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Biology Summer School Final Exam

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 3hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

B4B The diagram illustrates the activity of vesicles during a cellular process .

Which statement best explains the function of the vesicles?

a)

Delivering packaged materials to the Golgi apparatus for protein synthesis

b)

Exchanging genetic information between the Golgi apparatuses of separate cells

c)

Extracting portions of the Golgi apparatus to be regenerated for growth within the cell

d)

Transporting packaged molecules from the Golgi apparatus to be re leased out of the cell

2.

B4B When mammals get an infection, their internal body temperature often rises 2 to 3 degrees Celsius. The body gets the energy it needs to react to an infection by -

a)

increasing the rate of cellular division

b)

decreasing the rate of glucose movement into the cell

c)

increasing the rate of cellular respiration in mitochondria

d)

decreasing the rate at which carbon dioxide is removed from the cell

3.

B4B Which molecule synthesized by plants is a major source of energy for cellular processes in both plants and animals?

a)

Wax

b)

Nucleic acid

c)

Glucose

d)

Chlorophyll

4.

Which cellular process takes place in the ribosomes that are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

The breakdown of waste material

b)

The conversion of radiant energy to glucose

c)

The synthesis of new proteins

d)

The replication of nucleic acids

5.

B4B The picture shows a contractile vacuole of a unicellular freshwater organism. The contractile vacuole regulates the flow of water into and out of the cell in an aquatic environment.

What conditions cause the contractile vacuole to fill with water?

a)

The concentration of water is greater outside the cell than inside the cell.

b)

The temperature of water in the vacuole is higher than the temperature of its environment .

c)

The concentration of water inside the cell is the same as the concentration outside the cell.

d)

The temperature of water in the vacuole is lower than the temperature of its environment

6.

B4B In the early 1900s a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of proteins in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940s scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting

information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was this newly identified molecule?

a)

A gene

b)

mRNA

c)

ATP

d)

Thymine

7.

B4B Cells can generate as many as 36 to 38 molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Which cellular process results in this amount of ATP production?

a)

Anaerobic cellular respiration

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Aerobic cellular respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

8.

B4B Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions.

Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment

9.

B4B Which group of organelles is directly responsible for the production of new molecules with in a cell?

a)

Ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatuses

b)

Golgi apparatuses, lysosomes, and the plasma membrane

c)

The endoplasmic reticulum, plastids, and vacuoles

d)

The nucleolus, vacuoles, and ribosomes

10.

B4B The cellular process known as the sodium-potassium pump was discovered in the 1950s by Jens Christian Skou, a Danish scientist. This process is a form of active transport that moves three sodium ions to the outside of a cell for every two potassium ions that it moves into the cell. Which of these best explains why energy is needed for active transport?

a)

Ions are negatively charged.

b)

Ions are attached to large proteins.

c)

Ions are trapped inside the plasma membrane.

d)

Ions are moved against the concentration gradient.

11.

B4B Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place in the mitochondria?

a)

Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules.

b)

Water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place.

c)

Oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions.

d)

The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP.

12.

Which means of particle transport is shown in the image below?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

13.

The removal of mitochondria from a typical animal cell would have an immediate effect on the cell’s production of

a)

DNA

b)

oxygen

c)

ATP

d)

glucose

14.

Within a specific kind of tissue, there are different types of cells. In bone tissue, there are four different cell types, as shown in the picture. Since the four types of cells contain the same genetic instructions, how is it possible for them to have different shapes and carry out different functions?

a)

Each cell type has the ability to remove unnecessary DNA sequences.

b)

Different parts of the genetic code may be used in each of the cell types.

c)

Different gene mutations take place within each cell type.

d)

Each cell type is the result of different methods of cell division.

15.

The diagram illustrates the movement of molecules across an artifi cial membrane in a U-shaped glass tube. A 1% starch solution was poured into the left side of the tube, and distilled water was placed in the right side of the tube.

Explain why the liquid level on the left side changed over the 20-minute period

4 lines
16.

What is the most likely reason for the variation in the dissolved oxygen levels in the pond over the 24-hour period?

a)

The increased light during the day decreases the oxygen produced by photosynthesis.

b)

Photosynthesis produces more oxygen during the day than is used by respiration.

c)

Respiration is reduced at night, so the oxygen produced by photosynthesis increases.

d)

More producers are active at night, so the dissolved oxygen increases.

17.

Match the following

a)

cytoskeleton

1.

provides support and structure for the cell

b)

nucleus

2.

stores DNA (genetic information)

c)

ribosome

3.

produces proteins

d)

cell membrane

4.

allows the movement of materials in and out of the cell

e)

E.R.

5.

moves materials within the cell

18.

