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Biology Test Chapter 5

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who was the father of genetics?

a)

Punnet

b)

Watson

c)

Mendel

d)

Aristotle

2.

Why was it fortunate for Mendel that he chose the pea plant for his study?

a)

They produce flowers

b)

The flowers self-pollinate

c)

The flowers cross-pollinate

d)

The plants produce nice green peas

3.

Inflated pea pods are dominant over constricted pea pods. If a homozygous inflated pea is crossed with a constricted pea, what would be the genotype of the offspring?

a)

PP

b)

Pp

c)

pp

d)

half PP and half Pp

4.

If there is a gene for free or attached earlobes at a particular locus on one

chromosome, there is also a gene for free or attached earlobes at the same locus on the

homologous chromosome. Which of Mendel's concepts does this illustrate?

a)

dominant and recessive

b)

segregation

c)

unit characteristics

d)

allele conversion

5.

If your grandparents are the P1 generation, which generation will your children be?

a)

F1

b)

F2

c)

F3

d)

P3

6.

The separation of pairs of genes on homologous chromosomes during the formation of

gametes demonstrates the concept of

a)

dominance

b)

recessiveness

c)

segregation

d)

unit characteristics

7.

The principle of genetics involved when one gene in a pair masks or prevents the

expression of the other is called the principle of

a)

unit characteristics

b)

segregation

c)

independent assortment

d)

dominance and recessiveness

8.

A person has one allele for free earlobes and one allele for attached earlobes. In spite

of the one allele for attached earlobes, the person's phenotype is free earlobes.

Which of Mendel's concepts does this illustrate?

a)

dominant and recessive

b)

segregation

c)

unit characteristics

d)

allele conversion

9.

Even though a person has one allele for free earlobes and one allele for attached earlobes, each of his offspring will receive only one of these alleles from him. Which of Mendel's concepts does this represent?

a)

dominant and recessive

b)

segregation

c)

unit characteristics

d)

allele conversion

10.

The ability of a person to roll his tongue is due to the dominant allele T. A woman who can roll her tongue is married to a man who cannot. Two of their four children have the ability to roll their tongues, and two do not. What are parents' genotypes?

a)

mother, TT; father, tt

b)

mother, tt; father, Tt

c)

mother, Tt; father, tt

d)

mother, Tt; father,Tt

11.

In humans, tongue rolling is dominant over the inability to roll one's tongue. A woman who cannot roll her tongue marries a man who can roll his tongue. Their first child is not able to roll his tongue. What is the father's genotype?

a)

Tt

b)

TT

c)

tt

12.

In humans, free earlobes are determined by a dominant gene (F), and earlobes that are attached are determined by aa recessive gene (f). A woman with free earlobes marries a mana with attached earlobes. Their first child has attached earlobes. Which of the following expresses the mother's genotype?

a)

Ff

b)

FF

c)

ff

d)

impossible to determine

13.

Possessing a pair of identical alleles for one trait is the

a)

monohybrid condition

b)

dihybrid condition

c)

homozygous condition

d)

heterozygous condition

14.

If an organism has two different alleles for a single trait, the organism is said to be

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

monohybrid

d)

dihybrid

15.

A chart that enables someone to visualize gene pairings is called a

a)

Mendel square

b)

phenotype chart

c)

genotype chart

d)

Punnett square

16.

Is using a Punnett square to show a simple monohybrid cross, you would

a)

use two different letters to indicate two different traits

b)

use two different letters to indicate the dominant and recessive traits

c)

use the uppercase and lowercase of the same letter to indicate the dominant and recessive trait

d)

use the lower case of two different letters to indicate the dominant and recessive traits

17.

What do the following characters indicate? TT

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

incomplete dominance

18.

Which genotype is heterozygous?

a)

XX

b)

TT

c)

Bb

d)

dd

19.

Adam crosses a homozygous pea plant that has round peas with a homozygous pea plant that has wrinkled peas. All of the new pea plants from this cross have round peas. Which trait is dominant?

a)

round peas

b)

wrinkled peas

c)

The trait exhibits incomplete dominance

d)

It is impossible to determine without doing a test cross

20.

In guinea pigs, black hair is dominant over white hair. If a homozygous black guinea pig were crossed with a homozygous white guinea pig, the F1 offspring probability would be

a)

all white

b)

all black

c)

half black and half white

d)

unpredictable

21.

A chart showing the phenotype of the individuals in several generations of a family is

a)

karyotype

b)

pedigree

c)

Punnett square

d)

phenotype chart

22.

A test cross involves mating an organism that has a dominant phenotype but unknown genotype with

a)

an incompletely dominant organism

b)

a homozygous dominant organism

c)

a homozygous recessive organsim

d)

a heterozygous organism

23.

