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Biology #4

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are gametes?

a)

eggs and sperm, haploid (1n); a reproductive cell that contains 2 chromosomes

b)
Cells involved in respiration
c)
Cells involved in photosynthesis
d)
Somatic cells involved in asexual reproduction
2.

What are somatic cells?

a)
Cells found only in the reproductive organs
b)

all non reproductive cells, diploid (2n); they have 4 chromosomes

c)
Cells that are not part of any organ system
d)
Cells that are only found in plants
3.

What is the definition of a zygote?

a)

The diploid (2n) cell resulting from the fusion of male and

female gametes, with two copies of each chromosome, produced through fertilization

b)
A type of animal cell
c)
A type of bacteria cell
d)
A type of plant cell
4.

What occurs during fertilization?

a)
Fusion of two sperm cells to form a zygote
b)
Fusion of an egg cell with a somatic cell to form a zygote
c)
Fusion of an egg cell with a sperm cell to form an embryo
d)

The fusion of gametes to form a new cell

5.

Gametes are formed with half the number of chromosomes so

that when they combine with another gamete, that new cell will

have the __ of chromosomes.

a)
triploid number
b)

correct number

c)
monoploid number
d)
tetraploid number
6.

The combination of meiosis and fertilization make up the cycle that is known as _

a)

photosynthesis

b)
mitosis
c)

reproduction

d)
cell division
7.

What is sexual reproduction?

a)

The process of producing offspring through an

alternation of fertilization

(producing diploid cells) and meiotic reduction in chromosome number

(producing haploid cells).

b)
The formation of offspring without the involvement of gametes.
c)
The exchange of genetic material between two individuals of the same species.
d)
The process of asexual reproduction in which offspring are produced from a single parent.
8.

True or False: In sexual reproduction, each offspring will contain half of

their chromosomes that came

from the mother, and half that

came from the father.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

In early in development, specific cells

are set aside to undergo meiosis to form the gametes that can be used

later in life to reproduce. These specific cells are called __

a)
epithelial cells
b)

germ-line cells

c)
stem cells
d)
somatic cells
10.

despite both somatic cells and germ-line cells both being diploid, how are they different?

a)

Somatic cells undergo mitosis to form genetically identical diploid daughter cells , while Germ-line cells undergo meiosis (do divide the number of chromosomes to produce haploids

b)
Somatic cells do not contain genetic information, while germ-line cells do.
c)
Somatic cells are involved in reproduction, while germ-line cells are not.
d)
Somatic cells are haploid, while germ-line cells are diploid.
11.

What happens during meiosis 1?

a)

Homologous chromosomes replicate their DNA.

b)

Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

c)

Homologous chromosomes fuse together to form a single chromosome.

d)

Homologous chromosomes

separate, and the daughter cells have only the haploid number of chromosomes.

12.

What is synapsis and when does it occur?

a)

The process of crossing over between non-homologous chromosomes during prophase II of meiosis.

b)

The pairing of sister chromatids during prophase I of meiosis.

c)

When homologous chromosomes find each other and

become closely associated or paired.

d)

The separation of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.

13.

What is the Synaptonemal complex?

a)

A protein lattice that forms between two homologous chromosomes in prophase I of meiosis, holding the replicated chromosomes in contact with each other

b)
A structure that forms between homologous chromosomes during mitosis
c)
A protein structure that forms between non-homologous chromosomes during meiosis
d)
A structure that forms between sister chromatids during mitosis
14.

The synaptonemal complex is done so that that base-pairs can form between nonsister

chromatids (opposite chromosome chromatids) for the crossing

over process. What dies this process result in?

a)
Mutation
b)
Recombination
c)

Paired homologues

d)
Replication
15.

What is recombination in biology?

a)
The process by which genetic material is duplicated within a DNA molecule
b)
The process by which genetic material is transferred from RNA to DNA
c)
The process by which genetic material is destroyed within a DNA molecule
d)

The exchange of

corresponding chromatid segments between homologous chromosomes; responsible for genetic recombination between homologous chromosomes

16.

