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SS Earth Science CAP Review

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The hypothesis that a single large landmass broke up into smaller land masses to form the continents

a)

Geological Time

b)

Erosion

c)

Subduction

d)

Continental Drift

e)

Plate Boundary

2.

On a seismograph reading, which is the first wave to arrive at the station?

a)

Primary Waves

b)

Surface Waves

c)

Seconday Waves

3.

A plate moving along a fault often causes...

a)

an earthquake

b)

a hurricane

c)

a tornado

4.

Which layer of the earth is the thinnest?

a)

Mantle

b)

Outer Core

c)

Inner Core

d)

Crust

5.

What is a long-term weather pattern, including temperature, precipitation and wind?

a)

Prescription

b)

Forecast

c)

Weather

d)

Climate

6.

How is a cloud formed?

a)

Angels

b)

Warm air rising from bodies of water which then condenses and forms around tiny bits of dust.

c)

Yeah, no idea...

7.

Air consists of what balance of gases?

a)

Oxygen (72%), Carbon Dioxide (12%), Nitrogen (6%), and others

b)

Oxygen (49%), Nitrogen (30%), Carbon Dioxide (10%), Sulfur (8%), and others

c)

Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), and others.

8.

What is the amount of water vapor in the air called?

a)

Moisture

b)

Humidity

c)

Temperature

d)

Precipitation

9.

List the layers of the atmosphere in order... from the ground up...

a)

Thermosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere

b)

Mesophere, Troposphere, Stratosphere

c)

Troposphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere

d)

Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere

10.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains ozone?

a)

Stratosphere

b)

Thermosphere

c)

Troposphere

d)

Mesosphere

11.

What is caused by air moving from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure?

a)

clouds

b)

hurricanes

c)

wind

d)

anemometrics

12.

What is a boundary that separates warm, moist air masses from colder, drier air masses?

a)

air line

b)

front

c)

breeze boundary

d)

friction

13.

What type of cloud has a feathery, wispy appearance and are highest in the sky?

a)

Cirrus

b)

Cumulus

c)

Stratus

14.

What are clouds that form in a layer or sheet which can be low and cover the entire sky?

a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulus

c)

Cirrus

15.

What is a period of below average rainfall?

a)

Dry out

b)

Aarid time

c)

Drought

16.

What is a hurricane?

a)

Forms over warm ocean water and weakens over land eventually.

b)

Large, severe, tropical storm lasting over a week with incredibly high winds.

c)

Spins counter-clockwise around an eye.

d)

All of these.

17.

In which layer of the atmosphere do organisms live?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Thermosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Stratosphere

18.

Where is heat and pressure the greatest in the Earth?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

19.
The diagrams  shows a natural process that weathers rock.
 Which statement best explains why this process results in weathering?
a)
frozen water acts as a solute
b)
water expands when it freezes
c)
the mass of water increases when it freezes
d)
frozen water dissolves most types of rock
20.
What is weathering?
a)
The process by which
water, ice, wind or gravity
moves fragments of rock
and soil.
b)
The process by which
water, ice, wind or gravity
deposit rock sediments
and soil in a new place.
c)
The breaking down of
Earth’s crust into smaller
and smaller pieces.
21.
The theory that says Earth's continents once made up an ancient supercontinent, and have been drifting apart ever since, is called the theory of...
a)
Pangea
b)
Plate Tectonics
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Gravity
22.
What type of event will occur at this boundary?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Volcano Eruption
c)
Tornado
d)
Mountain Building
23.
The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....
a)
Convergent Boundary
b)
Divergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Plate Boundary
24.

Which layer of the earth flows with convection currents allowing the plates on top of it to move?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

lithosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

hemisphere

25.

Volcanic activity is most likely to be found at which type of plate boundary?

a)

transform

b)

convergent

c)

divergent

d)

transvergent

26.

What is the youngest item in the image?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

27.

Which point on the map has the highest elevation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

H

d)

