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8Th Grade Final Review

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Energy?

a)

The ability to do anything

b)

The ability to cause change

c)

The investigation of nature

d)

A fact of life

2.

What is an example of kinetic energy?

a)

A bird sitting in a tree

b)

A bouncy ball on the table

c)

A car driving on the highway

d)

A book on shelf

3.

What is an example of potential energy?

a)

A bowling ball rolling down a lane

b)

A car parked in a lot

c)

An apple falling from a tree

d)

Sunlight heating up the atmosphere

4.

Which has more potential energy?

a)

A bird in a tree

b)

A car in the garage

c)

An airplane before takeoff

d)

A child on a swing

5.

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

What is an example of sound energy?

a)

A thermometer heating up

b)

Solar panels generating electricity

c)

A guitar string being plucked

d)

A machine in an assembly line

7.
One form of energy changes to another
a)
Energy Transformation
b)
Energy Transfer
8.

Lisa has a bottle of water. How can she increase the thermal energy of the water?

a)

She can pour the water into a larger bottle.

b)

She can increase the temperature of the water.

c)

She can place the bottle of water in the refrigerator.

d)

She can divide the water between tow identical containers.

9.

Kito puts his spoon into a helping of fresh, hot, mashed potatoes as shown in the picture. Which process takes place when the objects come together?

a)

The temperature of the spoon increases, but its thermal energy does not change.

b)

Energy in the form of heat is transferred by conduction from the warmer mashed potatoes to the cooler spoon.

c)

The thermal energy of both the mashed potates and the spoon increase as the energy in the form of heat is transferred between them.

d)

The average temperature of the spoon does not change.

10.

Ashton warms a pure, solid substance. He graphs the changes in temperature as shown in the figure below. What is happening as he warms the substance?

a)

molecules move more slowly

b)

molecules move more rapidly

c)

speed of the molecules in not changing

d)

molecules speed up than slow down

11.

Which example illustrate the transfer of energy through RADIATION?

a)

feeling warmth when you sit in a sunny place.

b)

feeling warm air while standing in front of the blower from a heating system.

c)

feeling the warmth of the bricks around a fireplace by touching them with your hand.

d)

feeling warmth on the soles of your feet when you walk along the beach on a sunny day.

12.

Which of these processes is the result of the motion of particles in a gas or liquid?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

insulation

d)

radiation

13.

Mrs. Plata likes to collect river rocks on her daily walk. She picked up a rock and placed it in her pocket. If the rock is 10 degrees Celsius and Mrs. Plata is 31 degrees Celsius, which of the following BEST describes the transfer of energy?

a)

Thermal energy will flow from Mrs. Plata to the rock.

b)

Thermal energy will flow from the rock to Mrs. Plata.

c)

Thermal energy will flow from Mrs. Plata into the air.

d)

Thermal energy will flow into the air and to the rock.

14.

At room temperature water is a liquid. How could the water be changed to a solid?

a)

add heat

b)

remove heat

c)

decrease density

d)

increase density

15.

Using the picture. What was the change in the system?

a)

air was added to the system

b)

heat was added to the system

c)

water was added to the system

d)

particles were added to the system

16.

On a hot day the lake water warms and the temperature increases. How does the movement of the particles change?

a)

move slower and farther apart

b)

move slower and closer together

c)

move faster and farther apart

d)

move faster and closer together

17.

Jeriah places two metal cubes in contact with each other. Energy transfers as heat flows from Cube A to Cube B. What conclusion can you draw regarding Cube A?

a)

It is larger than Cube B.

b)

It is cooler than Cube B.

c)

It is smaller than Cube B.

d)

It is warmer than Cube B.

18.
Between what two points is the most energy being added to the system
a)
A -B
b)
B-C
c)
C-D
d)
D-E
19.
Which line segment demonstrates vaporization occurring?
a)
B-C
b)
C-D
c)
D-E
d)
E-F
20.
As substance goes from D to E what happens to the distance between the particles?
a)
particles get closer together
b)
particles disappear
c)
particles get far apart
21.

