name an extremely fast chemical (explosive) conversion, accompanied by the release of energy and the formation of compressed gas capable of producing mechanical work.

a)

Flash

b)

Fire

c)

Inflammation

d)

Explosion

19.

Name rapid combustion of the combustible mixture is not accompanied by the formation of compressed gas.

a)

Explosion

b)

Flash

c)

Fire

d)

Inflammation

20.

Choose the definition of combustible substances and materials.

a)

substances include those substances which are not able to spread the flames and burn only at the site of the impact pulse;

b)

non-flammable, even when exposed to enough high-power pulses.

c)
  • the spark from these electrostatic charges

d)

substances and materials that ignite from outside sources and continue to burn after its removal.

21.

Which of the following is the acronym describing the correct sequence of using a fire extinguisher?

a)

PASS

b)

PASH

c)

PULL

d)

PUSH

22.

Which of the following fire extinguishers is used to put out Class A fires?

a)

Wet Chemical

b)

CO2

c)

Water

d)

DryChemical

23.

When using a fire extinguisher, how far should you stand away from the fire?

a)

2 m

b)

3 m

c)

1 m

d)

4 m

24.

What can you do to help prevent a fire at work?

a)

Avoid using electrical equipment near flammable gases, vapors, and liquids

b)

Use electrical wires near flammable gases and liquids

c)

Avoid cleaning up oil spills and chemical spills

d)

Clutter your workspace with paper and other combustibles

25.

Below is a list of fire extinguisher types matched with surfaces on which they can be used. Which is the incorrect option?

a)

Class B - Plastics, polyethene, styrofoam

b)

Class D - Combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, titanium, and sodium

c)

Class A - Cloth, wood, paper, and rubber

d)

Class C - Wiring, fuse boxes, electrical equipment, and computers

26.

If you are unable to evacuate your floor, you should not

a)

Use wet clothing to seal openings around doors and windows

b)

Place an object outside the window to signal your presence to firefighters

c)

Stand on a chair to breathe the air above

d)

Stoop low and stay close to the floor to breathe better air

27.

Which fire extinguisher is most suitable for an electrical fire?

a)

Water

b)

CO2 extinguisher

c)

Dry Powder

d)

Wet Chemical

28.

The correct way to extinguish a fire to aim.

a)

At the top

b)

At the side

c)

At the base

d)

At the center

29.

What does P.A.S.S. stand for?

a)

press aim, stand, sweep

b)

palm,arm, shoulder, snap

c)

push, aim, stand, sweep

d)

press, aim, squeeze, sweep

30.

On the sound of any emergency alarm, what should you do?

a)

Stay and wait for help

b)

Stop all activities and vacate the area immediately

c)

Turning off all electricity

d)

Take all important documents before exiting

31.

These fire extinguishers extinguish the fire by taking away the heat element of the fire triangle. It must be used only for Class A fires.

a)
  • Water and Foam fire extinguisher

b)

Carbon Dioxide fire extinguishers

c)
  • Dry Chemical fire extinguisher

d)

Dry Powder extinguisher

32.

The emergency plan includes:

a)

A list of officials and agencies are notified in case of an accident and involved in its eradication

b)

The allocation of responsibilities between the employees involved in the emergency response, the sequence of actions

c)
  • The operational part

d)

All of them

33.

The occupational disease is:

a)

The disease that often has their origin in a combination of factors, in which the working environment plays only a partial role

b)

None of them

c)

The consequence of exposure for a certain amount of time to a risk which exists during the normal exercise of an occupation

d)

Injuries at work including commuting accidents, their consequences and complications

34.

On your way to a meeting you walk past that piece of equipment and notice that one of the guards has been removed. What do you do?

a)

Put it back in place, if you are qualified to do so

b)
  • All it above

c)

Lock out the machine

d)
  • Report to the supervisor

35.

