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class 9th science mcq test

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which of the following is matter

a)

air

b)

stone

c)

cloud

d)

all of them

2.

the 'panch tatva' or five basic elements are air,water,fire,earth and ___________?

a)

trees

b)

animals

c)

sky

d)

moon

3.

what do you think?

matter is continuous or particulate

a)

continuous

b)

particulate

4.

when 2-3 crystals of potassium permanganate are dissolved in water, the colour of water will be

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

yellow

d)

purple pink

5.

what is the chemical formula of potassium permanganate

a)

PPM

b)

KMn

c)

KMnO

d)

KMnO4

6.

do you think particles of matter have spaces between them?

a)

yes

b)

no

7.

do you think the particles of matter are continuously moving?

a)

yes

b)

no

8.

when 2-3 crystals of copper sulphate is added to a glass of water ,the colour developed is

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

red

d)

yellow

9.

what is the chemical formula of copper sulphate

a)

CuS

b)

CoSO4

c)

CuSO3

d)

CuSO4

10.

as the temperature rises, particles of matter move

a)

fast

b)

slow

c)

not effected

d)

none of them

11.

intermixing of two different types of matter on their own is called:

a)

fusion

b)

diffusion

c)

vaporisation

d)

condensation

12.

Idu-Mishmi dancers are from which part of India?

a)

Andhra Pradesh

b)

Arunachal Pradesh

c)

Himachal Pradesh

d)

Rajasthan

13.

Do particles of matter attract each other

a)

Yes

b)

No

14.

How many states of matter are there?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

2

15.

One of them is the fourth state of matter?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Plasma

c)

Plasma Membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

16.

The fifth state of matter is given by?

a)

Subhash Chandra Bose

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Satyendra Nath Bose

d)

Both Satyendra Bose and Einstein

17.

The fifth state of matter is called as?

a)

REC

b)

ABC

c)

BAC

d)

BEC

18.

What is the full form of CNG?

a)

Cairo Nitro Gasoline

b)

Car Need Gas

c)

Compressed Natural Gas

d)

Congress Natural Gas

19.

Full form of LPG?

a)

Light Petrol Gas

b)

Liquified Petroleum Gas

c)

Light Purple Gas

d)

Light Paper Glue

20.

The S.I unit of temperature is:

a)

Celsius

b)

Fahrenheit

c)

Kelvin

d)

None

21.

What is the formula of ammonium chloride?

a)

AmCl

b)

NH4Cl

c)

NaCl

d)

MgCl2

22.

Air is regarded as a mixture because:

a)

Its pressure may very

b)

Its pressure may very

c)

Its volume changes under different conditions

d)

Its composition may vary

23.

Two substances A and B when bought together form a substance C with the evolution of heat. The properties of C are entirely different from those of A and B. the substance C is:

a)

A compound

b)

An element

c)

A mixture

d)

None of the above

24.

A sample contains two substances and has uniform properties. The sample is:

a)

A compound

b)

A heterogeneous mixture

c)

An element

d)

A homogeneous mixture

25.

White gold is used in jewelry and contains two elements, gold and palladium. A jeweler has two different samples that are both identical in appearance and have a uniform composition throughout. What can be said about the samples?

a)

They are homogeneous mixtures and be classified as metallic alloys.

b)

The materials are heterogeneous mixtures and can be classified by their components

c)

The samples have variable compositions and are classified as metallic solutions.

d)

The samples are heterogeneous mixtures that can be separated using magnetic properties.

26.

In which of the following constituents are present in the ratio?

a)

Mixture.

b)

Compound.

c)

Solution.

d)

Colloid.

27.

A mixture will appear translucent in the case of?

a)

Copper sulphate + water.

b)

Alum + water.

c)

Sugar + water.

d)

Starch + water.

28.

Brass is an example of?

a)

Homogeneous compound.

b)

Homogeneous mixture.

c)

Heterogeneous mixture.

d)

Heterogeneous compound.

29.

When two liquids do not mix, they form two separate layers and are known as

a)

(a) Miscible liquids

b)

(b) Immiscible liquids

c)

(c) Saturated liquids

d)

(d) Super saturated liquids

30.

The size of the particle of solute is ............ for colloidal Solution

a)

<1nm

b)

>1nm

c)

Between 1nm and 100nm

d)

Above 100 nm

31.

Tyndall effect means

a)

Rays scattered by dust particles

b)

Rays travelling from one medium to other

c)

Rays undergoing Refraction

d)

Rays undergoing totally reflected

32.

Tyndall effect is observed in forests because of

a)

tress

b)

high oxygen level

c)

mist and dust particles in the air

d)

less sunlight

33.

concentration of 36g of NaCl in 100 g of water is

a)

23%

b)

26.47%

c)

29.32%

d)

21.11%

34.

How would H2O be classified? Check all that apply.

a)

Atom

b)

Molecule

c)

Compound

35.

How would O2 be qualified. Check all answers that apply.

a)

Atom

b)

Molecule

c)

Compound

36.

