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IB BIOLOGY UNIT 1 REVISION

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statements make up the cell theory?

a)

All living things are made of cells.

b)

All cells are microscopic.

c)

Cells are the smallest unit of life.

d)

All cells come from pre-existing cells.

2.

Why do multicellular organisms have emergent properties?

a)

They have more genes than unicellular organisms.

b)

Properties of unicellular organisms are enhanced by having many cells.

c)

All of their genes are expressed whereas unicellular organisms express only some.

d)

They show properties that can only result from the interaction of many cells.

3.

What happens to the cell surface area to volume ratio as a cell grows?

a)

It decreases, so production of waste material is reduced.

b)

It increases, so mineral ion absorption is increased.

c)

It increases, so osmosis is reduced.

d)

It decreases, so rate of gas exchange is too low.

4.

Which feature of striated muscle cells allows them to be considered as a possible exception to the cell theory?

a)

They are found in multicellular organisms.

b)

They contain more than one nucleus.

c)

They are specialized for movement.

d)

They do not carry out mitosis.

5.

If cells of a multicellular organism have the same genes, how can there be many different cell types in a body?

a)

Some genes but not others are expressed in each cell type.

b)

Cells lose some genes as development occurs.

c)

Genes do not determine the structure of a cell.

d)

Cells must practice division of labour in order to survive.

6.

What determines the rate at which nutrients and waste are exchanged between the cell and the environment?

a)

surface area

b)

surface ratio

c)

volume ratio

d)

surface area to volume ratio

7.

A paramecium (a single- celled organism) captures and eats a bacteria cell. What life function is this an example of?

a)

excretion

b)

nutrition

c)

response

d)

homeostasis

8.
Data that is measured and expressed in NUMBERS is called
a)
quantitative data
b)
qualitative data
c)
forged data
d)
minute data
9.
Bias occurs when a scientist uses a preference or a particular point of view that is personal rather than scientific. 
a)
True
b)
False
10.
The factor being tested in an experiment, the one that *I* change, is the
a)
independent variable
b)
dependent variable
c)
control group
d)
hypothesis
11.
Data that is measured and expressed in descriptions is called
a)
quantitative data
b)
qualitative data
c)
forged data
d)
minute data
12.

What is the best definition of a Nucleoid ?

a)

Organelles made of protein and RNA that direct protein synthesis.

b)

A dense region of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.

c)

The basic structural and functional unit of all organisms.

d)

A phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell

13.

Plasma membrane is best described as....

a)

A phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell

b)

Organelles made of protein and RNA that direct protein synthesis.

c)

A rigid non­cellulose structure that surrounds cells of bacteria

d)

A dense region of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.

14.

Which statement best describes a prokaryote cell wall ?

a)

Hair­like protein structures, that allow bacteria to attach to things.

b)

A phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell

c)

A dense region of DNA in a prokaryotic cell.

d)

A rigid non­cellulose structure that surrounds cells of bacteria

15.

A single-celled organism without a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.

a)

pili

b)

ribosomes

c)

flagella

d)

prokaryote

16.

Long, thin, whip-like structures, with a core of microtubules, that enable movement.

a)

flagella

b)

cell wall

c)

nucleoid

d)

cell

17.

T/F - Pili → Hair-like protein structures, that allow bacteria to attach to things.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

T/F - Plasma membrane → A phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cell

a)

True

b)

False

19.

T/F - Escherichia coli (E. coli) → A rigid non-cellulose structure that surrounds cells of bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What is this organelle?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondria

21.

What is this organelle?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Mitochondria

22.

What is this organelle?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Centriole

23.

What is this organelle?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

24.

Which of the following cell parts do ALL cells contain?

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

e)

cytoplasm

25.

Which cell parts do PLANT cells contain that are not found in animal cells?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Large Central Vacuole

e)

Golgi Apparatus

26.