Endosymbiotic Theory is the idea that ______ cells could have evolved from_____cells

a)

prokaryotic, eukaryotic

b)

eukaryotic, animal

c)

prokaryotic, plant

d)

eukaryotic, prokaryotic

19.

What are the cell structures that all cell types have in common?

4 lines
20.
Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms. The cell walls of these microorganisms serve as barriers to chemicals that might affect the processes that occur within a bacterial cell. Antibiotics are a type of substance used to stop bacterial growth. Some antibiotics cause the bacterial cell wall to rupture. The function of which human organ is most like the cell walls of bacteria? 
a)
heart
b)
liver
c)
pancreas
d)
skin
21.
All living organisms must maintain homeostasis in order to survive. Which statement best describes one way humans maintain homeostasis? 
a)
Temperature is regulated by giving off carbon dioxide. 
b)
Water content is regulated by giving off carbon dioxide. 
c)
Temperature is regulated by sweating. 
d)
Water content is regulated by sweating. 
22.
Which statement best describes how active transport differs from passive transport? 
a)
Only active transport requires ATP. 
b)
Only active transport moves small particles. 
c)
Only active transport relies on a plasma membrane. 
d)
Only active transport allows substances to leave a cell. 
23.
The indicated protein is part of a cell membrane. What is the most likely purpose of this protein? 
a)
It allows passage of particles into and out of the cell. 
b)
It manufactures phospholipids to repair membrane damage. 
c)
It releases stored chemical energy in membrane carbohydrates. 
d)
It attracts unbalanced electrical charges in the cell’s environment. 
24.
Which type of cell has no nucleus?
a)
Eukaryote
b)
Prokaryote
c)
Animal
d)
Plant
25.
Prokaryotes have contains membrane-bound organelles. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
26.
Are prokaryotes multicellular or unicellular? 
a)
Multicellular
b)
Unicellular
27.
Eukaryotes have true nucleus? True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
28.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
Mixed
29.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
30.
Has cytoplasm
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
d)
yes
31.
Has ribosomes
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
d)
nihn
32.
Plants and animal cells are examples of ___ cells 
a)
prokaryotic cells 
b)
eukaryotic cells 
33.
Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
baceteria
34.
Eukarytoes have Many membrane-bound organelles? True or False
a)
True 
b)
False
35.
Which type of cell is bigger?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic 
36.
How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes similar?
a)
They both contain membrane-bound organelles.
b)
They both have cell membranes.
c)
The both have nuclei.
d)
They both have chloroplasts.
37.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have many differences, but they also share some common features.  Which of the following may be found in either type of cell?
a)
Golgi bodies
b)
ribosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
nucleus
38.

What is F?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

mitochondria

c)

vacuole

d)

flagella

39.

What is K?

a)

protist

b)

cell wall

c)

cilia

d)

mitochondria

40.

What is L?

a)

chloroplast

b)

Golgi complex

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

41.

What is E?

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

cilia

d)

flagella

42.
All living things are made from cells.  
a)
True
b)
False
43.

This cell type has DNA that is circular and floats freely within the cytoplasm.

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

44.

Which has the following steps in order for the LYTIC Cycle

A- Assembly

B- Attachment

C- Reproduction

D- Release

E- Entry

a)

A B C D E

b)

B E A C D

c)

A B C E D

d)

B A E C D

45.

In which cycle does the cell replicate the viral DNA each time it divides?

a)

Lysogenic

b)

Lytic

46.

What type of cell does HIV infect?

a)

all cells

b)

bone marrow cell

c)

immune cell (T cell)

d)

brain cell (nerve)

47.

The projections on the outside of a cell are used for

a)

genetic material

b)

attachment

c)

alignment

d)

reproduction

48.

Viruses are abiotic because

a)

they don't make glucose

b)

they need a host to replicate

c)

they can survive without oxygen

d)

they are biotic

49.

Pathogens are

a)

viruses (only)

b)

disease causing

c)

cured by antibiotics

d)

helped by cells

50.

Vaccines help your body fight

a)

fungal infections

b)

bacterial infections

c)

virial infections

d)

all of the above

51.

True or False: Viruses contain cytoplasm

a)

True

b)

False

52.

The two components of a virus are nucleic acid and __________.