What phase of matter exists in part C of the graph?

a)

Gas

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

d)

Plasma

22.

Heat we feel from the sun

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

23.

The heat you feel when you touch a hot stove.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

24.

This is responsible for making macaroni rise and fall in a pot on the stove.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

25.

Which best describes the energy conversation as the ball falls the ground?

a)

Kinetic to potential

b)

Potential to kinetic

c)

Total to potential

d)

Elastic to potential

26.
_________________________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a material.
a)
thermal
b)
friction
c)
temperature
d)
expansion
27.
The liquid in a thermometer ______________ as the temperature increases.
a)
expands
b)
disappears
c)
freezes
d)
explodes
28.
Thermal energy always moves from ____________ objects to ______________ objects.
a)
cooler, warmer
b)
warmer, cooler
c)
faster, slower
d)
slower, faster
29.
An increase in the volume of a substance when the temperature increases is called ___________________________________.
a)
kinetic energy
b)
thermal expansion
c)
temperature
d)
heat
30.

The total energy of all the particles in a substance is called

a)

temperature

b)

thermal energy

c)

degrees

d)

mass

31.

Heat is transferred from one particle of matter to another without the actual movement of matter in a process called

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

insulation

32.

The transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves is called

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

insulation

33.

A material that does NOT conduct heat well is called a(n)

a)

insulator

b)

conductor

c)

metal

d)

radiator

34.

The expanding of matter when it is heated is known as

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

thermal expansion

d)

vaporization

35.

Heated air moves from baseboard heaters to the rest of a room in a process called

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

insulation

36.

Which transverse wave has the highest frequency?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

37.
Carries energy from one place to another
a)
Waves
b)
Amplitude
c)
Frequency
d)
Crest
38.

The measurement of the length of a wave from one point of the wave to the next identical part of the wave (for example, top to top or bottom to bottom)

a)

Crest

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

39.

The number of waves that passes a certain point in a set period of time

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplength

40.
What kind of wave is pictured below?
a)
compressional wave
b)
transverse wave
c)
sound wave
d)
mechanical wave
41.
Which vocabulary term is used to identify the distance between points C & G?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Crest
c)
Frequency
d)
Wavelength
42.

Which vocabulary term is used to identify the distance between points C & E?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Crest

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

43.
Top of the wave
a)
Wavelength
b)
Amplitude
c)
Trough
d)
Crest
44.
Bottom of the wave
a)
Crest
b)
Trough
c)
Frequency
d)
Wavelength
45.
The matter (solid, liquid, or gas) through which waves can travel
a)
Medium
b)
Object
c)
Transverse Wave
d)
Wavelength
46.

What is transferred in waves?

a)

Energy

b)

Objects

c)

Magic

d)

Light

47.

What type of wave is pictured?

a)

Transverse wave

b)

Longitudinal wave

c)

Wave, what wave?

d)

Slinky wave

48.
What is B?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
compression
d)
rarefaction
49.
It is the part of the wave where the particles are spread out.  It is part B in this picture. 
a)
Compression
b)
Rarefaction
c)
Amplitude
d)
Wavelength
50.

Increasing the amplitude of a wave ______ the wave’s energy.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Does not change

51.

A wave with a large wavelength will have...

a)

Low Frequency & Low Energy

b)

High Frequency & High Energy

c)

High Frequency & Low Energy

d)

Low Frequency & High Energy

52.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest energy?
a)
gamma ray
b)
infrared wave
c)
visible light wave
d)
microwave
53.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
54.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
55.
True or false: as you move along the spectrum, radio to gamma waves, the wavelengths decrease in size (get smaller)
a)
true
b)
false
56.
Which characteristic would most likely be inherited by a baby?
a)
brown hair
b)
crying a lot
c)
ability to jump high
d)
his ability to talk
57.
The following are inherited traits of humans EXCEPT...
a)
long hair
b)
blue eyes
c)
long eyelashes
d)
small dimples
58.