What are atoms composed of?

a)

Protons and electrons.

b)

Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

c)

Neutrons and electrons.

d)

Ions, elements, and compounds.

37.
The beginning substances in a chemical reaction are called...
a)
reactants
b)
products
38.

The amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent is known as

a)

(a) Composition of solute

b)

(b) Concentration of a solvent

c)

(c) Concentration of a solute

d)

(d) Concentration of a solution

39.
Sugar water is a 
a)
solution
b)
suspension
c)
colloid
40.
Milk is a 
a)
solution
b)
suspension
c)
colloid
41.

The smallest particle of a substance is......

a)

atom

b)

element

c)

molecule

d)

compound

42.

Atomicity is ......

a)

the number of atoms present in an element.

b)

the number of atoms present in a molecule.

c)

atomic mass

d)

none of the above

43.

The short-hand notation of an element is called....

a)

formula

b)

symbol

c)

mark

d)

representation

44.

The bonding capacity of an element is called......

a)

Atomic number

b)

Atomic Mass Unit

c)

Molecular mass

d)

Valency

45.

"Total mass of the products formed in chemical reaction is exactly equal to the total mass of the reactants present in it." is a .....

a)

Law of constant proportion

b)

Law of multiple proportion

c)

Law of conservation of mass

d)

All the above

46.

"In a compound, the elements always present in the fixed ratio of their mass." is a ....

a)

Law of constant proportion

b)

Law of conservation of mass

c)

Law of multiple proportion

d)

None of the above

47.

Father of modern chemistry is......

a)

Antoine Lavoisier

b)

Joseph L Proust

c)

John Dalton

d)

Rutherford

48.

Who proposed Law of Conservation of mass?

a)

Proust

b)

Dalton

c)

Democrats

d)

Lavoisier

49.

Who proposed Law of constant proportion?

a)

John Dalton

b)

Joseph L Proust

c)

Lavoisier

d)

Neil's Bohr

50.

Who Proposed the law of multiple proportion?

a)

Antoine Lavoisier

b)

Joseph L Proust

c)

John Dalton

d)

Neil's Bohr

51.

The Latin name of water is.....

a)

Oxy

b)

Hello

c)

Hydro

d)

none of the above

52.

An Indian sage who postulated the atom in his VISHESIKA SUTRA was ... ...

a)

Maharishi Kannada

b)

Maharishi Kasyapa

c)

Maharishi Kannada and Kasyapa are same.

d)

None of the above

53.

'S' is the symbol of ....

a)

Silicon

b)

Sulfur

c)

Sodium

d)

Above all

54.

The symbol of Gold is......

a)

G

b)

Ag

c)

Au

d)

Go

55.

The Latin name of Potassium is......

a)

Natrium

b)

Kalium

c)

Plum bum

d)

None of the above

56.

Hydragyrum is the Latin name of ......

a)

Iron

b)

Mercury

c)

Tin

d)

Tungsten

57.

Chemical formula of Sodium Carbonate.

a)

NaHCO3

b)

Na2CO3

c)

NaOH

d)

Na2SO4

58.

H2SO4 Is the chemical formula of......

a)

Hydrogen Chloride

b)

Sulfuric acid

c)

Nitric acid

d)

Carbonic acid

59.

Valency of inert gas elements.

a)

0

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

60.

Valency of Hydrogen is......

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

The most abundant material in plant cell wall is

a)

cellulose

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

wax

62.

Lysosomes are formed by

a)

RER

b)

SER

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Golgi apparatus

63.

Amoeba acquires its food through a process, called

a)

exocytosis

b)

endocytosis

c)

plasmolysis

d)

exocytosis and endocytosis both

64.

The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes is also known as

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

nucleic acid

d)

nucleoid

65.

Which of the following act as a garbage disposal system of the cell

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Vacuole

c)

lysosome

d)

peroxisomes

66.

Chromosomes are made up of

a)

DNA

b)

protein

c)

DNA and protein

d)

RNA

67.

The infoldings of mitochondria are known as

a)

cristae

b)

matrix

c)

cisternae

d)

grana

68.

Colorless plastids are known as

a)

leucoplasts

b)

chromoplasts

c)

chloroplasts

d)

none of the above

69.

Cell theory was given by

a)

Schleiden and Schwann

b)

Virchow

c)

Hooke

d)

Haeckel

70.

Kitchen of the cell is

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Golgi apparatus

71.

Amoeba acquires its food through a process termed as

a)

exocytosis

b)

endocytosis

c)

plasmolysis

d)

exocytosis and endocytosis

72.

A cell placed in hypotonic solution will

a)

shrink

b)

show plasmolysis

c)

swell up

d)

no change in shape and size

73.

Root hairs of plants absorb water from soil through

a)

diffusion

b)

imbibition

c)

osmosis

d)

all the above

74.

Intercellular connections in plant cells are called

a)

middle lamella

b)

microfibrils

c)

matrix

d)

plasmodesmata

75.

First living cells were observed by

a)

A.V. Leeuwenhoek

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

R. Virchow

d)

Robert Brown

76.