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

glucose

53.
Which statement regarding viruses is true?
a)
a virus can only reproduce inside of a living cell
b)
viruses do not contain DNA
c)
viruses are unicellular
d)
viruses are generally larger than cells
54.
What feature do viruses have in common with animal cells?
a)

ability to form proteins at the ribosomes

b)

existence of lipids in cell membranes

c)

presence of genetic code in nucleic acid

d)

production of energy by a mitochondrion

55.
Which best describes the basic structure of a virus?
a)

nucleic acid strand surrounded by a protein coat

b)

a tail surrounded by a protein coat

c)

a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate coat

d)

nucleic acid strand surrounded by a carbohydrate coat

56.

the process of diffusion with the help of a protein channel

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

osmosis

d)

facilitated diffusion

57.

no energy required to move substances

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

osmosis

58.

the process of diffusion through water

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

osmosis

d)

photosynthesis

59.

The cell membrane is make out of a ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
phospholipid bilayer
phospholipid trilayer
cell wall
cytoplasm
60.

A type of solution where the exposed cell has the normal concentration of water molecules

a)

Hypotonic solution

b)

Hypertonic solution

c)

Isotonic solution

61.

A type of solution where the exposed cell is swollen with water molecules

a)

Hypotonic solution

b)

Hypertonic solution

c)

Isotonic solution

62.

A type of solution where the exposed cell is shriveled with a low amount of water molecules

a)

Hypotonic solution

b)

Hypertonic solution

c)

Isotonic solution

63.

Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant (hides) while the host cell reproduces?

a)

lytic

b)

mitosis

c)

lysogenic

d)

meiosis

64.

What do viruses need to reproduce?

a)

they need genetic material

b)

They need a host cell

c)

They need bacteria

65.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
66.
What provides direct energy for the virus?
a)
food
b)
its host
c)
the sun
d)
a parasite
67.

Autotroph

a)

An organism that makes its own food.

b)

An organism that consumes food.

c)

An organism that consumes decaying matter.

d)

An organism that has no natural predator.

68.

Virus

a)

A non living pathogen that causes illness.

b)

Asexual reproduction

c)

Sexual reproduction

69.
What is the purpose of mitosis?
a)
To increase the surface area of a cell
b)
To allow cells to divide for growth, repair, and renewal
c)
For increasing genetic variation within a species
d)
To allow for DNA replication and protein synthesis
70.
Mitosis results in the formation of...
a)
Two identical cells with all of the original chromosomes
b)
Two different cells with half of the original chromosomes
c)
Four identical cells with all of the original chromosomes
d)
Four different cells with half of the original chromosomes
71.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
72.

During the "s" phase of the cell cycle, DNA is duplicated. Why is this important?

a)

Allows for each daughter cell to be genetically DIFFERENT.

b)

Allows for each daughter cell to be genetically IDENTICAL

c)

Allows for each daughter cell to have 2X the amount of DNA as the parent cell.

d)

Allows for each daughter cell to have half the amount of DNA as the parent cell

73.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
74.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
75.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
76.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
77.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
78.
the division of the cytoplasm is called
a)
mitosis
b)
interphase
c)
cytokinesis
Cytokinesis
d)
somatic
somatic
79.

The structure labeled A is a(n)_________ used to hold sister chromatids together.

a)

chromatid

b)

centriole

c)

centromere

d)

chromophere

80.

During anaphase

a)

DNA lines up in the middle of the cell and DNA attaches to spindle fibers

b)

centrioles and spindle fibers appear

c)

Each DNA gets pull to the opposite sides of the cell

d)

DNA gets copied

81.

What happens in prophase of mitosis?

a)

The chromosomes become visible; nucleus disappear; spindles form

b)

The chromosomes align in the middle of the cell

c)

The sister chromatids separate

d)

The chromosomes uncoil into chromatin; nucleus reappears; spindles disappear

82.

What are the yellow curved lines in the image used to separate sister chromatids?

a)

chromosomes

b)

chromatids

c)

spindle fibers

d)

centrioles

83.

The structures labeled B are_________, held together by a centromere.

a)

sister chromatid

b)

centriole

c)

centromere

d)

chromophere

84.

Arrange the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order:​ ​ (a)   ​​ ​ (b)   ​ ​ (c)   (d)   ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
G1
S
G2
mitosis
cytokinesis
85.

In S phase, during ​ (a)   the amount of​ (b)   is duplicated to be later divided ​​ (c)   into two daughter cells.​

Choose from the below words
DNA replication
genetic material
equally
unequally
mitosis
cytoplasm
86.

Arrange the following events of mitosis and cytokinesis in the correct order

a)

The chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelop dissolves

b)

Duplicated chromosomes line up at the cell equator. Spindle fibers attach to each chromatid.

c)

Chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell by spindle fibers

d)

Daughter chromosomes are separated and the nuclear envelope forms

e)

The cytoplasm divides the two daughter cells are separate

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
87.

The life of a cell is called the cell cycle. Which period of the cell cycle is where cells grow and perform their normal functions?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Cell Division

88.