In a Punnett square, a lower case letter stands for a ____________ allele.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

59.

Hair color, height, eye color and freckles are examples of human traits. What do we call the physical expression of the genetic material of an organism?

a)

genetics

b)

heredity

c)

genotype

d)

phenotype

60.

In animals, shaggy fur is dominant to short fur. The Punnett Square shows the genotypes of the offspring of a shaggy fur animal and a short fur animal. What were the genotypes of the parents?

a)

FF and FF

b)

Ff and ff

c)

ff and ff

d)

Ff and Ff

61.

In animals, shaggy fur is dominant to short fur. According to the genotypes shown, what percent of offspring will have short fur?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

62.

Heterozygous is when...

a)

the alleles are the same.

b)

the alleles are different.

c)

the alleles are absent.

d)

the alleles are present.

63.

T = tall and t = short

In the punnett square shown, what belongs in the missing square

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

Bb

d)

TT

64.

In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

65.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
66.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
67.

The genotypes AA and Aa always show up as the __________ phenotype.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

68.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

A

b)

Aa

c)

AA

d)

aa

69.

Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

d)

B

70.

A recessive allele is represented by a ______ letter.

a)

lower-case

b)

capital

71.

A dominant allele is represented by a ______ letter.

a)

lower-case

b)

capital

72.

Bb is a ______.

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

73.

If a black guinea pig (BB) and a white guinea pig (bb) mate, there is a ______ chance that a white guinea pig will be born.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

74.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
75.
In the second generation-how many people have the disease or display the physical trait?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
76.

Objective #13

This is a pedigree that follows blue eyes which is a recessive trait. What is the phenotype of the mother (circle) in generation 1?

a)

Brown

b)

Blue

c)

1 blue, 1 brown

77.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
78.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
79.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
80.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
81.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
82.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
83.
What is the definition of DNA mutation? 
a)
The original DNA strand
b)
The strand with four pairs 
c)
A change in the DNA strand
d)
The strand in a double helix 
84.
This scientist came up with the idea of natural selection.
a)
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Thomas Malthus
85.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
86.
Survival of the fittest or when favorable adaptations reproduce faster is called what?
a)
Evolution
b)
Adaptation
c)
Natural selection
d)
Fossilization
87.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
88.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
89.

What do we call a change in a species over time?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Evolution

c)

Extinction

d)

Environmental influences

90.
Why do embryologist study embryos?
a)
to see if they are related
b)
to understand adaptations
c)
to determine the age
d)
to learn what parents are vestigial
91.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
92.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
93.
Which layer is oldest?
a)
A
b)
W
c)
G
d)
Z
94.

Select ALL of the steps to forming a new species.

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

division

d)

separation

95.

Beak shape, camouflage, and webbed feet are all examples of which type of adaptation?

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

96.

Hibernation is an example of which type of adaptation?

a)

Behavioral Adaptation

b)

Physical Adaptation

97.

Inserting a gene for bioluminescence (glowing) into fish is an example of...

a)

Genetic engineering

b)

Natural selection

c)

Artificial selection

d)

Selective breeding

98.

What are the 3 main layers of the Earth?

a)

Atmosphere, Hydrosphere, Biosphere

b)

Crust, Mantle, Core

c)

Rock, Magma, Ocean

d)

Top, Middle, Bottom

99.

Which layer of the Earth is liquid Iron and Nickle?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

100.

Which layer of the Earth is a dense solid ball of Iron and Nickle?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

101.

What layer of the Earth is represented by the letter A?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

102.

What layer of the Earth is represented by the letter B?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

103.

What layer of the Earth is represented by the letter D?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

104.

Most earthquakes tend to occur at which location?

a)

The central regions of very large continents

b)

Groups of islands farthest from any continents

c)

The boundaries between continents and oceans

d)

The steep slopes of the very oldest mountains

105.