The sites of recombination or crossing over are called _

a)
telomeres
b)
centromeres
c)
chiasmata
d)
chromosomes
17.

What is the chiasmata, and what does it indicate?

a)
The chiasmata is a type of protein found in the cytoplasm, and it indicates the presence of a viral infection.
b)
The chiasmata is a type of organelle found in plant cells, and it indicates the production of ATP.
c)

The chiasmata is an X-shaped figure that can be seen in the light

microscope during meiosis; evidence of crossing over, where two chromatids have exchanged parts

d)
The chiasmata is a type of enzyme found in the liver, and it indicates the breakdown of glucose.
18.

What is the difference between meiosis and mitosis?

a)

Meiosis involves two divisions with no replication of genetic material

back to back.

b)
Meiosis and mitosis are the same process with different names.
c)
Meiosis produces identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes, while mitosis produces gametes with half the number of chromosomes.
d)
Meiosis produces gametes with double the number of chromosomes, while mitosis produces identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes.
19.

In prophase I, DNA coils tighter and chromosomes become

visible under a microscope. What occurs later in prophase 1?

a)
DNA replication occurs.
b)
Homologous chromosomes separate.
c)
Nuclear envelope breaks down.
d)

homologous chromosomes become closely associated in synapsis, and exchange segments by

crossing over.

20.

The ends of the chromatids, of germ-line cells, are attached to the

nuclear envelope at _ sites

a)
peroxisome
b)
lysosome
c)
ribosome
d)

specific

21.

True or false: During synapsis, homologous chromosomes are joined along

their entire length

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Recombination is the exchange of corresponding chromatid

segments between homologous chromosomes and is also sometimes

called crossing over. What occurs during recombination?

a)
Exchange of chromatid segments within the same chromosome
b)

During recombination (prophase I), the synaptonemal complex

forms but another structure appears called recombination nodules.

c)
Exchange of chromatid segments between non-homologous chromosomes
d)
Exchange of non-corresponding chromatid segments between homologous chromosomes
23.

During recombination (prophase I), the synaptonemal complex

forms but another structure appears called recombination

nodules. What is the purpose of recombination nodules?

a)

Recombination nodules promote the separation of homologous chromosomes

b)

Recombination nodules prevent the formation of the synaptonemal complex

c)

Recombination nodules inhibit the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes

d)

Recombination nodules contain the enzymes needed to

break and rejoin chromatids of homologous chromosomes

24.

What is crossing over?

a)
The process of DNA replication during mitosis.
b)
The movement of chromosomes during cell division.
c)

A series of events in which the DNA segments of the chromatids are broken, switched with their sister chromatid, and then re-joined at the same site.

d)
The formation of gametes during fertilization.
25.

The four chromatids are held together in which two ways?

a)

Homologous chromatid cohesion and telomere cohesion

b)

Cohesion proteins and exchange of material by crossing over between homologous

c)

Centrosome cohesion and spindle fiber cohesion

d)

Nucleosome cohesion and kinetochore cohesion

26.

While recombination is occurring, what also needs to happen to have prophase 1?

a)

The nuclear envelope must be dispersed

b)

The centrioles must move to opposite poles

c)

The nuclear envelope must reform

d)

Homologous chromosomes must pair up

27.

By the end of prophase I, each homologous pair is locked together as

a bivalent. What is the purpose of a bivalent?

a)

To capture spindle fibers and move to the center of the cell to align on the metaphase plate

b)
To speed up the process of meiosis I
c)
To prevent homologous pairs from separating during meiosis I
d)
To ensure proper alignment and separation of sister chromatids during meiosis II
28.

The kinetochores of the sister chromatids for each homologue act

as a unit to capture the polar microtubules. What is this process called?

a)
homologue capture
b)

monopolar attachment

c)
chromatid capture
d)

microtubule adhesion

29.