E

28.
Continental drift is the idea that _________
a)
the continents are only solid surface on the earth
b)
the continents were once joined to form a large land mass
c)
objects that fall into the ocean drift between continents 
29.
Plate tectonics refers to the theory that __________
a)
the continents float on the oceans like plates
b)
each of the continents on the earth is also called a plate
c)
the surface of the earth is made up of large plates that have moved over time
d)
the surface of the earth is made up of large plates that cannot move
30.
Which of the following is most likely to occur at a transform boundary?
a)
earthquakes
b)
volcanoes
c)
mountain formations
d)
all of the above
31.
Which of the following best describes the difference between weather and climate
a)
weather happens in your state and climate happens in your country
b)
weather describes features such as wind and rain at a particular time, while climate describes these features on average.
c)
weather includes the wind and rainfall, while climate only describes the temperature
d)
weather can be predicted but climate cannot
32.
Which of the following powers the earth’s water cycle?
a)
energy from the sun
b)
clouds colliding together
c)
salts dissolving in seawater
d)
the freezing and melting of water
33.
About how long does one cycle of the moon's phases last?
a)
a year
b)
a month
c)
two days 
d)
a day
34.
Which of the following results from the tilt of Earth ? Earth's tilt causes_____________
a)
more daylight in the summer than winter
b)
a bulge at the equator
c)
a longer year every fourth year
d)
the phases of the moon
35.
Which of the following results from the tilt of Earth ? Earth's tilt causes_____________
a)
more daylight in the summer than winter
b)
a bulge at the equator
c)
a longer year every fourth year
d)
the phases of the moon
36.
The strength of an earthquake is measured using which kind of scale?
a)
Richter
b)
Composite
c)
Interval
d)
Mercalli
37.
Where do most earthquakes and volcanoes occur?
a)
in the ocean
b)
along the coast
c)
along tectonic plates
d)
in the Arctic
38.
Name the outermost layer of the Earth.
a)
mesosphere
b)
asthenosphere
c)
iron
d)
lithosphere
39.
When looking at a single seismograph following an earthquake, the time difference for the arrival of P waves and S waves shows what?
a)
The distance to the epicenter
b)
The magnitude of the earthquake
c)
The location of the epicenter
d)
The size of the tsunami
40.

Plates slide past one another at _____.

a)

Subduction zone

b)

Transform boundaries

c)

Convection currents

d)

Divergent boundaries

41.

______ are formed when two continental plates collide.

a)

Mountain ranges

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Strike slip faults

d)

Rift valleys

42.

A _______ forms where two oceanic plates collide.

a)

Transform boundary

b)

Hot spot

c)

Subduction zone

d)

Rift valley

43.

Scientists speculate that all the continents were once joined as one supercontinent called _______________.

a)

Laurasia

b)

Pangea

c)

Panthalassa

d)

Europa

44.

Huge masses of rapidly moving air found high above the Earth’s surface is called:

a)

gyres

b)

currents

c)

jet streams

d)

upwellings

45.

The second broadest category of geologic time is______________?. The Cenozoic is one of them.

a)

era

b)

eon

c)

epoch

d)

period

46.

What are the names of ALL parts of the geologic time scale in correct order from broadest to narrowest?

a)

era, period, eon

b)

eon, era, period, epoch

c)

era, eon, epoch, period

d)

eon, era, epoch, period

47.
What type of fossil fills a mold, and is a model of the actual organism?
a)
cast
b)
trace
c)
carbon imprint
48.
What type of fossil is this?
a)
preservation of actual remains
b)
replacement of mineral matter
c)
molds,casts,imprints 
49.
What type of fossil is this?
a)
Mold
b)
Carbon flim
c)
Cast
d)
Original Remains
50.
Which fossil is an impression left by the original organism?
a)
cast
b)
mold
c)
trace
d)
preserved remains
51.
Preserved footprints, or fossilized scat are examples of _________
a)
trace fossils
b)
carbonized fossils
c)
cast fossils
d)
mold fossils
52.

What are the three eras of the Phanerozoic?

a)

Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic

b)

Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic

c)

Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous

d)

Cambrian, Triassic, Paleogene

53.

The longest time unit in the geological time scale is the ________

a)

era

b)

eon

c)

period

d)

epoch

54.

Which of the following was marked by the appearance of hard parts?

a)

beginning of the Cenozoic

b)

end of the Mesozoic

c)

end of the Precambrian

d)

beginning of the Cretaceous

55.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
56.
Why is the fossil record incomplete?
a)
fossils get eroded away over time
b)
most organisms never became fossils
c)
scavengers and decomposers eat them too quickly
d)
all of the above
57.

What is true about eras?

a)

They are measured in billions of years

b)

Examples are Paleocene and Oligocene

c)

The are measured in ten to hundreds of million years

d)

Their names are based on life-forms

58.

According to scientists, the Earth is approximately this many years old.

a)

4.6 billion

b)

13.7 billion

c)

7.0 billion

d)

5.0 billion

e)

3.4 million

59.

According to this Principle, geologic processes that occur today are similar to those that have occurred in the past.

a)

Uniformitarianism

b)

Superposition

c)

Original Horizontality

d)

Lateral Continuity

e)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

60.

According to this Principle, in undisturbed rock layers, the oldest rocks are on the bottom.

a)

Superposition

b)

Original Horizontality

c)

Lateral Continuity

d)

Cross-cutting Relationships

e)

Uniformitarianism

61.

