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Unit 1 - 3 Chem A Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 8hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

Student A

b)

Student B

c)

Student C

d)

Cannot be determined

2.

____________ is a measure of how close measurements come to each other when they are made in the same way.

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

3.

How close a measurement is to the accepted value is called ___________.

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

4.
This bullseye demonstrates...
a)
High Accuracy & High Precision
b)
High Accuracy & Low Precision
c)
Low Accuracy & High Precision
d)
Low Accuracy & Low Precision
5.

This bullseye demonstrates...

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

6.

Which is the more precise measurement?

a)

4 mL

b)

4.3 mL

c)

4.30 mL

d)

4.300 mL

7.

Describe the accuracy and precision of the image

a)

Very accurate and somewhat precise

b)

Very accurate but not precise at all

c)

Not accurate at all but very precise

d)

not accurate and not very precise

8.

A set of data are all close in value to each other, but they are not close to the actual value. This set of data can be described as _________________.

a)

precise

b)

accurate

9.

Accuracy means

a)

the measurements are close to each other

b)

the measurement is close to the true value

c)

the measurements are close to each other

d)

the measurements are close to each other and the true value.

10.

Which student is the most ACCURATE?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

11.

The unit for mass is...

a)

Newton

b)

grams

c)

mililiters

d)

centimeters

12.

A graduated cylinder is used to measure...

a)

Volume

b)

mass

c)

weight

d)

density

13.

The unit for volume is

a)

grams

b)

milliliters (mL)

c)

Newton

d)

cubic centimeters

14.

 

What two types of measurements make up DENSITY? 

a)

Volume and Weight

b)

Temperature and Mass

c)

Mass and Volume

15.

Measuring the volume of a block uses which equation

a)

Length ×Width×HeightLength\ \times Width\times Height  

b)

(radius)2×Length×π\left(radius\right)^2\times Length\times\pi  

16.

What is the unit for density ?

a)

g/ mL

b)

g

c)

gcm3\frac{g}{cm^3}  

d)

cm4cm^4  

17.

A block has a mass of 20.0 g and a volume of 40.0 cm3. What is its density?

a)

2.0 g/cm3

b)

1.2 g/cm3

c)

0.500 g/cm3

d)

0.5 g/mL

18.
The mass of an object is 30 g.  The volume is 5 mL.  What is the density of this object?
a)

3 g/cm

b)
6 g/mL
c)

8 g

19.

If you have a gold brick that is 2.00 cm by 3.00 cm by 4.000 cm and has a density of 19.3 g/cm3, what is its mass?

a)

264 g/cm3

b)

463 g

c)
0.804 kg
d)

2.80 g

20.

If a block of wood has a density of 0.6 g/cm3 and a mass of 120 g, what is its volume?

a)

300 cm3

b)

200 cm3

c)

100 mL

d)

150 cm3

21.
Zed went to the store and bought a bag of chips.  He estimated there would be 350 chips in the package, but realized there were only 210 chips in that package.  What was his percent error?
a)
35%
b)
67%
c)
85%
d)
92%
22.
The deer population is estimated to be 17,600 in northern Illinois, but an actual count was 21,300. What is the percent error?
a)
21%
b)
17.37%
c)
17.4%
d)
21.02%
23.

The students measured length during a science experiment, they got 12.00 cm. But the actual measurement was 14.25 cm. What was the percent error?

a)

15.8%

b)

18.8%

c)
2.25%
d)
18%
24.
An archaeologist estimated that a fossil was 520 years old. It was actually 500 years old. What was the percent error?
a)
4%
b)
20%
c)
3.8%
d)
none of these
25.

Find the percent error. Round to the nearest tenth of a percent.

Actual speed: 38 mph

Estimated speed: 35 mph

a)

8.1%

b)

0.79%

c)

7.9%

d)

6.8%

26.

How do you write

8.317 x 106

in standard form?

a)

8, 371, 000

b)

83, 170, 000

c)

837, 100

d)

8, 317, 000

27.

How many sig. fig. are in the number below:

350.540

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

28.

Round 1047.78 to three sig figs

a)

104

b)

105

c)

1050

d)

1050.00

29.