When two alleles are both expressed, and the resulting phenotype is a blending of the two traits, the condition is called

a)

codominance

b)

multiple alleles

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

independent assortment

24.

When white and red flowers are crossed, the resulting pink flowers exhibit incomplete dominance

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

sex-linked traits

c)

pleiotropy

d)

multiple alleles

25.

When you cross yellow snapdragons with white snapdragons, you can produce cream-colored snapdragons.

Problem: What would be the offspring after crossing two cream-colored snapdragons? Use Cy and Cw to indicate the traits.

a)

All would be cream-colored

b)

All would be yellow

c)

Half would be yellow, and half would be white

d)

25% would be yellow; 25% would be white; 50% would be cream-colored

26.

People with brachydactyly are heterozygous with one normal and one abnormal gene. However, there are evidences of both the normal and the abnormal gene. This variation of Mendelian genetics is called

a)

multiple alleles

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

multiple gene interaction

d)

sex-linked traits

27.

When two alleles are both expressed, but the resulting phenotype is not a blend, the condition is called

a)

codominance

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

independent assortment

28.

When a homozygous white-feathered chicken is crossed with a homozygous black-feathered chicken, the resulting offspring have both black and white feathers. (Since there are no gray feathers, there is no blending of the two traits.) This is an example of

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

pleiotropy

d)

multiple alleles

29.

Which is an example of codominance?

a)

hemophilia

b)

brachydactyly

c)

roan hoarses

d)

blood type B

30.

Which blood type is an example of codominance?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

e)

none of the above

31.

The ABO blood types are a result of

a)

multiple alleles

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic inheritance

d)

pleiotropy

32.

With two sets of traits, you would be dealing with a

a)

diploid condition

b)

monohybrid cross

c)

dihybrid cross

d)

triploid condition

33.

Human skin color is very complex and is an example of this type of gene effect.

a)

multiple alleles

b)

pleiotropy

c)

codominance

d)

polygenic inheritance

34.

Human eye color exhibits

a)

multiple alleles

b)

simple dominance

c)

polygenic inheritance

d)

pleiotropy

35.

Males have sex chromosomes that are labeled

a)

XX

b)

YY

c)

XY

d)

XYY

36.

What is the role of the environment in shaping an individual's traits, as described in the text?

a)

The environment has no impact on an individual's genetic potential

b)

The environment can override genetic traits in all cases

c)

The environment can either enhance or limit an individual's genetic potential

d)

Genetic potential is solely determined by the environment

37.

Preformationists

a)

believed that parents donate particles of blood to their offspring

b)

believed that a father's sperm contains a tiny organism that grows up when the sperm reaches the egg.

c)

believed that particles of the parents' blood mix to form the offspring

d)

believed that it is impossible to know how inheritance occurs.

38.


How many chromosomes are in a normal human skin cell? 

a)

23

b)

46

c)

24

d)

48

39.

Which pair of scientists described the structure of DNA?

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Mendel and Calvin

c)

Punnett and Mendel

d)

Watson and Punnett

40.

A picture of homologous pairs of chromosomes is called a

a)

phototype

b)

karyotype

c)

histotype

d)

kinetochore

41.


Who believed that particles of the parents' blood mixed and joined to form the offspring? 

a)

Aristotle

b)

Preformationists

c)

Mendel

d)

Watson and Crick

42.

The human diploid chromosome number is

a)

23

b)

46

c)

24

d)

48

43.

Sections of a chromosome that code for a trait are called

a)

chromatids

b)

genes

c)

traits

d)

centromeres

44.

Hair and eye color, body build, and facial features are inherited and are called

a)

human characteristics

b)

racial characteristics

c)

individual characteristics

d)

species characteristics

45.

What is a karyotype?

a)

a list of an organism's traits

b)

a machine that sequences an organism's DNAA

c)

a picture of the chromosomes in a cell

d)

a substance that speeds up mitosis

46.

A section of DNA that causes a particular trait is called a

a)

histone

b)

chromatid

c)

gene

d)

chromosome

47.


What is the primary function of proteins called histones in relation to DNA?

a)

Breaking down DNA into its constituent nucleotides

b)

Supporting and protecting the long strands of DNA

c)

Initiating DNA replication

d)

Generating energy from DNA molecules

48.

Who is credited with describing the structure of the DNA molecule in 1953, leading to advancements in modern genetics?

a)

James Clerk Maxwell and Gregor Mendel

b)

Charles Darwin and Alfred Russel Wallace

c)

Rosalind Franklin and Linus Pauling

d)

James Watson and Francis Crick

49.


How much information is approximately contained in the DNA of one human cell, as described in the text?

a)

Equivalent to the content of 1,000 books with 600 pages each

b)

Equivalent to the content of 10,000 books with 100 pages each

c)

Equivalent to the content of 500 books with 1,000 pages each

50.

