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Category 2 BIOLOGY

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

DNA is considered a universal genetic code. Which statements are true of the genetic code? Pick THREE correct sentences.

a)

The order of nucleotide sequences of the genetic code is the same for all living organisms.

b)

The components that make up the genetic code are common among all living organisms.

c)

Proteins are assembled from a four letter codon that specifies what amino acids are needed.

d)

The genetic code uses the four nucleotide bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.

e)

Amino acid sequences on the genetic code can be determined by the arrangement of the codons.

2.

Delray has dimples and his wife does not. Delray has a homozygous dominant genotype for dimples, and his wife has a homozygous recessive genotype for no dimples.

If Delray and his wife decide to have children, then which Punnett square correctly shows the probability of them having a child with dimples?

a)
b)
c)
d)
3.

Sickle-cell anemia is caused by the homozygous recessive genotype. People with sickle-cell anemia have the genotype aa. People without sickle-cell anemia have either the genotype AA or Aa. A woman with the genotype AA has a child with a man with the genotype aa. What is the probability, as a percentage, that their child will have sickle cell anemia? (a)  

4.

Which statement best explains the color and texture change of the leaves?

a)

Plants shrink when they do not get sunlight

b)

Plants can grow without sunlight.

c)

Environmental conditions do not alter a plant's characteristics.

d)

Environmental conditions influence the expression of genetic traits

5.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
6.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
7.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
8.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
9.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
10.
The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
11.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
12.

When going from DNA to mRNA, this process is called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

13.

When going from mRNA to Amino Acids, this process is called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

14.

What is the process to code for protein?

a)

DNA --> mRNA --> Protein

b)

mRNA--> DNA--Protein

c)

Protein-->DNA-->mRNA

d)

DNA--> Protein -m-RNA

15.

UUACUACG could be the code for?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Protein

16.
What scientific process is being shown?
a)
Mixing
b)
Crossing under
c)
Crossing over
d)
square dancing
17.

During which of the following stages are the chromosomes aligned at the midpoint of the nuclei?

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

prophase

18.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
19.

What is the end product of meiosis?

a)

4 haploid cells.

b)

2 diploid cells.

c)

2 haploid cells.

d)

4 diploid cells.

20.

What process results in the division of 1 cell into 2 identical daughter cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

G1

d)

Cross-Over

21.

What is the correct order of the stages of Mitosis?

a)

Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase

b)

Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase, Anaphase.

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase.

d)

Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase.

22.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
23.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

24.

Why do insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations have a greater effect on the organism?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

25.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

26.

DNA is considered a "universal" molecule, which allows scientists to insert genes from one animal into another, this is made possible because...

a)

DNA, is not universal, it is in fact radically different between species.

b)

all organisms have a nucleus which stores DNA

c)

all organisms have the same sequence of nucleotides of DNA

d)

all organisms have the same components or nucleotides of DNA

27.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
28.
Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
29.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
30.

A mutation in which only one nucleotide is altered is called a:

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Insertion Mutation

31.

Genetic mutations can be...

a)

beneficial, harmful, or neutral

b)

beneficial only

c)

harmful only

d)

neutral only

32.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
33.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

34.

A molecule of DNA is a polymer composed of _____________.

a)

glucose

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

35.

Where in the cell does DNA replication occur?

a)

ribosome

b)

cytoplasm

c)

vacuole

d)

nucleus

36.

The arctic fox inhabits northern area of North America. The same arctic fox is shown in the drawing during different times of the year.

What causes this change in the fur color?

a)

the genes for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older

b)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by magic

c)

the arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth

d)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature

37.

The structure X is a ________.

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

38.

Involves crossing over

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

39.

produces identical daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

40.

involves 1 division of nucleus

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

41.

forms gametes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

42.

for growth and repair

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

43.

involves two divisions of the nucleus

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

44.

produces haploid cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

45.

begins with diploid parent cell

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

46.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

47.

The process of "crossing over" occurs in what phase of meiosis?

a)

anaphase 1

b)

prophase 1

c)

prophase 2

d)

telophase 2

48.

The following pedigree chart shows _______ females and ______ males that DO NOT have the trait.

a)

7, 3

b)

4, 4

c)

3, 2

d)

3, 3

e)

57, 93.5

49.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
50.

How many daughters did the mother and father from the first generation have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

51.

If a child shows a recessive disorder, and his brother does not, his healthy parents' genotypes are;

a)

Hh and Hh

b)

HH and HH

c)

Hh and HH

d)

hh and hh

52.
Examine the pedigree. The allele for the presence of a widow’s peak is dominant. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that in the couple labeled 2:
a)
the male is heterozygous and the female is homozygous.
b)
the male is homozygous and the female is heterozygous.
c)
the male is homozygous and the female is homozygous.
d)
the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.
53.

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease .


Study the pedigree what are the possible genotypes of #10? (more than one answer)

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAXa

54.

Generation 2 individuals 5 and 6 are

a)

brother and sister.

b)

cousins.

c)

married.

d)

not related.

55.
 Look at the Punnett square. If the two parents represented in the Punnett square have four offspring, what does the Punnett square tells you?
a)
two of the offspring will definitely be heterozygous.  
b)
one of the offspring will definitely show the recessive trait.
c)
there is a 50% chance for each of the 4 offspring to have the genotype Rr.
d)
there is a greater chance for the offspring to be RR than rr.
56.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

57.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

58.

Part of a chromosome is reversed.

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Point Mutation

59.

Part of one chromosome is transported and attached

to a non-homologous chromosome

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Translocation Mutation

c)

Duplication Mutation

d)

Point Mutation