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Chemistry 11 Semester 2 Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What particle view below is a mixture?

a)

b)

c)

d)

2.

What is the best classification of this substance?

a)

An element

b)

A compound

c)

A mixture of 2 elements

d)

A mixture of 2 compounds

3.

How many different TYPES of ATOMS are in this image?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

4.
Which statement correctly and completely identifies a trend?
a)
Atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group.
b)
Electronegativity decreases across a period and decreases down a group.
c)
Ionization energy increases across a period and increases down a group.
d)
Ionic radius increases across a period and increases down a group.
5.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
6.
Electronegativity is...
a)
how good an atom is at attracting electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
7.
As you move across the periodic table atoms tend to get smaller because, ______________.
a)
the atoms have more mass.
b)
the atoms have less mass
c)
the atoms have more protons.
d)
the atoms have less electrons.
8.

The valence electron of element in group 1 =

a)

11

b)

3

c)

5

d)

1

9.

Ions are formed when atoms gain or lose ___.

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

atomic mass

10.

Which statement is true?

a)

Cations are negatively charged ions.

b)

Anions are positively charged ions.

c)

Cations are positively charged electrons.

d)

Anions are negatively charged ions.

11.

What property is being measured in this diagram?

a)

Density

b)

Ionization Energy

c)

Atomic Radius

d)

Atomic Mass

12.

Which element has properties most similar to those of Lithium?

a)

Carbon (C)

b)

Magnesium (Mg)

c)

Sodium (Na)

d)

Oxygen (O)

13.

Which element has properties most similar to those of Fluorine?

a)

Chlorine (Cl)

b)

Oxygen (O)

c)

Calcium (Ca)

d)

Boron (B)

14.

Which element is the least reactive?

a)

Lithium

b)

Potassium

c)

Cesium

d)

Francium

15.

Which element is the most reactive?

a)

Beryllium

b)

Calcium

c)

Strontium

d)

Radium

16.

Elements that have similar properties are found in the same

a)

group

b)

period

c)

table

d)

energy level

17.

Rows on the modern periodic table are called

a)

groups

b)

periods

c)

families

d)

gases

18.
As you move down the periodic table atoms get bigger.  This is because ____________.
a)
The atoms have more mass.
b)
The atoms have more protons.
c)
The atoms have more energy levels
d)
The atoms have more nuetrons
19.
Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
a)
potassium
b)
rubidium 
c)
francium
d)
cesium
20.
Atoms that have a high electronegativity, _______________.
a)
give up their electrons more easily.
b)
hold on to their electrons more tightly.
c)
have more electron shells.
21.
What is the correct name of the compound with the formula KH?
a)
potassium hydrogen
b)
potassium peroxide
c)
potassium hydride
d)
potassium monohydride
22.
What is the correct name of the compound with the formula CaO?
a)
calcium oxide
b)
calcium oxygen
c)
calcium monoxide
d)
monocalcium monoxide
23.

Which method(s) below is suitable to obtain salt from a salt solution?

a)

distillation

b)

dissolving

c)

filtration

d)

evaporation

24.

Which method(s) below is suitable to obtain pure water from a salt solution?

a)

distillation

b)

dissolving

c)

filtration

d)

evaporation

25.

The colour of plant leaves is due to a mixture of pigments.


Which method is used to separate these pigments?

a)

filtration

b)

evaporation

c)

distillation

d)

chromatography

26.

Which processes take place during distillation?

Hint: There are 2 processes.

a)

freezing

b)

boiling

c)

condensation

d)

melting

27.

Chromatography is commonly used in food testing to identify the presence of banned additives in food.


Which additive(s), P, Q, R or S is/are present in Chewy Candy?

a)

P and R

b)

P and S

c)

Q and R

d)

Q and S

28.

Which ink, W, X or Y is a pure substance based on the chromatogram shown?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

29.

Electrons that have not been excited are said to be at:

a)

high level

b)

base line

c)

set state

d)

ground state

30.