What is monopolar attachment?

a)
A type of surgical procedure for removing tumors
b)

Each homologous chromosome is

attached to one pole instead of having its sister chromatids attached to the opposite pole in the bipolar fashion of mitosis.

c)

The stage of mitosis in which spindle fibers line up at the center

d)

Electrode placement used in electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) where one electrode is placed on the patient's forehead and the other is placed on the back of the head.

30.

True or false: Relaxation on the paired homologous chromosomes pulls them to the

equator of the cell so that they can line up on the metaphase plate

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The spindle axis orientation is _?

a)

Random

b)
Curved
c)
Diagonal
d)
Circular
32.

Chromosomes begin to condense, Spindle of microtubules begin to form, DNA has already been replicated during the S phase of interphase, each chromosome consists of two sister

chromatids attached at the centromere, each cell has 4 chromosomes or two pairs of

paired chromosomes, and crossing over occurs, forming chiasmata.

What phase of meiosis 1 does this process describe?

a)
Anaphase I
b)
Telophase I
c)
Prophase I
d)
Metaphase I
33.

Paired chromosomes line up at the equator, chiasmata keeps the paired chromosomes

together Microtubules from opposite poles attach to sister kinetochores of each homologous chromosome (not the pair).

One microtubule attaches to one of the aired homologous chromosomes and a

different microtubules connects to the other chromosome creating tension.

Which phase of meiosis 1 does this process describe?

a)
Telophase I
b)
Anaphase I
c)
Prophase I
d)
Metaphase I
34.

True or false: During anaphase I, the microtubules of the

spindle fibers begin to shorten, breaking the

chiasmata and pulling each sister chromatid to opposite poles.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What occurs at the beginning of telophase 1?

a)
The homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material
b)

Chromosomes are

clustered together at opposite ends of the cell, while the nuclear membrane reforms around them.

c)

Spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the homologous chromosomes

d)

Chromosomes condense and become visible

36.

During telophase 1, why are the sister chromatids no longer identical?

a)

Formation of new combinations of alleles

b)

Separation of homologous chromosomes

c)

Crossing over

d)

Independent assortment

37.

Why is there no S phase after meiosis 1?

a)

The chromosomes are already paired

b)
The DNA has already been replicated
c)
The cell is not in the correct phase
d)
There is not enough DNA to replicate
38.

What occurs at the beginning of the prophase II stage?

a)
The chromosomes condense and become visible.
b)
The nuclear envelope breaks down and the spindle apparatus forms.
c)
The cell divides into two daughter cells.
d)
The DNA replicates and forms sister chromatids.
39.

During metaphase II the newly formed spindle fibers from opposite poles

bind to the kinetochores of each sister chromatid.

What does this process cause?

a)

Tension to align the chromosomes

along the equator of the cell

b)

Chromatids to condense and become less visible.

c)
Chromosomes to randomly distribute throughout the cell.
d)

Cells to separate and move towards opposite poles.

40.

True or false: during Anaphase II, the spindle fibers contract, breaking the cohesion

protein bond between the sister chromatids and

pulling them towards opposite poles.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the difference between meiosis and mitosis? (select all that apply)

a)

The nuclear envelope re-forms around the four sets of daughter chromosomes

b)

Cytokinesis follows, leaving 4 new cells, all with different genetic information

c)

Each of these cells contains a complete haploid set of chromosomes

d)

These cells may develop directly into

gametes or divide

42.

True or false: Any error in meiosis can produce gametes with too many or too

few chromosomes

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What are aneuploid gametes?

a)
Gametes with a different DNA sequence
b)
Gametes with an abnormal structure
c)
Gametes with a normal number of chromosomes
d)

Gametes that have an improper number of chromosomes

44.

What FOUR distinct features is meiosis characterized by?

a)

1. Homologous separation

2. Sister chromatids

3. Kinetochores

4. DNA extraction

b)

1. Homologous pairing

2. homologous chromosomes

3. Protein synthesis

4. DNA replication

c)

1. Homologous pairing

2. Sister chromatids

3. Kinetochores

4. DNA replication

d)

1. Homologous pairing

2. Sister chromatids

3. Binary fusion

4. DNA replication

45.