According to this Principle, sediments are deposited in large, flat sheets.

a)

Original Horizontality

b)

Superposition

c)

Lateral Continuity

d)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

e)

Inclusion

62.

According to this Principle, if one geologic feature cuts across another feature, the feature that it cuts across is older.

a)

Cross-Cutting Relationships

b)

Superposition

c)

Original Horizontality

d)

Lateral Continuity

e)

Inclusion

63.

rock layers beneath an eroded surface are at an angle to that surface

a)
unconformity
b)
nonconformity
c)
angular unconformity
d)
disconformity
64.

The Phanerozoic EON included the Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic ERAS. Phanerozoic means:

a)

"middle life".

b)

"no life".

c)

"visible life".

d)

"after life".

65.

The Phanerozoic EON included the Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic ERAS. Mesozoic means:

a)

"middle life".

b)

"no life".

c)

"visible life".

d)

"after life".

66.

The unit of time named for a geographic are or characteristic fossil is the

a)

Era

b)

Period

c)

Eon

d)

Epoch

67.

These are the second longest units of geologic time. Eons are divided up into these.

a)

eras

b)

periods

c)

epochs

d)

unconformities

68.

These are the smallest main unit of geologic time. Periods are broken up into these.

a)

epochs

b)

eons

c)

eras

d)

unconformities

69.

What is the dewpoint when the dry bulb temperature is 20°C and the relative humidity is 17%?

a)

– 5°C

b)

– 2°C

c)

11°C

d)

15°C

70.

Which weather station model indicates the greatest probability of precipitation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

Liquid water sometimes turns into ice when it comes in contact with Earth's surface. Which present weather symbol on a station model represents this type of precipitation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

What is the relative humidity if the dry-bulb temperature is 16°C and the wet-bulb temperature is 10°C?

a)

45%

b)

33%

c)

14%

d)

4%

73.

Which station model shows an air temperature of 75°F and a barometric pressure of 996.3 mb?

a)
b)
c)
d)
74.

The weather station model shown to the left indicated that winds are coming from the...

a)

southeast at 10 knots

b)

northwest at 10 knots

c)

southeast at 20 knots

d)

northwest at 20 knots

75.

The weather map to the left shows a portion of an air-pressure field at Earth's surface. Isobars show air pressure in millibars.

At which location is windspeed greatest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.
Which condition usually means cloudy, stormy weather?
a)
high pressure
b)
low pressure
77.
Air travels
a)
from high pressure to low pressure
b)
from low pressure to high pressue
78.

Which graph best shows the general relationship between air pressure and altitude?

a)
b)
c)
d)
79.

Sea breezes take place during the ________ because the warmer land temperature results in a warmer air mass above the land compared to the cooler air mass over the surface of water.

a)

day

b)

night

80.

What is the main cause of winds?

a)

amount of trees

b)

the moon's gravity

c)

amount of animals

d)

uneven heating of Earth's surface

81.

A cool breeze is blowing from the ocean towards the land during the day. This is called a

a)

land breeze

b)

trade wind

c)

sea breeze

d)

easterly

82.

The Coriolis Effect influences wind direction around the world due to the ______ of Earth cause the winds to curve.

a)

tilt

b)

shift

c)

height

d)

rotation

83.

The jet stream ___________ (select all that apply)

a)

flows from west to east

b)

a high speed air current current

c)

helps form weather fronts

84.

Burning fossil fuels and deforestation both contribute to an increase in greenhouse gases.

a)

true

b)

false

85.
Is this a land or a sea breeze?
a)
land breeze
b)
sea breeze
86.
In a sea breeze, the air is warmer above the _____.
a)
land
b)
ocean
c)
sky
d)
beach
87.
Why do land breezes occur at night?
a)
Land cools off slower than water, so the air above water is cooler.
b)
Water cools off faster than land, so the air above land is warmer.
c)
Land heats up slower than water, so the air stays cooler during the day.
d)
Water cools off slower than land, so the air above water is warmer.
88.
In which direction do prevailing westerlies flow?
a)
from east to west
b)
from west to east
c)
from north to south
d)
from south to north
89.
Which types of winds cause weather in North Carolina?
a)
polar easterlies
b)
prevailing westerlies
c)
polar westerlies
d)
prevailing easterlies
90.
Global winds over the United States blow in which direction?
a)
east to west
b)
north to south
c)
south to west
d)
west to east
91.
This type of wind helped blow trader's ships from Europe to the Americas. It blows winds from EAST to WEST. 
a)
Polar Easterlies
b)
Trade Winds
c)
Prevailing Westerlies
d)
Horse Latitudes
92.
This type of wind comes from the POLES. It blows from east to west and brings freezing weather. 
a)
Prevailing Westerlies
b)
Polar Easterlies
c)
Polar Westerlies
d)
Horse Latitudes
93.
The factor that has the greatest effect on wind speed is...
a)
Air pressure
b)
Rainfall
c)
Air temperature
d)
Hurricane
94.