The spin of an electron is represented by this variable:

a)

n

b)

m

c)

L

d)

s, ms

31.

The principle quantum number, n, represents the:

a)

spin value

b)

suborbital value

c)

energy level

d)

magnetic value

32.

What does the 1 in "1s" stand for?

a)

energy level

b)

s orbitals

c)

p orbitals

d)

the number of electrons

33.

Found that electrons in atoms orbit around the nucleus similar to the way planets around the Sun.

a)

Democritus

b)

Thomson

c)

Bohr

d)

Dalton

34.

This image is an example of ...

a)

A Bohr model

b)

A Dalton model

c)

A Rutherford model

d)

A Thomson Model

35.
How did Rutherford discover the proton?
a)
Cathode tube ray experiment
b)
Gold Foil Experiment
c)
Planetary Model
d)
Plum Pudding Model
36.

JJ Thomson provided evidence that an atom...

a)
is the smallest particle of matter
b)
contains negatively charged particles
c)
has an overall negative charge
d)
has an overall positive charge
37.

Which one of the following discoveries came first?

a)

electrons

b)

neutrons

c)

quarks

d)

atoms

38.

Rutherford and his students did experiments that showed the existence of the:

a)

quark

b)

nucleus

c)

proton

d)

electron

39.

Which scientist discovered that the nucleus contained neutrons?

a)

bohr

b)

Rutherford

c)

Dalton

d)

Chadwick

40.

What is a particle with one negative charge called?

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

quark

d)

neutron

41.

A bond between two nonmetal atoms is a __________ bond.

a)

ionic

b)

nuclear

c)

metallic

d)

covalent

42.

Which of the following is NOT a covalent bond?

a)

K2S

b)

H2O

c)

I2

d)

CO2

43.

Which of the following describes covalent bonds?

a)

Bonds form because of opposite charges

b)

electrons are shared to fill outer electron shells

c)

Electrons are transferred between atoms

d)

Covalent bonds are magical

44.

Ionic bonds form between ---

a)

nonmetals.

b)

metals and nonmetals.

45.
What is the name for an ion with a negative charge?
a)
cation
b)
anion
c)
onion
d)
union
46.

Which of the following is NOT an ionic bond?

a)

NH3

b)

KCl

c)

K3N

d)

NaCl

47.
Where are metals located on the periodic table?
a)
Blue
b)
Green
c)
Red
48.

Which types of elements become cations?

a)

nonmetals

b)

metals

c)

only transition metals

d)

metalloids

49.

The chemical formula of dinitrogen textroxide is

(a)  

50.

What part of the atom gains energy from the flame and then loses it in the form of light?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Electrons

51.

How do electrons become excited?

a)

Emitting (releasing) energy

b)

Absorbing (gaining) energy

c)

Going down an energy level

d)

Going up an energy level

52.

What form of energy is emitted when an excited electron returns to the ground state?

a)

Photon (light)

b)

Heat

c)

Kinetic

d)

Potential

53.

What evidence did you observe that proves that elements give off their own unique color spectrum?

a)

All of the gas tubes produced a full spectrum. (A rainbow.)

b)

When we looked at white light through a prism, we saw the rainbow.

c)

Each gas tube gave off its own unique color and color spectrum when we looked at the light through the spectroscope. None of them were the exact same.

d)

Each gas tube gave off the same color and color spectrum when we looked at the light through a spectroscope.

54.

When electrons change energy levels, when is light emitted?

a)

When the electrons jumps to a higher energy level.

b)

When an electron falls back to the ground state.

c)

When the electrons jump to the excited state.

d)

When electrons are resting.

55.

Explain what was occuring during the time the flame test was producing different colors.

a)

The electrons in ground state gained energy and moved to an excited state.

b)

The electrons in excited state gained more energy and moved to an ground state.

c)

The electrons in the excited state released energy and moved to a ground state.

d)

The electrons in ground state released more energy and moved to an excited state.

56.

Based on the bright line spectra, the unknown emissions spectra at the top must belong to which element?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

57.