During prophase I of meiosis, the __ __are

paired together, connected together.

a)
centromeres
b)
nucleosomes
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
sister chromatids
46.

After mitosis occurs, DNA must again be replicated in order for the

next division to occur, If meiosis is going to half the number of chromosomes this replication has to be __ between meiosis I and meiosis II.

a)
after meiosis II
b)
during meiosis I
c)

Suppressed

d)

Replicated

47.

True or false: During mitosis, the daughter cells that are produced are identical

to the parent cell in terms of their chromosome make up

During meiosis, it is rare that a new cell that is produced is identical

to the parent cell.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

What is the first filial generation?

a)
The generation of offspring resulting from a cross between two sibling organisms
b)
The generation of offspring resulting from a cross between two unrelated organisms
c)
The generation of offspring resulting from asexual reproduction
d)

F1 generation, the offspring resulting from a cross between a parental generation (P)

49.

What is a dominant trait?

a)

An allele that is expressed when present in either the heterozygous or the homozygous condition.

b)

An allele that is expressed or observed when an individual has four copies of the gene associated with the trait.

c)
A genetic trait that is only observed in males.
d)
A genetic trait that is not influenced by the environment.
50.

What is a recessive trait?

a)

An allele that is expressed regardless of the number of copies of the recessive allele.

b)

An allele that is expressed only when present in the homozygous condition, but is “hidden” by the expression of a dominant allele in the heterozygous condition.

c)
A genetic trait that is expressed only when an individual has one copy of the recessive allele.
d)
A genetic trait that is expressed only when an individual has two copies of the dominant allele.
51.

What is the second filial generation?

a)

The F2 generation is the offspring produced by crossing two individuals from the second filial generation (F2 generation)

b)

The F2 generation is the offspring produced by crossing two individuals from the parent generation

c)

The F2 generation is the offspring produced by crossing two individuals from the grandparent generation

d)

The F2 generation is the offspring resulting

from a cross between members of the first filial (F1) generation.

52.

When Mendel did this experiment, he observed among 929 F2

plants, 705 were purple and 224 were white.

What was the dominant to recessive ratio that resulted from this experiment?

a)
1:3
b)
2:1
c)
3:1
d)
4:1
53.

During Mendel's experiment the observed F2

ratio was 3:1, dominant to recessive, but in reality it was actually _:_?

a)
1:2:1
b)
1:1:2
c)
2:1:1
d)
1:3:1
54.

What is an allele?

a)

One of two or more alternative states of a gene, dominant or recessive

b)

A type of disease that is accumulated through the growth of cells during mitosis

c)

Cells that lack the needed amount of chromosomes

d)

Two types of proteins that are bonded to cells through protein adhesion

55.

True or false: In a hybrid, only two form of a gene, or an allele, is going to be

apparent

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is genotype?

a)

The total set of alleles that an individual contains, the genetic constitution underlying a single trait or set of traits.

b)

The physical appearance or other observable

characteristics of that individual that result from an allele’s expression, the realized expression of the genotype

57.

What is phenotype?

a)

The total set of alleles that an individual contains, the genetic constitution underlying a single trait or set of traits.

b)

The physical appearance or other observable

characteristics of that individual that result from an allele’s expression, the realized expression of the genotype.

58.

The 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive is the monohybrid __ ratio

a)

Phenotypic

b)

Genotypic

59.

The 1:2:1 ratio of homozygous dominant to heterozygous to

homozygous recessive is the monohybrid __ ratio

a)

Phenotypic

b)

Genotypic

60.

What is the Principle of Segregation?

a)

When two alleles join, and prepare the cells for DNA replication and the protein synthesis process

b)

The two alleles for a gene segregate during gamete formation and are rejoined at random, one from each parent, during fertilization

c)

The process of combining two alleles for a trait. It results in the identical two daughter cells

d)
The Principle of Segregation states that traits are determined by a single gene.
61.

During fertilization, How many from chromatids from each parent join

together to form a new homologous pair?

a)
None
b)
Three
c)
Two
d)
One
62.