Cell arise from pre-existing cell was stated by

a)

Haeckel

b)

Virchow

c)

Hooke

d)

Schleiden

77.

The site of detoxification in liver cells is

a)

lysosome

b)

RER

c)

ribosome

d)

SER

78.

Control center of the cell

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

SER

d)

chromosomes

79.

The process in which parent cell divides to form two identical daughter cells is

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

binary fission

d)

budding

80.

Nucleolus is the site of

a)

mRNA synthesis

b)

Ribosome synthesis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

ATP synthesis

81.

The mass of moon is about 0.012 times that of the earth and its diameter is about 0.25 times that of earth. The value of G on the moon will be:

a)

Same as that on the earth

b)

About one-fifth of that on the earth

c)

About one-sixth of that on the earth

d)

About one-fourth of that on the earth

82.

An apple falls from a tree because of the gravitational attraction between the earth and the apple. If F1 is the magnitude of the force exerted by the earth on the apple and F2 is the magnitude of the force exerted by the apple on the earth, then

a)

F1 is very much greater than F2

b)

F2 is very much greater than F1

c)

F1 and F2 are equal

d)

F1 is only a little greater than F2

83.

A stone is released from the top of a tower of height 19.6 m. Then its final velocity just before touching the ground will be:

a)

384.16 m/ s

b)

196 m/s

c)

19.6 m/s

d)

3841.4 m/s

84.

. A boy is whirling a stone tied with a string in a horizontal circular path as shown in the following figure:

a)

Will move along a straight line towards the centre of the circular path

b)

Will move along a straight line the tangential to the circular path

c)

Will move along a straight line perpendicular to the circular path away from the boy

d)

Will continue to move in the circular path

85.

The gravitational force between two bodies is decreased by 36% when the distance between them is increased by 3m. The initial distance between them is

a)

6m

b)

9m

c)

12m

d)

15m

86.

If the distance between two bodies is increased by 25%, then the % change in the gravitational force is

a)

Decreases by 36%

b)

Increases by 36%

c)

Increases by 64%

d)

Decreases by 64%

87.

Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet is g/5 where g is the value on the earth. When a body is vertically thrown up on the earth, it reaches a maximum height h. If the same body is projected with the same velocity from the surface of planet, maximum height reached by it would be

a)

h/5

b)

h/25

c)

5h

d)

25h

88.

An object falls through a distance h in certain time on the earth. The same object falls through a distance 4h in the same time on a planet. If 'g' is acceleration due to gravity on the earth, acceleration due to gravity on that planet is

a)

g/4

b)

4 g

c)

g/2

d)

2 g

89.

The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both objects are doubled and distance between them becomes doubled, then the gravitational force would become

a)

4F

b)

6F

c)

2F

d)

F

90.

The weight of any person on the moon is about 1/6 times that on the earth. He can lift a mass of 12 kg on the earth. What will be the maximum mass, which can be lifted by the same force applied by the person on the moon?

a)

60KG

b)

72KG

c)

96KG

d)

54KG

91.

choose corect relation the average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R.

a)

4g/3πGR

b)

3g/4πGR

c)

3G/4πgR

d)

4G/3πgR

92.

How does the mass weight of an object vary with respect to mass and radius of the earth. In a hypothetical case, if the diameter of the earth becomes half of its present value and its mass becomes four times of its present value, then how would the weight of any object on the surface of the earth be affected?

a)

m,w

b)

16m,w

c)

m,16w

d)

16m,16w

93.

A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears, the satellite will

a)

Continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit

b)

Move with a velocity v, tangentially to the original orbit

c)

Fall down with increasing velocity

d)

Ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit

94.

A man can jump to a height of 1.5 m on a planet A. What is the height he may be able to jump on another planet whose mass and radius are, double to the planet A

a)

1.5 m

b)

3.0 m

c)

4.5 m

d)

6.0 m

95.

The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The acceleration due to gravity on the planets are in the ratio

a)

1 : 2

b)

2:1

c)

1:4

d)

4:1

96.

Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes, one above the equator and the other above the north pole, both at height h. Assuming all conditions are identical, will those packets take same time to reach the surface of earth.

a)

at poles reaches early

b)

at equator reaches early

c)

reaches at equal rate at poles and equator

d)

never reach earth

97.

On the earth, a stone is thrown from a height in a direction parallel to the earth’s surface while another stone is simultaneously dropped from the same height. Which stone would reach the ground first and why?

a)

free fall will reach first

b)

body with horizontal motion reach first

c)

both will reach at same time

d)

never reach ground

98.

Two particles are placed at some distance. If the mass of each of the two particles is tripped, keeping the distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between them will be

a)

1/9 times

b)

9 times

c)

6 times

d)

1/6 times

99.

Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of moon would

a)

have same velocities at any instant

b)

have different accelerations

c)

experience forces of same magnitude

d)

undergo a change in their inertia

100.

The value of ‘g’

a)

Increases as we go above the earth’s surface

b)

Decreases as we go to the centre of the earth

c)

Remains constant

d)

Is more at equator and less at poles

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