Based on the bright line spectra, the unknown emissions spectra at the top must belong to which element?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Mercury

c)

Neon

d)

Sodium

58.

When atoms _____________ energy, their electrons move to higher energy levels. These electrons _____________ energy by emitting light when they return to lower energy levels.

a)

lose, absorb

b)

absorb, lose

c)

lose, lose

d)

absorb, absorb

59.

An atom that gains or loses an electron becomes

a)

an isotope

b)

a new element

c)

an ion

d)

a molecule

60.

Valence electrons are

a)

neutral (no charge)

b)

found in the outer most energy level of the atom

c)

equal to the number of protons

61.

Which type of bond occurs between non metals?

a)

covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

metallic bonds

d)

all types of bonds

62.
What elements generally make an ionic bond?
a)
metal and nonmetal
b)
2 nonmetals
c)
metal
d)
none of the above
63.

If a molecule of oxygen has 8 protons (+) and 10 electrons (-), what is its charge?

a)

O10-

b)

O8+

c)

O2-

d)

O10+

64.

Which of the pair of elements form an ionic bond?

a)

Magnesium and Oxygen

b)

Magnesium and Sodium

c)

Iron and Zinc

d)

Nitrogen and Hydrogen

65.

What is emission spectra?

a)

The emission spectra is the absorption of light by an atom or molecule.

b)

The emission spectra is the unique pattern of light emitted by an atom or molecule when it transitions from a higher energy state to a lower energy state.

c)

The emission spectra is the reflection of light by an atom or molecule.

d)

The emission spectra is the scattering of light by an atom or molecule.

66.

15.773 + 2.8 = ?

(a)  

67.

How many significant figures are in the following number?

34.900

(a)  

68.
Solve and give your answer with the correct number of significant figures
24.28 + 12.5
a)
3.687 x 101
b)
36.8
c)
37
d)
3.70x101
69.
A magnet was placed near a pile that contained both iron and sulfur. The magnet was moved gradually closer to the pile. As it neared the pile, the magnet started attracting small pieces of iron from the pile. 
Which of these statements best describes the contents of the pile?
a)
It is a heterogeneous mixture of iron and sulfur that can be separated by magnetism.
b)
It is a solution of iron and sulfur that can be separated by magnetism.
c)
 It is a compound of iron and sulfur that can be separated by magnetism.
d)
It is a suspension of sulfur in iron that can be separated by magnetism.
70.
Which is the best set of tools to use for separating a mixture of water, sugar, and pebbles?
a)
a filter and a magnet
b)
a filter and a hot plate
c)
a magnet and a hot plate
d)
a settling tank and a filter
71.

What is a difference between distillation and evaporation?

a)

Distillation collects the solvent but evaporation does not.

b)

Distillation does not require heat energy but evaporation does.

c)

Distillation produces crystals but evaporation cannot.

d)

Distillation requires the use of a wire gauze but not evaporation.

72.

Match the following model to its name.

a)

1.

John Dalton's Atom

b)

2.

Plum Pudding Model

c)

3.

Bohr Model

d)

4.

Cloud of Probability

73.

Match the following parts of the atom to their function.

a)

Electrons

1.

Determines how an atom will react/bond

b)

Neutrons

2.

Stabilizes the atom and adds mass

c)

Protons

3.

Identifies the atom and adds mass

74.

This model this model was the first to show a nucleus, consisting of protons and neutron. Electrons surround the nucleus but are not shown in distinct energy levels.

a)

The "Rutherford Model" of the atom

b)

The "Plum Pudding Model" of the atom

c)

The "Quantum Mechanical Model" of the atom

75.
In the gold foil experiment, most of the positively charged alpha particles passed through the gold foil, but some were deflected or bounced back.  What did we conclude because of this?  
a)
Atoms are small indivisible spheres
b)
Atoms are mostly empty space with a small, dense, positive center
c)
Atoms have negatively charged particles which orbit the nucleus
d)
Light is a wave, not a particle
76.