In a Punnett square __ represents the dominant genes, while __ represents the recessive genes.

a)

Uppercase letters , lowercase letters

b)
Red, blue
c)
Left, right
d)
Numbers, symbols
63.

What is a dihybrid cross?

a)

An experiment between two individuals that differ in one trait.

b)

A single genetic cross involving two different traits, such as flower color and plant height.

c)
A breeding experiment between two individuals that differ in three traits.
d)

An experiment between two individuals that have the same traits.

64.

What is The Principle of Independent Assortment in a dihybrid cross?

a)
The Principle of Independent Assortment only applies to monohybrid crosses.
b)

The principle of independent assortment describes the random assortment of alleles for each of the genes.

c)
Alleles for different traits segregate dependently of one another during the formation of gametes.
d)
The Principle of Independent Assortment states that alleles for different traits always stay together during the formation of gametes.
65.

A mating between a phenotypically dominant individual

of unknown genotype and a homozygous “tester,” done to

determine whether the phenotypically dominant individual is

homozygous or heterozygous for the relevant gene is typically known as which of the following?

a)
Cross breeding
b)
Self cross
c)
Test cross
d)
Back cross
66.

When do mutually exclusive events occur?

a)
When they are dependent on each other
b)
When they have a high probability of occurring
c)
When they always happen together
d)

When two events cannot both

happen at the same time

67.

The rule stating that for two independent

events, the probability of either event occurring is the sum of the

individual probabilities is known as _

a)

The rule of addition

b)

The rule of division

c)

The subtraction Rule

d)

The multiplication Rule

68.

For a cross of a heterozygous purple F1

, the possible outcomes are PP, Pp, pP, and pp.

What is the probability of being heterozygous?

a)

1/2

b)

1

c)

1/3

d)

1/4

69.

What is the rule of multiplication?

a)

The rule of multiplication is a rule that states and explains the process of adding two numbers, then dividing them by the total variables

b)
Multiplication is the process of subtracting two numbers.
c)

The rule of multiplication is the process of dividing a number by another number.

d)

A rule stating that for two independent events, the probability of both events occurring is the product of the individual probabilities.

70.

If the probability of an F2

individual being pp (homozygous recessive) is

the probability of receiving a p gamete from the male (1⁄2) times the

probability of receiving a p gamete from the female (1⁄2).

What is the probability of a pp homozygote?

a)
1/4
b)
3/4
c)
1/8
d)
1/2
71.

When crossing two heterozygous organisms RrYy,

The probability of getting wrinkled seeds (rr) 1⁄2 (male parent) X 1⁄2 (female parent) = 1⁄4

The probability of getting green seeds (yy) 1⁄2 (male parent) X 1⁄2 (female parent) = 1⁄4

What is the probability of getting wrinkled green seeds?

a)
1/16
b)
1/8
c)
1/4
d)
1/2
72.

Mendel made a lot of assumptions that do not always hold

true, which of the following are the false assumptions Mendel made? (select all that apply)

a)

There are no environmental effects

b)

Each trait is specified by a single gene with two alternative alleles

c)

Genes only affect one trait

d)

Gene products act independently

e)

In a hybrid, only one form of a gene, or an allele, is going to be apparent

73.

The ability of

environmental effects to produce a range of

phenotypes for the same genotype is known as which of the following?

a)
environmental adaptation
b)
phenotypic plasticity
c)
genotypic variability
d)
phenotypic stability
74.

What is continuous variation?

a)
Variation that is not influenced by environmental factors
b)
Variation that is discontinuous
c)

Variation in a trait that occurs along a

continuum, often occurs when a trait is determined by more

than one gene.

d)
Variation that occurs in distinct categories or groups
75.

A trait that is determined by the effects of

more than one gene; such a trait usually exhibits continuous

variation rather than discrete either–or values is called a __

a)
single-gene trait
b)

quantitative trait

c)
discontinuous trait
d)
monogenic trait
76.