At the equator and at 600 latitude, warm air rises creating a windless area known as the...

a)

doldrums

b)

horse latitudes

c)

westerlies

d)

polar easterlies

95.

Winds that blow from 300 latitude to the equator are called...

a)

westerlies

b)

polar easterlies

c)

trade winds

d)

horse latitudes

96.

Cooler air sinks at 300 latitude causing a windless area known as...

a)

doldrums

b)

horse latitudes

c)

polar easterlies

d)

westerlies

97.

Earth's rain-forests are located along these areas of low pressure at the equator and 600

a)

Horse Latitudes

b)

Doldrums

c)

Westerlies

d)

Easterlies

98.

Warm rising air causes___________ pressure, resulting in ___________.

a)

high, rain

b)

low, rain

c)

high, clear skies

d)

low, clear skies

99.

Cool sinking air causes___________ pressure, resulting in ___________.

a)

high, rain

b)

low, rain

c)

high, clear skies

d)

low, clear skies

100.

The North and South poles are considered...

a)

Rainforests

b)

Deserts

c)

Doldrums

d)

Westerlies

101.

Winds always blow from areas of _________ pressure to areas of _________ pressure.

a)

high, high

b)

low, low

c)

low, high

d)

high, low

102.
These clouds are puffy and white and sometimes appear to have a flat bottom.
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
103.
These clouds appear in blanket-like layers.
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
104.
Fog is this type of cloud when it is close to the ground
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
105.
These clouds are large, dark, billowing clouds with an anvil shaped top.
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
106.
These clouds can bring thunderstorms, heavy rain, lightening, and sometimes hail.
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
107.
Which cloud is this?
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
108.
Which cloud is this?
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
109.
Which cloud is this?
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
110.
Which cloud is this?
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
111.
Which cloud is this?
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
112.
what type of cloud is shown?
a)
cumulus
b)
cirrus
c)
stratus
113.
Clouds form when...
a)
liquid water is heated and evaporates to become water vapor in the atmosphere.
b)
water vapor in the atmosphere cools and condenses becoming water droplets in the atmosphere
c)
water droplets float upwards and gather together in the atmosphere to form a cloud.
114.
Clouds are classified by their
a)
color and size
b)
color and shape
c)
height and size
d)
height and shape
115.

What are the characteristics of a alto-cumulus cloud?

a)

small, white and puffy, middle level cloud

b)

low, puffy, produce rain

c)

high, looks like cotton balls bunched together

d)

fluffy clouds, flat on the bottom

116.
What does nimbus mean?
a)
storm
b)
nimble
c)
rain
d)
rainbow
117.
This type of cloud is thin and flat, and the edges are not clearly defined
a)
cirrus cloud
b)
cumulus cloud
c)
stratus cloud
d)
cumulonimbus cloud
118.

Energy that travels at incredible speed through the universe:

a)

Sound Energy

b)

Light Energy

c)

Electrical Energy

d)

Mechanical Energy

119.

Light energy that bounces off objects:

a)

Refraction

b)

Repetition

c)

Reflection

d)

Lens

120.

The bending of light rays when they pass through a substance:

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Image

d)

Mirror

121.

Which bands of electromagnetic radiation are blocked from reaching Earth's surface by our atmosphere?

a)

visible light

b)

radio waves

c)

x-ray

d)

gamma rays

122.

Which word best describes how light reacts when passing from air through water?

a)

refraction

b)

reflection

c)

reconstroction

d)

retraction

123.
What best describes the doppler effect?
a)
An apparent change in frequency of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer
b)
When sound changes pitch
c)
When light changes color
d)
An apparent change in the amplitude of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer.
124.
If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the blue side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...
a)
Moving towards the Earth
b)
Moving away from the Earth
c)
This is a trick question that cannot be answered
d)
It isn't a star, it is a very large blueberry.
125.
If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the red side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...
a)
Moving towards the Earth
b)
Moving away from the Earth
c)
This is a trick question that cannot be answered
d)
It isn't a star, it is a very large blueberry.
126.
The vast majority of galaxies in our universe are moving away from us.  We know this because we observe __________ in the galaxies absorption spectra.
a)
Redshift
b)
Blueshift
c)
Turbulance
d)
Superposition
127.
An object that is moving VERY fast towards the Earth would have ________ than an object that is moving very slow towards the Earth.
a)
More Redshift
b)
More Blueshift
c)
Less Redshift
d)
Less Blueshift
128.
Which discovery(ies) came from our understanding redshift/ blueshift?
a)
The universe is expanding
b)
Most galaxies are moving away from us
c)
Andromeda galaxy will collide with the Milky way in 3.75 billion years
d)
All of the above (and many more)
129.
When blueshift occurs, the perceived frequency of the wave would...
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stay the same
d)
Make duck sounds
130.