During interphase, what happens during the S phase?

a)

The cell grows

b)

The cell splits in two

c)

DNA replicates (makes a copy)

89.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
90.

Cells that cant enter G0 phase..

a)

mutate

b)

repeat the cell cycle continuously

c)

die in the G1 phase

d)

Fail to process identification

91.

If the parent somatic cell has 20 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have?

a)

20

b)

10

c)

40

d)

60

92.

Scientists claim that DNA is a universal genetic code that is common to all organisms. Which of the following statements supports this claim?

a)

DNA is made of proteins that can be transferred from prokaryotes to eukaryotes.

b)

All living things pass down their genetic code to their offspring.

c)

All living things use the same 4 nitrogen bases to code for traits.

d)

DNA is helical in structure and can be found in the nucleus.

93.

Matching - Draw a Line from each TERM to the matching definition.

94.
Disruptions in the cell cycle do not cause any problems for the organism. 1. True or False 2. Why do you think so?
4 lines
95.

What is a STEM CELL?

a)

Cells found in the stems of plants.

b)

Cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.

c)

Cells that control your genes to be expressed.

d)

Cells that provide nutrients to your blood.

96.

What is the function of red blood cells?

a)

Help to digest your food.

b)

Help you breathe.

c)

Provide nutrients to your organs.

d)

Carry oxygen throughout your body.

97.

What does cell differentiation mean?

a)

Process by which a cell absorbs nutrients.

b)

Process by which a less specialized cell becomes a more specialized cell.

c)

Process by which a specialized cell becomes a less specialized cell.

d)

Process by which cells enter the cell cycle.

98.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they...

a)

contain a lipid bilayer

b)

can clump together

c)

metabolize sugars rapidly

d)

have specific genes activated

99.

Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by...

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Sugars

100.

True or False: Environmental factors, such as temperature, can affect gene expression.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

The components of the ​ (a)   for all living things are the ​ (b)   ;

they only ​ (c)   in ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
genetic code
same
differ
sequence
102.

Researchers combined sequences of fruit-fly DNA from a gene for a particular trait with frog DNA. The mixture was heated to separate the DNA strands. Cooling allowed the single strands to form pairs. The researchers observed that some of the fruit-fly DNA paired with frog DNA.

The results provide evidence that —

a)

similar nucleotides are present in both fruit-fly and frog DNA

b)

fruit flies and frogs can be made to develop some of the same physical traits

c)

heat can cause mutations in the DNA sequences of organisms

d)

the replication of genetic material can occur at any temperature

103.

Which statement BEST describes how genes are expressed in an organism?

a)

Genes are always off even when resources are available.

b)

Genes are turned on and off in response to the environment.

c)

Genes are continuously turned on and off at random intervals of time.

d)

Genes are on until all the genes have been simultaneously expressed.

104.

​ (a)   factors typically ​ (b)   genes in a cell by causing the cell to ​ (c)   specific DNA segments to ​ (d)   for ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
Environmental
activate
transcribe
mRNA
translation
105.

What happens during gene expression?

a)

Our DNA sends out instructions (mRNA) to ribosomes to make proteins.

b)

Our DNA sends out cells to create new cells

c)

Our DNA sends different sets of phenotypes so we all look different

106.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a genetic modification technique that edits parts of the genome of an organism. Using this technique scientists can add, remove, or modify sections of the DNA sequence.

How can scientists use this technique to control gene expression?

a)

By activating or deactivating specific genes

b)

By calculating the number of genes different organisms produce

c)

By identifying how closely related one individual is to another

d)

By determining the number of chromosomes in an organism

107.

What determines what type of cell a stem cell will become?

a)

when certain genes in the cell get turned on or turned off

b)

only when all the genes in the cell get turned on

c)

only when all the genes in the cell get turned off

108.

Do all cells in the human body start off as stem cells?

a)

Yes

b)

No

109.

Human bone, muscle, and nerve cells all contain the same number of chromosomes with the same complement of genes. What enables these cells to perform specialized activities?

a)

The ability of some cells to remove unnecessary DNA sequences

b)

The regulation of gene expression within each cell type

c)

The mutation of genes within each cell type

d)

The use of different methods of cell division

110.

The Himalayan rabbit’s habitat has cold, snowy winters and mild summers. The body is typically covered in white fur except for the nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are covered in black fur. A scientist shaved an area of white fur on the back of a Himalayan rabbit and placed an ice pack over the shaved area. The shaved area grew black fur.

Which of these best explains why the hair that grew back where the ice pack was placed was black and not white?

a)

The genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures.

b)

The white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit’s body temperature decreased.

c)

The coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit.

d)

White hair only grows during certain times of the year.