A cell that contains a lot of mitochondria is specialized for what function?

a)

Protein production

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Conducting electrical impulses

d)

ATP production

27.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
28.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell membrane?
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
29.
The function of the plasma membrane is....
a)
to regulate what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
fight bacteria and viruses that enter the cell.
c)
provide rigid support and protection to the cell.
d)
make sure each cell can move
30.
Hydrophilic means...
a)
water-loving
b)
water-fearing
c)
nonpolar
d)
lipid soluble
31.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
32.
What is NOT TRUE about the cell membrane
a)
It controls what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Semipermeable
c)
Phospholipid bilayer
d)
Contains digestive enzymes
33.
What is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
proteins
b)
salt
c)
water
34.
True or false:  Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis. 
a)
True
b)
False
35.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
36.
A ______________ is composed of a phosphate and glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. 
a)
phospholipid 
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Cholesterol 
d)
Protein 
37.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
38.
Which letter indicates an integral protein?
a)
E
b)
F
c)
H
d)
I
39.

Who is credited for this model of the cell membrane that was predominant from the 1930s to the 1960s?

a)

Singer and Nicholson

b)

Davson and Danelli

c)

Gorter and Grendel

d)

Watson and Crick

40.

What issues were found with the Davson-danelli model that meant the Singer - Nicholson model was eventually accepted?

a)

Electron micrographs showed a light band sandwiched between 2 dark bands

b)

Freeze etched electron micrographs showed globular structures crossing the membranes

c)

Membrane proteins were shown to have hydrophobic sections.

d)

Fluorescent marking of membrane proteins showed they could move around within the membrane

e)

There were twice as many phospholipids in red blood cells than were needed to make a monolayer membrane.

41.

This freeze-etched electron micrograph of the membrane suggested which piece of evidence that helped to falsify the Davson-Danelli model?

a)

Membrane proteins are not even distributed across membranes

b)

Membrane proteins appear to cross through the membrane

c)

Membrane proteins make an even layer on the outside of membranes

d)

Membranes do not have proteins

42.

The diagram shows a section through a membrane. What are the modes of transport in the diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.

Which graph best represents the relationship between the concentration of chloride ions in the external environment of a cell and the rate at which the chloride ions move by facilitated diffusion into the cytoplasm of the cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

The diagrams represent cells with the same concentration of dissolved substances in their cytoplasm. If all the cells were placed in the same hypertonic sucrose solution, which cell would show the greatest rate of change in the concentration of its cytoplasm?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

A human organ is being prepared for transplant. In what type of solution must it be bathed?

a)

A. A hypertonic solution

b)

B. A hypotonic solution

c)

C. Pure water containing no solutes

d)

D. A solution with the same osmolarity as the organ tissue

46.

Dialysis membrane was set up to model digestion and absorption in the small intestine.

What is a limitation of this model?

a)

A. There can be no active transport.

b)

B. Maltose will pass through the membrane.

c)

C. Lipase should be present with protein.

d)

D. The membrane is not permeable to starch.

47.

The salt concentration inside an animal cell is 1.8 %. The salt concentration in the surrounding medium becomes 5 %. What will be the likely response?

a)

A. The cell will gain water from the medium.

b)

B. The cell will lose salt to the medium.

c)

C. The cell will remain unchanged.

d)

D. The cell will shrink from loss of water.

48.

What is osmosis?

a)

A. The movement of water through a membrane from a low to a high solute concentration

b)

B. The movement of solutes through a membrane from a high to a low water concentration

c)

C. The movement of water through a membrane from a high to a low solute concentration

d)

D. The movement of solutes through a membrane from a low to a high water concentration

49.

Which movement occurs by osmosis?

a)

A. Oxygen from alveoli into the blood

b)

B. Water from a leaf into the atmosphere

c)

C. Water from soil to root

d)

D. Nitrate ions from soil to root

50.

What do diffusion and osmosis have in common?

a)

A. They only happen in living cells.

b)

B. They require transport proteins in the membrane.

c)

C. They are passive transport mechanisms.

d)

D. Net movement of substances is against the concentration gradient

51.

What is the difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

52.