What is the biggest difference between the Geocentric Model and the Heliocentric Model?

a)

the shape of the planets' orbits

b)

the movement of the moon

c)

the center of the solar system

131.
This image shows the:
a)
Geocentric Solar System
b)
Heliocentric Solar System
132.

What did Newton believe to be true about motion?

a)

There are many different types of motion

b)

All motion is the same

c)

Motion is not proportional to forces enacted on an object

d)

Everything is in constant motion until a force stops it

133.

What does the Big Bang Theory tell us

a)

About the popular television show.

b)

the entire universe was once condensed in the form of primeval atom, or a dense mass.

c)

how the universe began.

134.

Most scientists believe the Big Bang Theory explains which of the following questions?

a)

How our planets and moons formed

b)

How our universe began

c)

How the sun turns hydrogen into helium

d)

How fast light travels through space

135.

Light emitted from a star or galaxy can be separated into a band of colors, called a ________.

a)

Red Shift

b)

Wave Length

c)

Spectrum

d)

Microwave

136.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum

(EMS) is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

c)

unshift

d)

blackshift

137.
How long does it take light from our Sun to reach Earth?
a)
3 seconds
b)
8 minutes
c)
57 hours
d)
1 year
138.
Spectroscopes can tell us all of these about except...
a)
Temperature of a star
b)
Elements that make up a star
c)
Age of a star
d)
Size of a star
139.

About how long ago did our solar system start to form?

a)

About 5 million years ago

b)

About 14 million years ago

c)

About 5 billion years ago

d)

About 14 billion years ago

140.
How do scientists determine where an earthquake starts?
a)
by studying a seismogram
b)
by studying seismographs take from 3 different locations
c)
by studying S and P waves on a seismogram
d)
by studying S and P waves on a seismograph
141.
What are seismic waves?
a)
Energy released by an earthquake in waves or vibrations
b)
The point beneath Earth’s surface at which rock under stress breaks and triggers an earthquake
c)
The point on the surface directly above the point at which an earthquake occurs
d)
The strength of an earthquake
142.

What is known as the age of a rock or fossil described in comparison to that of another rock or fossil.

a)

Relative Age

b)

Absolute Age

c)

Parent Isotope

d)

Half-LIfe

143.

Which term is defined as the process of determining the age of an object using the half-life of one or more radioactive isotopes?

a)

Radioactive Decay

b)

Carbon-14

c)

Absolute Dating

d)

Radiometric Dating

144.

Which of the following terms is defined as the length of time needed for half of the atoms of a sample of radioactive isotope to decay?

a)

Absolute Age

b)

Half-life

c)

Parent Isotope

d)

Relative Age

145.

Which of the following terms BEST matches the definition: the geologic principle that states that in horizontal layers of of sedimentary rock, each layer is older than the layer above it and younger than the layer below it.

a)

Radioactive Dating

b)

Law of Superposition

c)

Half Life

d)

Law of Uniformitarianism

146.

Which is defined as the geologic principle that states the same geologic processes that operate today operated in the past to

a)

Law of Superpostion

b)

Relative Dating

c)

Geology

d)

Law of Uniformitarianism

147.

What is the second step to assign relative age of rocks at different locations?

a)

Choose index fossils

b)

Compare locations

c)

Determine relative age

148.

What is the first step for fossils to form?

a)

Sediment hardens into rock formins

b)

Remains become buried in sediment

c)

Organism dies and leaves remains

149.

What is the second step for fossils to form?

a)

Sediment hardens into rock formins

b)

Remains become buried in sediment

c)

Organism dies and leaves remains

150.

What is the process of determining relative age?

a)

Carbon Copying

b)

Relative Dating

c)

Cloning

d)

Creating new layers of rock

151.

What causes a gap in the geological record?

a)

Bad Weather

b)

Unconformity

c)

New layers of rock

d)

Relative dating

152.

What is a principle that something has to be in existence before something can happen to it

a)

Cross Cutting Relationship

b)

Law of Superposition

c)

Principle of Original Horizontality

d)

Intrusion

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