An example of a species characteristic in humans would be 

a)

blue eyes

b)

blond hair

c)

freckles

d)

thumbs

51.

What is the haploid number of chromosomes in a human cell?

a)

23 pairs

b)

23

c)

13 pairs

d)

13

52.


What are the long strands of DNA containing multiple genes called within a nucleus?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Proteins

d)

Mitochondria

53.

The study of inherited characteristics is called

a)

embryology

b)

histology

c)

genetics

d)

genealogy

54.

Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a)

the number of consecutive cell divisions

b)

the presence or absence of spindles

c)

the attachment between DNA duplicates

d)

the coiling of chromosomes

55.

What is the significance of meiosis in the context of reproductive cells?

a)

Meiosis increases the number of chromosomes in reproductive cells

b)

Meiosis has no impact on the number of chromosomes in reproductive cells

c)

Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes in reproductive cells

d)

Meiosis causes genetic mutations in reproductive cells

56.

What is the purpose of genetic material exchange during the pairing of chromatids in Meiosis I?

a)

To prevent the formation of tetrads

b)

To ensure the separation of homologous chromosomes

c)

To increase the number of chromosomes in the cell

d)

To allow the exchange of genetic material between maternal and paternal chromosomes

57.

After cytokinesis,

a)

sister chromatids are still attached

b)

there are two daughter cells

c)

the cells have duplicated chromosomes

d)

the equatorial plane becomes visible

58.

Who was the Father of Genetics?

a)

Punnett

b)

Watson

c)

Mendel

d)

Aristotle

59.

Who discovered the chromosomal process of meiosis in 1883?

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Louis Pasteur

c)

Edouard van Beneden

d)

Charles Darwin

60.

The human diploid chromosome number is

a)

23

b)

46

c)

24

d)

48

61.

Interphase is

a)

composed of the G1, G2, and G3 phases

b)

usually only a small segment of the cell cycle

c)

usually a time of intense cell growth

d)

seen only in cells undergoing mitosis

62.

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell experience growth and prepare for division?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

S phase

63.

The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres are aligned on the equatorial plane is

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

64.

What did Edouard van Beneden observe about the reproductive cells (sperm and ova) of the worm he studied?

a)

They had more chromosomes than mature worms

b)

They had the same number of chromosomes as mature worms

c)

They had half the number of chromosomes as mature worms

d)

They had no chromosomes at all

65.

What is the haploid number of chromosomes in a human cell?

a)

23 pairs

b)

23

c)

13 pairs

d)

13

66.

Interphase does not include

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

S phase

d)

prophase

67.

Uses of mitosis include all of the following except

a)

replacement of worn-out cells

b)

formation of gametes

c)

repair of injuries

d)

growth of an organism

68.

The reduction of a cell's chromosomes from diploid to haploid by two consecutive cell divisions is called

a)

mitosis

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

meiosis

d)

sexual reproduction

69.

Cytokinesis is the period of time in which

a)

the cytoplasm is divided

b)

the cell grows

c)

the chromosomes are duplicated

d)

the chromosomes are divided

70.

At the end of mitosis

a)

the cell is haploid

b)

the cell has divided

c)

the genetic material has been separated

d)

the sister chromaatids are attached

71.

What are the three major phases of the cell cycle?

a)

Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase

b)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

c)

DNA replication, Transcription, Translation

d)

G1 phase, G2 phase, S phase

72.

DNA is replicated in which phase?

a)

prophase

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

S phase

73.

Who was the Father of Genetics?

a)

Punnett

b)

Watson

c)

Mendel

d)

Aristotle

74.

Who was the Father of Genetics?

a)

Punnett

b)

Watson

c)

Mendel

d)

Aristotle

75.

Two haploid cells unite to form a

a)

diploid zygote

b)

haploid ovum

c)

diploid sperm

d)

haploid gamete

76.

Which phase of the cell cycle is primarily associated with the division of the cell?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

G1 phase

77.

Which best represents sexual reproduction?

a)

n+n=2n

b)

n+n=n

c)

2n-n=n

d)

2n+2n=4n

78.

The longest period of time in the life cycle of a cell is

a)

composed of the G1, G2, and G3 phases

b)

usually only a small segment of the cell cycle

c)

usually a time of intense cell growth

d)

seen only in cells undergoing mitosis

79.

The cellular contents are divided into two daughter cells during

a)

cytokinesis

b)

interphase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

80.

How does Prophase I of Meiosis differ from Prophase in Mitosis?

a)

Chromosomes do not coil in Prophase I

b)

Duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up in Prophase I to form a tetrad

c)

Sister chromatids never pair up in Prophase I

d)

Mitotic spindles do not form in Prophase I