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AP Biology Exam Review

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Meiosis results in _____________ because there is/are _______________.

a)

2 identical haploid cells, 1 round of division

b)

4 identical diploid cells, 2 rounds of division

c)

4 unique haploid cells, 2 rounds of division

d)

2 unique diploid cells, 1 round of division

2.

This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

a)

crossing over

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

gene flow

3.

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

4.

In animals, traits determine by the mitochondrial DNA are inherited from the _______________.

a)

mother

b)

brother

c)

father

d)

sister

5.

Identify the type of inheritance of the pedigree.

a)

Sex-Linked

b)

Mitochondrial

c)

Autosomal

d)

Random

6.

Describe the process of nondisjunction.

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information

b)

The alignment of the chromosomes on the metaphase plate

c)

Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase

d)

The process of sperm and egg fusing to create a zygote

7.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

8.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

9.

Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?

a)

cell growth

b)

gene expression

c)

secretion of molecules

d)

all of the above are responses

10.

Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor.

a)

confirmation change in shape of receptor

b)

phosphorylation of ligand

c)

ligand passes through the membrane

d)

receptor binds additional ligands

11.

Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

12.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

13.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

14.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

15.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

16.

Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

C-terminus

d)

N-terminus

17.

Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

18.

Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?

a)

increase product

b)

increase substrate

c)

increase inhibitor

d)

increase enzyme

19.

Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

a)

increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles

b)

increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate

c)

increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available

d)

increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site

20.

Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.

a)

noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site

b)

competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site

c)

competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding

d)

noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding

21.

What is the process of an endergonic reaction being fueled by an exergonic reaction called?

a)

second law of thermodynamics

b)

energy coupling

c)

first law of thermodynamics

d)

endergonic/exergonic switch

22.

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP & NADH

b)

CO2 & H2O

c)

NADPH & ATP

d)

Organic Compounds & O2

23.

What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?

a)

establish electrochemical gradient of protons

b)

to funnel electrons into photosystem I for the Calvin cycle

c)

transport electrons to oxygen to make water

d)

to synthesize ATP using ATP synthase

24.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

cristae

c)

stroma

d)

matrix

25.

Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

NADPH

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

NADH & FADH2

26.

Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Fermentation

27.

Why is water considered polar?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bonds in structure

b)

Ionic bonds in structure

c)

Polar covalent bonds in structure

d)

Hydrophobic interaction in structure

28.

Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Nucleic Acids & Proteins

29.

Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

30.

Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

31.

Describes the forming of a bond between monomers with the removal of a water molecule.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

32.

Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

33.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

pentose sugar

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

phosphate

d)

amino acid

34.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein?

a)

Amine Group

b)

R Group

c)

Carboxyl Group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

35.

Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane.

a)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior

b)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular

c)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior

d)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular

36.

How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented?

a)

new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate

b)

new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate

c)

new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl

d)

new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl

37.

Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix

a)

A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)

b)

A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)

c)

A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)

d)

A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)

38.

What component of the polypeptide is the next amino acid added forming the peptide bond?

a)

amino group

b)

hydrogen

c)

carboxyl group

d)

R groups

39.

Which protein involves R group bonding to form the final three dimensional structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

40.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

41.

In a population of 100 individuals, 20 individuals are born and there are 5 deaths. What is the r value?


Recall: r = per capita growth rate of population

a)

.05

b)

.15

c)

.20

d)

.25

42.

If the population size is 100 individuals and there is a r value of 0.3, what is dN/dt?


Recall: dN/dt = rN

a)

10

b)

15

c)

30

d)

60

43.

As the population size approaches carrying capacity, dN/dt...

a)

increases steadily

b)

increases slowly

c)

decreases slowly

d)

decreases steadily

44.

Which of the following describes the disadvantage of little species diversity in a community?

a)

less likely to have immigration

b)

more likely to be consumed by predators

c)

more likely to have mutations

d)

less resilient to changes in the environment

45.

Which of the following is an organism that is disproportionate relative to their abundance and when removed from the ecosystem causes it to collapse?

a)

dominant species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

primary consumer

46.

A group of bacteria are resistant to antibiotics. Which of the following describes HOW the bacteria became resistant?

a)

the bacterial population got changed by the antibiotic in the environment

b)

the bacterial population had random mutations making them favorable in the presence of the antibiotic

c)

the bacterial population consumed the antibiotic providing a food source

d)

the bacterial population uses the antibiotic for reproduction

47.

Describe the difference between rough ER and smooth ER.

a)

Rough ER compartmentalizes cell; Smooth ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis

b)

Rough ER functions in ribosome synthesis; Smooth ER functions in lipid synthesis

c)

Rough ER functions in detox and lipid synthesis; Smooth ER compartmentalizes cell

d)

Rough ER functions in lipid synthesis; Smooth ER functions in ribosome synthesis

48.

Which organelle is a membrane-bound structure that functions in correct folding/chemical modification of proteins?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

49.

Which is membrane-enclosed sacs that contain hydrolytic enzymes?

a)

Golgi complex

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

50.

Which is responsible for storage and release of macromolecules and cellular waster products. In plants, aids in turgor.

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Lysosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Vacuoles

51.

Which of the following is the location for the light-dependent reactions?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

52.

Which of the following is the location for the Krebs cycle?

a)

grana/thylakoid membrane

b)

matrix

c)

stroma

d)

cristae

53.