The theory that states that pieces of Earth's crust are in constant, slow motion is the theory of...

a)

continental eruption

b)

plate boundaries

c)

plate tectonics

d)

lithospheric drift

106.
All of the continents were once part of one large continent called...
a)
Panacea
b)
Pangea
c)
North America
d)
Gondwana
107.

This man was responsible for creating the idea of continental drift.

a)

Alfred Wegener

b)

Neil Hess

c)

Harry Cooper

d)

Alex Roger

108.
Tectonic plates are made up of continental crust and ________ crust.
a)
continental
b)
oceanic
c)
plates
d)
mantle
109.

What type of plate boundary creates new sea floor?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

d)

Subduction

110.

What type of plate boundary is represented in the picture?

a)

Athensphere

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

Convergent

111.

What type of plate boundary is represented in the picture?

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

d)

Lithosphere

112.
A plate boundary where two plates move away from each other is called
a)
Divergent Boundary
b)
Convergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Subduction
113.
What does the theory of continental drift state?
a)
The continents were once joined in a super-continent and have moved over time
b)
Continents are stationary and do not move
c)
The Earth is broken into lithospheric plates that move due to convection currents
d)
none of the above
114.

_______ are mountain chains on the ocean floor.

a)

Sea-floor ridges

b)

Mid-ocean ridges

c)

Tectonic plates

d)

Photosynthesis

115.

As the melted rock cools and hardens,

it forms new ________.

a)

volcanoes

b)

hope

c)

core

d)

crust

116.

___________ is the process by which

new oceanic lithosphere (sea floor) forms as magma rises to Earth’s surface and solidifies at a mid-ocean ridge.

a)

Continental drift

b)

Sea-floor spreading

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

Mid-ocean range

117.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth's plates is caused by __________________.

a)

conduction

b)

earthquakes

c)

convection currents in the mantle

d)

Earth's magnetic field

118.
What happens when Subduction occurs?
a)
Parts of the crust fall into the mantle
b)
Parts of the crust fall into the core
c)
Parts of the crust fall into space
d)
None of these
119.
True or False : Sea-floor Spreading adds new material to the ocean floor?
a)
True
b)
False
120.
The OLDEST seafloor is located? 
a)
Closest to the mid-ocean ridge
b)
Farthest from the mid-ocean ridge
121.

Which property is least reliable when identifying a mineral?

a)

Color

b)

Luster

c)

Streak

d)

Hardness

122.

What Are The Three Main Types Of Rocks?

a)

Igneous, Depository, Metamorphic

b)

Depository, Igneous, Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic, Igneous, Depository

d)

Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary

123.

How are metamorphic rocks formed?

a)

Heating and cooling

b)

Deposition

c)

Heating and pressure

d)

Materials gathering and pressing together

124.

How are igneous rocks formed?

a)

Sediment forming together

b)

Heating and pressure

c)

Cooling

d)

Deposition

125.

How are sedimentary rocks formed?

a)

Heating and pressure

b)

Sediment forming together

c)

Weathering

d)

Cooling

126.

Rocks can turn into any other rocks?

a)

True

b)

False

127.

What are rocks made of?

a)

Salt

b)

Minerals

c)

Other rocks

d)

Sand

128.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
129.

The process by which sediments move from one place to another from wind or rain is called...

a)

Deposition

b)

Erosion

c)

Weathering

130.

The measure of how easily a mineral can be scratched.

a)

streak

b)

color

c)

luster

d)

hardness

131.

The way that a mineral reflects light. It can be metallic or non-metallic.

a)

streak

b)

hardness

c)

fracture

d)

luster

132.

The color left by a mineral in its powdered form.

a)

streak

b)

density

c)

hardness

d)

smudge

133.
Which of these minerals is softer than glass?
a)
Topaz 
b)
Corundum 
c)
Calcite 
d)
Orthoclase 
134.
Which mineral property is being shown here?
a)
luster
b)
hardness
c)
cleavage
d)
streak
135.

A mineral's resistance to being scratched is called

a)

cleavage

b)

fracture

c)

streak

d)

hardness

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