What is pleiotropy?

a)

A condition in genetics where a single gene can only affect the physical appearance of an organism.

b)

A condition in genetics where a single gene can only affect one trait or phenotype.

c)

A condition in which an individual allele has more than one effect on production of the phenotype.

d)

A condition in genetics where multiple genes can affect a single trait or phenotype.

77.

What kind of effects occur when a single gene affects more than one trait?

a)

Typically, the effect is codominance between two dominant traits, resulting in an abnormality

b)

No effects occur

c)

Usually one effect is a normal phenotypic code, and the other is a lethal developmental defect

d)

Polygenic inheritance is altered causing a increase in bodily hormone production

78.

Pleiotropic effects are characteristic of many inherited disorders in

humans, which of the following are the most common? (select all that apply)

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Type 1 diabetes

c)

Hemophilia

d)

Sickle cell anemia

79.

What can the multiple symptoms (phenotype) be traced back to which of the following?

a)

A single

gene defect

b)
Lack of sleep
c)
Excessive exercise
d)
Consumption of spicy food
80.

True or false: A diploid individual can carry only two alleles for a gene, but

there many be more than two alleles in a population

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Incomplete dominance describes a case in which two or more

alleles of a gene do not display clear dominance, the phenotype

of a heterozygote is intermediate between the homozygous

forms.

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance?

a)

Crossing red flowers with white flowers yields pink

heterozygotes.

b)
Leaf shape in plants
c)
Eye color in humans
d)
Hair texture in mammals
82.

Describe codominant alleles.

a)

A case in which two or more

alleles of a gene are each dominant to other alleles but not to each other.

b)
A pair of alleles that are only expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual.
c)
A pair of alleles that are not expressed in the phenotype of a heterozygous individual.
d)
A pair of alleles that are only expressed in the phenotype of a homozygous individual.
83.

Explain the difference in appearance of a heterozygote for codominance and incomplete dominance.

a)

The heterozygote for codominance has some aspects of both traits, while the heterozygote for incomplete dominance will have an intermediate phenotype.

b)
The heterozygote for codominance shows an intermediate phenotype, while the heterozygote for incomplete dominance shows both traits.
c)
The heterozygote for codominance shows only one trait, while the heterozygote for incomplete dominance shows both traits.
d)
The heterozygote for codominance shows an intermediate phenotype, while the heterozygote for incomplete dominance shows only one trait.
84.

The gene that determines ABO blood types encodes an enzyme

that adds sugar molecules to proteins on the surface of red

blood cells that act as ___ ___ for the immune system.

a)
antibodies
b)
enzymes
c)

recognition markers

d)
hormones
85.

What are the three common alleles for the gene that

encodes the enzyme involving ABO blood types?

a)

IA

b)

IB

c)

i

d)

IC

86.

A set of four phenotypes produced by different

combinations of three alleles at a single locus; blood types are A, B,

AB, and O, depending on which antigens are on the red blood cell

surface is known as which of the following groups?

a)
Phenotypes
b)
Red blood cells
c)
Antigens
d)

ABO blood group

87.

What are the four phenotypes of the ABO blood system?

a)

Type A individuals add only galactosamine,

Type B individuals add only galactose, Type AB individuals add neither galactosamine and galactose, Type O individuals add both sugar

b)

Type A individuals don't add galactosamine,

Type B individuals add only galactose, Type AB individuals add both galactosamine and galactose, Type O individuals add both sugar

c)

Type A individuals add only galactosamine,

Type B individuals add only galactose, Type AB individuals add both galactosamine and galactose, Type O individuals add neither sugar

d)

Type A individuals add only galactosamine,

Type B individuals don't add galactose, Type AB individuals add neither galactosamine or galactose, Type O individuals add neither sugar

88.

Why is O blood considered the "universal" donor?

a)
It has both the A and B antigens on the red blood cells.
b)

There are is both galactose and galactosamine present in O blood

c)

There is the perfect amount of B antigen on the red blood cells.

d)

There are no galactose or galactosamine antigens, causing no immune reactions