For Fe+2, if the atomic number is 26 and it has 30 neutrons, then the number of protons is

a)

A. 26

b)

B. 28

c)

C. 56

d)

D. 24

30.

Neutral atoms contain equal numbers of

a)

A. electrons and neutrons

b)

B. protons and neutrons

c)

C. protons and electrons

d)

D. protons, electrons and neutrons

31.

The atomic number identifies the number of

a)

A. protons

b)

B. neutrons

c)

C. mass number

d)

D. isotopes

32.

Group 1 elements are called

a)

A. Alkaline earth metals

b)

B. Alkali metals

c)

C. Transition metals

d)

D. Halogens

33.

The least massive particle in an atom is the

a)

A. proton

b)

B. neutron

c)

C. electron

34.

Which of the following is NOT true of Noble gases?

a)

A. They are extremely reactive

b)

B. Colorless, odorless gases at room temperature

c)

C. They are group 18 on the periodic table

d)

D. They used to be referred to as inert gases

35.

Identify the metalloid in group 13.

a)

A. Silicon

b)

B. Boron

c)

C. Aluminum

d)

D. Carbon

36.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
37.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
Electrons 
b)
Positrons 
c)
Neutrons 
d)
Protons 
38.

What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Protons only

b)

Protons and Neutrons

c)

Neutrons and Electrons

d)

Protons and Electrons

39.

If an atom has 10 protons, 10 neutrons, and 10 electrons, what is the mass of the atom?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

40.
What is the atomic mass of "F"
a)
9
b)
18
c)
17
d)
19
41.

Which elements are to the LEFT of the zigzag?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

42.

Which elements are colored red?

a)

nonmetals

b)

metals

c)

metalloids

43.
Silicon is a semiconductor and has properties of both metals and nonmetals. What type of element is Silicon? 
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
d)
Pretty
44.
a)
Periods
b)
Groups
45.
a)
Periods
b)
Groups
46.
This happens naturally due to an unstable nucleus.
a)
fission
b)
fusion
c)
radioactive decay
d)
K-capture
47.
Where does fusion occur naturally?
a)
Underwater
b)
All around us
c)
In the radioactive waste
d)
On the sun
48.
The major drawback to nuclear fission reactors is the difficulty of achieving safe disposal of radioactive waste products.
a)
true
b)
false
49.
In nuclear fusion, smaller atoms are forced together to create larger atoms. Does this process release, absorb or maintain energy?
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Maintain energy
c)
Release energy
50.

Which reaction represents fusion?

a)
b)
c)
d)
51.

____ releases energy when atoms are split, while ______ releases energy when atoms are joined

a)

fusion, fission

b)

fission, fusion

c)

fission, fission

d)

fusion, fusion

52.
Which type of radioactive decay is occurring in this equation? 
a)
Alpha decay
b)
beta decay
c)
gamma decay
d)
positron emission
53.
In order of most to least penetrating radiation we have
a)
Alpha , Beta,  Gamma
b)
Beta , Gamma , Alpha
c)
Gamma, Beta, Alpha
d)
Gamma, Alpha, Beta
54.

Carbon-14 is commonly used in radiocarbon dating. How many protons, neutrons, and electrons does a carbon-14 atom have?

a)

6 protons, 6 neutrons, 6 electrons

b)

6 protons, 8 neutrons, 6 electrons

c)

14 protons, 14 neutrons, 14 electrons

d)

14 protons, 6 neutrons, 14 electrons

55.

The isotope uranium-235 is used as fuel in nuclear reactors. How many protons and neutrons does a uranium-235 atom have?

a)

92 protons, 235 neutrons

b)

143 protons, 92 neutrons

c)

92 protons, 143 neutrons

56.

What is the difference between isotopes of the same element?

a)

They have different atomic numbers.

b)

They have different numbers of neutrons.

c)

They have different numbers of electrons.

d)

They have different numbers of protons.

57.

Isotopes of the same element have different mass numbers

a)

True

b)

False

58.
When an unstable radioactive atom decays, it usually turns into:
a)
a more stable atom
b)
a less stable atom
c)
the exact same atom but with less pure energy
d)
empty space
59.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta 
c)
Gamma
60.