... fire extinguishers extinguish fire by taking away the oxygen element of the fire triangle and also be removing the heat with a very cold discharge. It is used on Class B and C fires and ineffective on Class A fire.

a)

Carbon Dioxide fire extinguishers

b)
  • Water Mist extinguisher

c)

Water and Foam fire extinguisher

d)
  • Dry Powder extinguisher

36.

Classification of the production by its explosion-fire hazards:

.... are characterized by the use or formation in the production process of combustible gases with a lower concentration limit of explosion (ignition) 10% of the air volume and less; liquids having a flash temperature of vapor to 28 ° C inclusive, if out of these gases and liquids may form explosive mixtures in excess of 5% of the volume of air in the room; substances capable of burning and exploding in contact with water, oxygen or air with each other.

a)
  • Production category C

b)

Production category D

c)
  • Production category A (explosive)

d)
  • Production B category (explosive)

37.

What is characterized as preventive medicine, which studies the conditions and nature of work, their impact on human health and functional state and develops scientific foundations and practical measures aimed at preventing harmful and dangerous effects of factors of the working environment and the labor process on worker?

a)
  • Industrial safety

b)
  • Industrial sanitation

c)
  • Occupational hygiene

d)
  • Fire safety

38.

Which of the following is a potential hazard?

a)
  • Manual tasks that strain the body

b)
  • Working on wet floor

c)
  • All of them

d)
  • Breathing in toxic fumes

39.

What is the state of protection of the vital interests of the individual and society from accidents at hazardous production facilities and the consequences of these accidents?

a)
  • Occupational hygiene

b)
  • Industrial safety

c)
  • Electrical safety

d)
  • Industrial sanitation

40.

What is the purpose of the pre-employment health examination

a)
  • Detect early as possible any sign of work-related health problems

b)
  • Determine if person is physically/ psychologically fit to perform a particular job

c)
  • Diagnose occupational disease

d)
  • Identify health risks at the workplace

41.

On the introduction of new rules by the employer, the workers should be informed in ...?

a)
  • no later than three month before

b)
  • no later than one week before

c)

no later than two weeks before

d)
  • no later than one month before

42.

In case of any type of fire, it is best to use a ______ fire extinguisher.

a)
  • Water based

b)

Foam based

c)
  • Wet Chemical based

d)
  • Powder based

43.

What are toxic substances?

a)
  • liquid, gas capable of spontaneous combustion and igniting from the ignition source and independently burning after its removal

b)
  • a substance that in certain kinds of external influences capable of rapid self-propagating chemical conversion with the heat and the formation of gases

c)
  • substances capable of under the influence of living organisms in their death

d)
  • gas which is under normal pressure and air mixture becomes flammable and a boiling point under normal pressure is 20 degrees Celsius or below

44.

A hazard is an activity, arrangement, circumstance, event, or occurrence ... that is an actual or possible source of harm. Hazards can be:

a)
  • Actual and/or Behavioral

b)
  • All of them

c)

Physical

d)

Biological

45.

Fire risk areas classified into ... categories?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

2

d)

4

46.

What types of fire exist?

a)
  • A, B, C, D and I

b)
  • A, B, C, D and K

c)
  • A, B, C, D

d)
  • A, B, C, D and J

47.

The probability of fire in buildings and fire spread will depend on:

a)

All of them

b)
  • Layout of buildings

c)
  • The materials from which the building is constructed fire load

d)
  • The size of buildings

48.

The content of substances in the air should not exceed their MPC. What is MPC?

a)
  • Maximum permissible concentration

b)
  • Marginal propensity to consume

c)
  • None of them

d)
  • Minimum permissible concentration

49.

All new who is coming to work, regardless of their education and work experience must have which types of instruction:

a)
  • Instruction in the workplace

b)
  • Introductory instruction

c)
  • The repeated instruction

d)

Current instruction

50.

What are the diagnostic criteria of occupational disease

a)
  • The disease was diagnosed before the actual exposure started

b)
  • There were no occupational exposures causing the disease in question

c)
  • There are some other diseases that have the same symptoms

d)
  • Typical symptoms appear in relation to work exposures