In Rutherford's famous "Gold Foil" experiment, some particles passed through the foil, some were deflected, and some were bounced straight back. This observation made Rutherford conclude

a)

gold atoms have a solid nucleus

b)

gold atoms can conduct electricity

c)

gold atoms are denser than other metals

d)

gold's elections orbit the nucleus at definite distances from the center

77.
In the above picture, a powder is about to be poured into the liquid. Which of the following should be done to make this powder dissolve faster?

a)
stir the powder in the liquid
b)
freeze the mixture
c)
add more powder to the liquid
d)
store the mixture in a dark place
78.
Solution where more solute can still be dissolved at the given temperature. 
a)
Saturated
b)
Unsaturated
c)
Supersaturated
d)
Homogeneous solution
79.
How does a solution become supersaturated?
a)
dissolve lots of solute in it.
b)
dissolve a little solute in it. 
c)
dissolve more solute than you should be able to. 
d)
dissolve a super amount of solvent in it. 
80.
When using "like dissolves like", you are looking at what similarity in solvent and solute?
a)
mass
b)
energy
c)
polarity
d)
state of matter
81.
Which solute is the least soluble at 90 ⁰C?
a)
SO2
b)
KClO3
c)
KI
d)
HCl
82.
How many grams of K2Cr2O7, are soluble in 100 g of water at 95 ºC?
a)
83 grams
b)
75 grams
c)
40 grams
d)
12 grams
83.

Molarity is ...

a)

grams of solute/deciliters of solvent.

b)

grams of solute/liters of solution.

c)

moles of solute/liters of solution.

d)

moles of solute/milliliters of solvent.

84.
At approximately what temperature does the solubility of sodium chloride, NaCl, match the solubility of potassium dichromate, K2Cr2O7?
a)
60 ºC
b)
30 ºC
c)
50 ºC
d)
83 ºC
85.

The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a given temperature is its

a)

concentration.

b)

density.

c)

dilution.

d)

solubility.

86.
The _____is the part that gets dissolved. 
a)
solute 
b)
solvent 
c)
solution 
d)
Sacajawea 
87.
This solution would be considered
a)
Unsaturated
b)
Supersaturated
c)
Saturated
d)
Undefined
88.
Which is a quality that only gasses display
a)
Spread out to fill all available space
b)
Take the shape of their container
c)
Can't be compressed
d)
All of these
89.
If you increase the pressure of a constant volume of gas, what will happen to the temperature?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Stay the same
d)
It will Blow Up
90.
Pressure is caused by ______.
a)
gravity.
b)
gas molecules colliding with each other.
c)
gas molecules colliding with surfaces of the container.
d)
gas molecules reacting with each other.
91.

Point to the area of lower pressure

A
B
C
D
92.

What happens to the average kinetic energy of gas particles when they are heated?

a)

it increases

b)

it decreases

c)

it remains the same

d)

it is not possible to determine with the information given

93.

Which graph shows the pressure-temperature relationship expected for an ideal gas?

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

A hypothetical gas that perfectly fits all the assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory is known as

a)

real gas

b)

ideal gas

c)

imaginary gas

d)

perfect gas

95.

Under what conditions do real gases behave most like an ideal gas?

a)

Low temperature and low pressure

b)

Low temperature and high pressure

c)

High temperature and low pressure

d)

High temperature and high pressure

96.

The collisions of gas particles on the walls of a container are perfectly_______________.

a)

arranged

b)

elastic

c)

aligned

d)

sped

97.

There is/are no ___________________ present between gas particles or the walls of the container the gas is in.

a)

forces of attraction

b)

kinetic energy

c)

helium

d)

mL

98.

The whole point of making a real gas behave like an ideal gas is to overcome _________________.

a)

intermolecular forces

b)

pressure

c)

temperature

d)

speed

99.

Which type of chemical reaction has the following configuration?


Substance + Substance --> Compound


A + B --> AB

a)

Composition/Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

100.

Identify the type of chemical reaction pictured above

a)

Composition/Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

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