Describe the relationship between cell size and SA:V ratios.

a)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio increases

b)

As cells decrease in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

c)

As cells increase in size, the SA:V ratio decreases

d)

Cell size has no effect on the SA:V ratio

54.

Which of the following requires an input of energy for membrane transport?

a)

Charged ion moving against concentration gradient

b)

Water moving into a hypertonic cell

c)

Charged ion moving with concentration gradient

d)

Water moving out of a hypotonic cell

55.

What is the difference between endocytosis and exocytosis?

a)

Endocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell entering

b)

Endocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to bring materials in cell

c)

Exocytosis involves cytoplasm of a neighboring cell exiting

d)

Exocytosis involves phagocytosis or pinocytosis to remove material from cell

56.

Which of the following correctly describe the movement of water?

a)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 1.0M exterior solution

b)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

c)

Cell with 1.0M concentration will gain water from the 0.5M exterior solution

d)

Cell with 0.5M concentration will lose water to the 0.5M exterior solution

57.

Why is a eukaryotic cell able to be larger than a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Membrane-bound organelles compartmentalize intracellular processes

b)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

c)

Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus which decreases the volume of the cell

d)

Absence of membrane-bound organelles allows for enzymatic reactions.

58.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has prokaryote DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

59.

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

60.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

c)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

61.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

62.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

63.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA strands?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

64.

Which enzyme is requires RNA primers to initiate DNA synthesis?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

65.

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

66.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

c)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

67.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

intron removal

c)

poly-A tail

d)

TATA box

68.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

69.

How do retroviruses violate the central dogma?

a)

Retroviruses are responsible for using DNA to synthesize more viral RNA

b)

Retroviruses are pre-historic and existed prior to the central dogma

c)

Retroviruses use enzymes to make DNA from RNA & integrate into host DNA

d)

Retroviruses use host DNA to make viral RNA, then incorporate into host DNA

70.

Identify the primary source of genetic variation

a)

crossing over

b)

mutations

c)

random fertilization

d)

independent assortment

71.

Northern elephant seals were hunted by humans in the 1890s, reducing their population size to 20 individuals. Even though their population is now over 30,000, the seals still have reduced genetic variation. What’s the best explanation of this phenomenon?

a)

Bottleneck effect

b)

Founder effect

c)

Hererozygote advantage

d)

Relatice fitness

72.

Certain cavefish and salamanders have non-functional eyes, which are remnants of the functional eyes of their ancestors. Such examples of “leftover” structures are referred to as:

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Genetic drift

73.

Western spotted skunks (Spilogale gracilis) breed in the fall, whereas and eastern spotted skunks (Spilogale putorius) breed in late winter. What type of reproductive barrier prevents these species from being classified as the same species?

a)

Habitat isolation

b)

Mechanical isolation

c)

Gametic isolation

d)

Temporal isolation

74.

It is hypothesized that eukaryotic features evolved from prokaryotic cells when smaller prokaryotic cells, the precursors of mitochondria and plastids, began living within larger cells. This model is referred to as:

a)

Endosymbiosis

b)

Adaptive radiation

c)

Simple metabolism

d)

The Cambrian explosion

75.

Male peacocks are famous for their colorful, showy tails, whereas female peahens are brown with no fancy tails. This is an example of sexual dimorphism, found in organisms with two different looks within the species. What mode of selection produces species exhibiting sexual dimorphism?

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Sexual Selection

d)

Artificial selection

76.

Thermoregulation involves maintaining an internal body temperature within a tolerable range. Which of the following organisms are considered ectothermic?

a)

Mallard duck

b)

Walrus

c)

Python

d)

Bat

77.

Finch populations were separated in the Galapagos islands by the ocean. This lead to speciation. What type of speciation does this represent?

a)

Allopatric speciation

b)

Sympatric speciation

c)

Reproductive isolation

d)

Temporal isolation

78.

Identify the type of prezygotic barrier that each example represents:

A type of fruit fly lays its eggs on the leaves of plants while other fruit fly species lay their eggs in tree bark.

a)

Mechanical isolation

b)

Gametic isolation

c)

Habitat isolation

d)

Temporal isolation

79.

Identify the type of prezygotic barrier that each example represents:

The males from one species of bird have a specific mating call, while birds from another species have a different mating call.

a)

Temporal isolation

b)

Behavior isolation

c)

Mechanical isolation

d)

Habitat isolation

80.

Identify the type of postzygotic barrier that each example represents:

A male donkey and a female horse can mate to produce a mule, but mules are sterile

a)

Reduced hybrid fertility

b)

Reduced hybrid viability

c)

Hybrid breakdown

81.

Identify the type of postzygotic barrier that each example represents:

When different species of frogs and salamanders mate the zygote fails to develop or mature.

a)

Reduced hybrid viability

b)

Reduced hybrid fertility

c)

Hybrid breakdown

82.

All of the following are part of Hardy Weinberg law for populations in equilibirum EXCEPT

a)

Large population

b)

No immigration or emigration

c)

No natural selection

d)

Non random mating

e)

No genetic mutations

83.

Which species on this cladogram have four walking legs?

a)

Lancelet

b)

Leopards only

c)

All of the species have this trait

d)

Salamander, turtle, leopards

84.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
85.

Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?

a)

p2

b)

2pq

c)

q2

d)

p2 + 2pq

86.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
87.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
88.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of recessive genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64