What route is used to export proteins from the cell?

a)

A. Golgi apparatus → rough endoplasmic reticulum → plasma membrane

b)

B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi apparatus → plasma membrane

c)

C. Golgi apparatus → lysosome → rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum → lysosome → Golgi apparatus

53.

Cells in the adrenal gland produce the hormone epinephrine and store it in vesicles. To release epinephrine these vesicles are carried to the plasma membrane and fuse with it. What process is occurring?

a)

A. Expulsion

b)

B. Exchange

c)

C. Excretion

d)

D. Exocytosis

54.

Why do crop plants dry out when a field is irrigated with water contaminated by sea water?

a)

A. The plants lose water by active transport.

b)

B. The plants gain salt by osmosis.

c)

C. The plants gain salt by diffusion.

d)

D. The plants lose water by osmosis.

55.

Which process requires channel proteins?

a)

A. Simple diffusion

b)

B. Facilitated diffusion

c)

C. Binding of hormones

d)

D. Exocytosis

56.

What feature of cell membranes allows endocytosis to occur?

a)

A. Fluidity of phospholipid bilayer

b)

B. Presence of protein pumps

c)

C. Presence of carrier proteins

d)

D. Glycoprotein binding sites

57.

Which statement provides evidence for endosymbiosis?

a)

A. Early prokaryotes contributed to a large increase in oxygen in the atmosphere.

b)

B. Eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own circular DNA.

c)

C. Certain groups of ancient prokaryotes developed mechanisms to carry out aerobic respiration.

d)

D. Experiments by Miller and Urey produced simple organic molecules in abiotic conditions.

58.

In a copy of Louis Pasteur’s famous experiment, broth was put into flasks as shown in the diagrams.

What results would be expected with no spontaneous generation of life?

a)

A. Decomposition of broth by microbes occurred only in Flask W.

b)

B. Decomposition of broth by microbes occurred only in Flasks W and X.

c)

C. Decomposition of broth by microbes occurred only in Flasks W, X and Y.

d)

D. Decomposition of broth by microbes occurred only in Flasks W, X and Z.

59.

Pasteur carried out a series of experiments that provided strong evidence against a widely supported theory. What was this theory?

a)

A. Endosymbiosis

b)

B. Spontaneous generation

c)

C. Conservative replication of DNA

d)

D. Evolution

60.

What is evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

A. RNA can catalyse metabolic reactions.

b)

B. Meteorites contain organic molecules.

c)

C. Amino acids can be synthesized from inorganic compounds.

d)

D. Mitochondria possess their own DNA.

61.

The statement relates to Pasteur’s experiments.

What did this statement suggest?

a)

A. Mold evolved by endosymbiosis.

b)

B. Oxygen is required for anaerobic respiration.

c)

C. Cells can only be formed by division of pre-existing cells.

d)

D. Nutrients are a requirement for mold growth.

62.

The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?

a)

Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.

b)

Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.

c)

The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory.

d)

No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.

63.

The diagram below shows a proposed theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, called endosymbiosis.

Which of the following explains why cells that contained mitochondria-like organelles had an evolutionary advantage?

a)

They were able to photosynthesize

b)

They had more DNA

c)

They were able to make more use of available energy

d)

They were immune to bacterial invasion.

64.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains...
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria evolved
d)
Why cells rely on one another
65.
This experiment was conducted by the scientists:
a)
Stanley Miller and Harold Urey
b)
Harold Urey and Albert Einstein
c)
Louis Pasteur and Francesco Redi
d)
James Watson and Francis Crick
66.

What did electrical sparks in Miller and Urey's experiment mimic?

a)

The Sun's energy

b)

Lightning

c)

Volcanic eruptions

d)

Cosmic radiation

67.

What is being separated in mitosis?

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromosomes

c)

Meiosis

d)

Ribosomes

68.

What phase of mitosis is this?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

69.

What phase of mitosis is this?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

70.

What phase of mitosis is this?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

71.

A cell sample has the following cell counts

Interphase 5

Prophase 1

Anaphase 1

Metaphase 2

Telophase 1

What is the mitotic index?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

40%

d)

50%

72.