How is the alpha particle written in a nuclear equation?

a)

42He

b)

24He

c)

0-1e

d)

00γ

61.

What type of radioactive decay is this example?

a)

alpha

b)

beta minus

c)

beta plus

d)

gamma

62.

146C —› 0-1e + ____

a)

126C

b)

147N

c)

148O

d)

145B

63.
Has the highest penetrating power.  Can penetrate our body.  Even several cm thick of lead or several meters thick of concrete cannot stop all of it.
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
64.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
65.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
66.
What is the shorthand electron configuration for Sulfur atom?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p3
67.
[Ne]3s23p1 is the noble gas configuration for which element?
a)
scandium
b)
boron
c)
nitrogen
d)
aluminum
68.
The electron configuration of an atom is 1s22s22p6.  The number of electrons in the atom is 
a)
3
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
69.
How many valence electrons are represented here?
a)
7
b)
5
c)
2
d)
8
70.

How many electrons can the d sublevel(orbital) hold?

a)

8

b)

10

c)

2

d)

4

71.
How many valence electrons does Chlorine have?
a)
5
b)
2
c)
7
d)
5
72.
Which of the following is a p block element?
a)
Ca
b)
Ar
c)
Re
d)
Au
73.

This shape is that of a/n:

a)

s orbital

b)

p orbital

c)

d orbital

d)

f orbital

74.

What does the 1 in "1s" stand for?

a)

energy level

b)

s orbitals

c)

p orbitals

d)

the number of electrons

75.
Which orbital has the least amount of energy? 
a)
p orbital
b)
d orbital
c)
s orbital 
d)
What is an orbital?
76.
Which element is pictured?
a)
neon
b)
fluorine
c)
magnesium
d)
argon
77.

Which image shows an electron going to a grounded state?

a)

Image A

b)

Image B

78.

What image shows a wave with a high frequency?

a)

b)

c)

79.

What is an atomic orbital?

a)
A subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom.
b)
A chemical bond formed between two atoms.
c)
A unit of measurement for atomic mass.
d)

Regions of space where electrons are likely to be found.

80.

How many electrons can be held in the s-orbital?

a)
8
b)
4
c)
6
d)
2
81.

Review: What are valance electrons?

a)
Electrons in the nucleus of an atom.
b)
Electrons in the outermost energy level of an atom.
c)
Electrons in the innermost energy level of an atom.
d)
Electrons in the middle energy level of an atom.
82.

How many valance electrons does Germanium have?

a)
8
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
83.

What are oxidation numbers?

a)

Oxidation numbers are the charge an atom would have when it gets a full outer shell.

b)
Oxidation numbers are only assigned to metals in a chemical compound.
c)
Oxidation numbers indicate the number of protons in an atom.
d)
Oxidation numbers are used to determine the color of a chemical compound.
84.

What is the oxidation number of potassium?

a)
+2
b)
-1
c)
+1
d)
0
85.

What is the oxidation number of Neon?

a)
-1
b)
+1
c)
0
d)
+2
86.

What is the oxidation number of Iodine?

a)
+1
b)
+2
c)
-1
d)
0
87.

When heated, electrons are ____________.

a)

annoyed

b)

irritated

c)

excited

d)

angered

88.
Absorption of energy by an electron results in 
a)
it moving from the ground to an excited state
b)
it moving from an excited to the ground state
c)
the emission of a photon
d)
it moving from an excited to the ground state and the emission of a photon
89.

Flame tests are most useful for

a)

blood testing

b)

watching fireworks

c)

identification of elements

d)

none of the above

90.

When electrons change energy levels, when is light emitted?

a)

When the electrons jumps to a higher energy level.

b)

When an electron falls back to the ground state.

c)

When the electrons jump to the excited state.

d)

When electrons are resting.

91.

Explain what was occuring during the flame test that caused the flame change colors.

a)

The electrons gained energy and moved to an excited state.

b)

The electrons gained energy and moved to an ground state.

c)

The electrons released energy and moved to a ground state.

d)

The electrons released energy and moved to an excited state.

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