What do cyclins regulate?

a)

cancer

b)

mitosis

c)

the cell cycle

d)

seasons

73.

What occurs in meiosis but NOT mitosis

a)

crossovers between homologous chromosomes

b)

crossovers between sister chromatids

c)

spindle formation

d)

chromosome number is conserved

74.

What process occurs in BOTH mitosis and meiosis

a)

crossovers in prophase I

b)

separation of sister chromatids

c)

anaphase II

d)

division of two genetically identical nuclei

75.

What does mitosis do?

a)

regulates the cell cycle

b)

promotes spindle formation

c)

suppresses cancer

d)

results in the division of two genetically identical nuclei

76.

During which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

77.

Cyclin D

a)

triggers entry into G1

b)

prepares DNA for replication in S-phase

c)

triggers DNA replication

d)

promotes spindle formation at the end of G2

78.

Cyclin E

a)

triggers entry into G1

b)

prepares DNA for replication in S-phase

c)

triggers DNA replication

d)

promotes spindle formation at the end of G2

79.

Cyclin A

a)

triggers entry into G1

b)

prepares DNA for replication in S-phase

c)

triggers DNA replication

d)

promotes spindle formation at the end of G2

80.

Cyclin B

a)

triggers entry into G1

b)

prepares DNA for replication in S-phase

c)

triggers DNA replication

d)

promotes spindle formation at the end of G2

81.

In G1 of the cell cycle, the following occur

a)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin D is expressed

b)

DNA is replicated, triggered by Cyclin A

c)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin B is expressed to promote spindle formation

d)

Separation of sister chromatids into genetically identical nuclei

82.

In G2 of the cell cycle, the following occur

a)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin D is expressed

b)

DNA is replicated, triggered by Cyclin A

c)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin B is expressed to promote spindle formation

d)

Separation of sister chromatids into genetically identical nuclei

83.

In S-phase of the cell cycle, the following occur

a)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin D is expressed

b)

DNA is replicated, triggered by Cyclin A

c)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin B is expressed to promote spindle formation

d)

Separation of sister chromatids into genetically identical nuclei

84.

In M-phase of the cell cycle, the following occur

a)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin D is expressed

b)

DNA is replicated, triggered by Cyclin A

c)

protein synthesis, organelle number increase, cell size increases, Cyclin B is expressed to promote spindle formation

d)

Separation of sister chromatids into genetically identical nuclei

85.

What is an ocogene?

a)

A mutated gene that promotes uncontrolled cell division

b)

A gene that normally suppresses the cell cycle

c)

A gene that regulates mitosis

86.

What is an tumor suppressor

a)

A mutated gene that promotes uncontrolled cell division

b)

A gene that normally suppresses the cell cycle

c)

A gene that regulates mitosis

87.

What is a primary tumor?

a)

The original site of cancer growth, benign, not harmful

b)

The movement of cancerous cells form the original site

c)

The growth of tumors after metastasis, harmful

88.

What is a secondary tumor?

a)

The original site of cancer growth, benign, not harmful

b)

The movement of cancerous cells form the original site

c)

The growth of tumors at new sites after metastasis, harmful

89.

What is metastasis?

a)

The original site of cancer growth, benign, not harmful

b)

The movement of cancerous cells form the original site

c)

The growth of tumors at new sites after metastasis, harmful

90.

Check all of the following that occur in cytokinesis of PLANTS

a)

cell plate

b)

contractile ring of microtubles pulled by actin and myosin

c)

cleavage furrow

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

Vesicles carrying pectin and cellulose

91.

Check all of the following that occur in cytokinesis of ANIMALS

a)

cell plate

b)

contractile ring of microtubles pulled by actin and myosin

c)

cleavage furrow

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

Vesicles carrying pectin and cellulose

92.

Breaking this rule caused mogwais to breed out of control

a)

Feeding them after midnight

b)

Exposing them to light

c)

Spilling water on them

d)

Singing bad 80s music

93.

This is the name of the planet where clones were made in Star Wars Attack of the Clones

a)

Tatooine

b)

Hoth

c)

Kamino

d)

Jakku